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SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 14 September 2025 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 24 GK / GS questions asked in SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 on 14 September 2025 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Ancient History, Static GK, Modern History, Current Affairs, Geography, Biology.

📚 24 questions🗓️ 14 September 2025⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Ancient History (2) · Static GK (6) · Modern History (1) · Current Affairs (3) · Geography (4) · Biology (1) · Polity (3) · Physics (1) · Economics (3)

Ancient History (2)

Ancient Art, Culture and Science · Stupas and chaityas

Q1. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The harmika of a stupa is the symbolic abode of the gods, located at the top.
Statement II: The harmika is where relics of the Buddha were usually kept.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) Both statements are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
  2. (b) Both statements are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
  3. (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  4. (d) Statement II is true but Statement I is false
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

The harmika is a railing or balcony-like structure at the top of a stupa. It symbolizes the abode of the gods. Statement I is CORRECT.
Relics of the Buddha were kept in the anda (the dome/drum), NOT in the harmika. Statement II is INCORRECT.
Answer: Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Vedic Period · Vedic literature (Vedas, Brahmanas, Aranyakas, Upanishads)

Q2. Which Veda primarily contains ritual formulas and detailed procedures for performing sacrifices?

  1. (a) Samaveda
  2. (b) Yajurveda
  3. (c) Atharvaveda
  4. (d) Rigveda
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Yajurveda

Rigveda — contains hymns (mantras) to gods.
Samaveda — contains melodies and chants.
Yajurveda — contains ritual formulas, prose mantras, and detailed procedures for performing yajnas (sacrifices). It is the Veda of rituals.
Atharvaveda — contains spells, charms, and philosophical texts.
Answer: Yajurveda

Static GK (6)

Music and Musical Instruments · Musical instruments and exponents

Q3. Which of the following statements best defines Ghana Vadya in the context of Indian traditional music?

  1. (a) Tuned melodic instruments played with strings and bow
  2. (b) Percussion instruments requiring precise tuning before use
  3. (c) Solid, non-tunable instruments primarily used for rhythm in folk music
  4. (d) Wind instruments made of bamboo or reed used in classical traditions
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Solid, non-tunable instruments primarily used for rhythm in folk music

Indian classical music classifies instruments into four categories: Tata (string), Avanaddha (percussion/membrane), Sushira (wind), and Ghana (solid/idiophone).
Ghana Vadya refers to solid, non-tunable percussion instruments like cymbals, bells, and gongs, used primarily for rhythm.
They do not require tuning like drums.
Answer: Solid, non-tunable instruments primarily used for rhythm in folk music
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q4. Which of the following statements about sculling in swimming is correct?

  1. (a) Sculling is used only by beginners to prevent sinking
  2. (b) During sculling, the hands remain above the water surface
  3. (c) In forward sculling, the arms stay straight and positioned in front
  4. (d) Sculling maintains balance by moving hands under water
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Sculling maintains balance by moving hands under water

Sculling is a swimming technique where the hands move in a figure-eight motion under the water surface.
It helps maintain balance, position, and propulsion in water.
Option 1: Sculling is not just for beginners. ✗
Option 2: Hands remain under the water surface, not above. ✗
Option 3: Arms are not necessarily straight in sculling. ✗
Option 4: Sculling maintains balance by moving hands under water. ✓
Answer: Sculling maintains balance by moving hands under water
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q5. Who became India's first Asian Games gold medallist by winning the 100m freestyle swimming event at New Delhi in 1951?

  1. (a) Johnny Weissmuller
  2. (b) Arjun Singh
  3. (c) Mihir Sen
  4. (d) Sachin Nag
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Sachin Nag

The 1st Asian Games were held in New Delhi in 1951.
Sachin Nag won the gold medal in the 100m freestyle swimming event — India's first Asian Games gold medal.
Johnny Weissmuller was an American swimmer, not Indian.
Mihir Sen was famous for marathon swims, not Asian Games.
Answer: Sachin Nag
Space, Defence and Technology · Military exercises

Q6. Where was the 11th edition of the India-Bangladesh joint military exercise SAMPRITI-XI conducted in 2023?

  1. (a) Jaisalmer, Rajasthan
  2. (b) Siliguri, West Bengal
  3. (c) Umroi, Meghalaya
  4. (d) Guwahati, Assam
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Umroi, Meghalaya

SAMPRITI is a bilateral military exercise between India and Bangladesh.
SAMPRITI-XI (11th edition, 2023) was held at Umroi, Meghalaya.
The exercise focuses on counter-insurgency and counter-terrorism operations.
Answer: Umroi, Meghalaya
Sports · Trophies and cups

Q7. Which historical figure is the Santosh Trophy, launched in 1941, named after?

  1. (a) Sir Manmatha Nath Roy Chowdhury
  2. (b) Sir Henry Mortimer Durand
  3. (c) Syed Abdul Rahim
  4. (d) Sailen Manna
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sir Manmatha Nath Roy Chowdhury

The Santosh Trophy is India's national football championship for state teams.
It was started in 1941 and is named after Sir Manmatha Nath Roy Chowdhury, who was the President of the Indian Football Association (IFA) and also known as the Maharaja of Santosh.
Syed Abdul Rahim — legendary Indian football coach, not the namesake.
Sailen Manna — famous Indian football captain.
Answer: Sir Manmatha Nath Roy Chowdhury
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q8. Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options:
Assertion (A): The Moor's Last Sigh is acclaimed for its intricate narrative that blends historical events with magical realism to explore Indian identity and politics.
Reason (R): The novel won the Booker Prize for its innovative storytelling and profound cultural insights.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false

Assertion A: The Moor's Last Sigh by Salman Rushdie does blend historical events with magical realism to explore Indian identity. A is TRUE.
Reason R: The Moor's Last Sigh did NOT win the Booker Prize. Rushdie's 'Midnight's Children' won the Booker Prize. R is FALSE.
Answer: A is true, but R is false.

Modern History (1)

Socio-Religious Reform Movements · Raja Ram Mohan Roy and Brahmo Samaj

Q9. How did Raja Rammohan Roy contribute to the movement against the practice of Sati in early 19th-century Bengal?

  1. (a) He organized armed protests in Bengal villages
  2. (b) He issued government ordinances against orthodox leaders
  3. (c) He campaigned using newspapers and engaged in debates
  4. (d) He formed alliances with British Christian missionaries
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) He campaigned using newspapers and engaged in debates

Raja Rammohan Roy was a social reformer who campaigned strongly against Sati.
He used newspapers like Sambad Kaumudi and Mirat-ul-Akhbar to spread awareness.
He engaged in public debates and persuaded the British government to ban Sati in 1829 through the Bengal Sati Regulation Act.
He did NOT organize armed protests or issue ordinances.
Answer: He campaigned using newspapers and engaged in debates

Current Affairs (3)

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q10. Who launched the Bharatpol portal?

  1. (a) Amit Shah
  2. (b) Narendra Modi
  3. (c) Droupadi Murmu
  4. (d) Ashwini Vaishnaw
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Amit Shah

Solution
TheBharatpol portalwas launched byUnion Home Minister Amit Shah. It was developed by theCentral Bureau of Investigation (CBI)to improve coordination with international law enforcement agencies.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q11. Why is the NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) mission designed to revisit the same location every 12 days?

  1. (a) To support low-earth orbit operations at reduced altitude
  2. (b) To enable cost-efficient satellite passes through optimized fuel consumption
  3. (c) To ensure consistent caching of data before transmission to ground stations
  4. (d) To achieve temporal resolution for global coverage and land deformation monitoring
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) To achieve temporal resolution for global coverage and land deformation monitoring

NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) is a joint Earth-observation satellite mission.
It revisits the same location every 12 days to track changes over time (temporal resolution).
This allows monitoring of land surface deformation, ice sheet changes, ecosystem disturbances, and natural hazards.
12-day revisit cycle ensures global coverage with sufficient temporal resolution.
Answer: To achieve temporal resolution for global coverage and land deformation monitoring
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q12. Based on the 2024 Travel and Tourism Development Index (TTDI), which of the following best describes global trends in tourism development conditions?

  1. (a) Low-income countries dominate the top 30 scorers
  2. (b) Most of the top 30 TTDI scorers are high-income economies from Europe and Asia-Pacific
  3. (c) The Americas and MENA account for more than half of the top 30 rankings
  4. (d) Developing economies have surpassed high-income countries in tourism infrastructure
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Most of the top 30 TTDI scorers are high-income economies from Europe and Asia-Pacific

The 2024 TTDI (World Economic Forum) shows that high-income economies, particularly from Europe (Switzerland, France, Spain) and Asia-Pacific (Japan, Australia), dominate the top rankings.
Low-income countries do not dominate the top 30.
Developing economies have not surpassed high-income countries in tourism infrastructure.
Answer: Most of the top 30 TTDI scorers are high-income economies from Europe and Asia-Pacific

Geography (4)

Atmosphere and Climate · Humidity, clouds and precipitation

Q13. What is the primary cause of convectional rainfall?

  1. (a) Cold fronts meeting warm air
  2. (b) Mountains forcing air to rise
  3. (c) Heating of air that rises and cools
  4. (d) Moist air from polar regions
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Heating of air that rises and cools

Convectional rainfall occurs when the ground surface heats up due to solar radiation.
The heated air rises, expands, and cools to form clouds.
When the clouds reach the dew point, rainfall occurs.
This is common in tropical regions, especially in afternoons.
Option 2 describes orographic/relief rainfall. Option 1 describes frontal rainfall.
Answer: Heating of air that rises and cools
India - Population and Census · Population density

Q14. Which of the following best explains how mineral deposits influence population distribution?

  1. (a) They improve soil fertility
  2. (b) They reduce need for employment
  3. (c) They attract industries and create jobs
  4. (d) They lead to deforestation only
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) They attract industries and create jobs

Mineral deposits attract mining industries, processing plants, and related businesses.
This creates employment opportunities, which draws population to those regions.
Examples: Jharkhand (coal/iron ore), Chhattisgarh (minerals) — dense industrial populations.
They do not directly improve soil fertility.
Answer: They attract industries and create jobs
Environment and Protected Areas · Elephant reserves and other conservation projects

Q15. The Aravalli Green Wall Project launched in 2023 aims to achieve which of the following?

  1. (a) Afforestation in Himalayan states
  2. (b) Building forest corridors across Indo-Gangetic plains
  3. (c) Restoration of degraded forest patches in Aravalli range
  4. (d) Soil carbon sequestration in desert zones
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Restoration of degraded forest patches in Aravalli range

The Aravalli Green Wall Project (2023) aims to create a green corridor across the Aravalli range spanning Haryana, Rajasthan, Delhi, and Gujarat.
It focuses on restoring degraded land, afforestation, and preventing desertification in the Aravalli hills.
It is NOT about Himalayan states or Indo-Gangetic plains specifically.
Answer: Restoration of degraded forest patches in Aravalli range
Universe and Solar System · Universe, galaxies and Big Bang

Q16. What astronomical observation is most severely hampered by increasing levels of urban light pollution?

  1. (a) Sunspots
  2. (b) Planetary transit
  3. (c) Deep-sky objects
  4. (d) Lunar phases
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Deep-sky objects

Urban light pollution scatters artificial light into the night sky, making faint objects difficult to observe.
Deep-sky objects (galaxies, nebulae, star clusters) are very faint and require dark skies — most severely affected.
Sunspots are observed during daytime — not affected by night-time light pollution.
Lunar phases — the Moon is bright enough that light pollution does not significantly hamper observation.
Planetary transits involve bright planets — less affected.
Answer: Deep-sky objects

Biology (1)

Nutrition and Digestion · Nutrients - carbohydrates, proteins, fats

Q17. Which biomolecule acts as the primary energy storage in animals?

  1. (a) Glycogen
  2. (b) Starch
  3. (c) Cellulose
  4. (d) Sucrose
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Glycogen

Glycogen is the primary energy storage carbohydrate in animals, stored mainly in the liver and muscles.
Starch is the primary energy storage in plants.
Cellulose is a structural carbohydrate in plant cell walls — not for energy storage.
Sucrose is a transport sugar in plants.
Answer: Glycogen

Polity (3)

Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Inter-state water disputes and inter-state trade

Q18. Under Article 262 of the Indian Constitution, which of the following interpretations most accurately reflects Parliament's authority regarding inter-State water disputes?

  1. (a) Legislate on river navigation but not bar SC jurisdiction
  2. (b) Set up tribunals for water disputes and bar SC review
  3. (c) Abolish State-level water bodies permanently
  4. (d) Mandate ISC mediation before court action
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Set up tribunals for water disputes and bar SC review

Article 262 of the Indian Constitution deals with adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers.
Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute relating to use, distribution or control of waters of any inter-State river.
Parliament may also by law bar the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court or any other court in respect of such disputes.
Inter-State Water Disputes Act, 1956 was enacted under this article.
Answer: Set up tribunals for water disputes and bar SC review
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q19. The Bharatiya Nyaya Samhita (BNS) now explicitly defines and criminalizes 'organized crime' and 'petty organized crime'. Which of the following is an example of an offense that might fall under 'petty organized crime' under Bharatiya Nyaya Samhita (BNS)?

  1. (a) Terrorist Act
  2. (b) Large-scale Drug Trafficking
  3. (c) Theft committed by a gang
  4. (d) Murder for hire
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Theft committed by a gang

Under BNS (which replaced IPC), 'organized crime' covers large-scale criminal enterprises.
'Petty organized crime' covers smaller-scale crimes committed by groups/gangs, such as theft by a gang, pick-pocketing groups, etc.
Terrorist acts and large-scale drug trafficking fall under 'organized crime', not petty.
Murder for hire is also 'organized crime'.
Theft committed by a gang is an example of 'petty organized crime'.
Answer: Theft committed by a gang
Parliament · Money bills and financial bills

Q20. Which authority decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill?

  1. (a) Finance Minister
  2. (b) President
  3. (c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
  4. (d) Comptroller & Auditor General
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Under Article 110 of the Indian Constitution, the Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to certify whether a Bill is a Money Bill.
The Speaker's decision is final and cannot be questioned in any court.
The Finance Minister drafts financial legislation but does not certify it as a Money Bill.
The President gives assent but does not decide whether it is a Money Bill.
Answer: Speaker of Lok Sabha

Physics (1)

Sound and Waves · Doppler effect, resonance and shock waves

Q21. A person standing on a railway platform notices that the sound of an approaching train's whistle changes in pitch (frequency) as the train passes by. This phenomenon is best explained by:

  1. (a) Refraction of sound
  2. (b) Diffraction of sound
  3. (c) Doppler effect
  4. (d) Resonance
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Doppler effect

When a source of sound moves relative to an observer, the observed frequency changes.
When the train approaches: frequency (pitch) appears higher.
When the train moves away: frequency appears lower.
This change in observed frequency due to relative motion between source and observer is called the Doppler Effect.
Answer: Doppler effect

Economics (3)

Agriculture and Food Security · Crop insurance and farmer schemes

Q22. Which of these schemes is implemented to promote organic farming?

  1. (a) PM-KMY (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana)
  2. (b) PKVY (Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana)
  3. (c) SHC (Soil Health Card Scheme)
  4. (d) ATMA (Agricultural Technology Management Agency)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) PKVY (Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana)

PKVY — Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana — is specifically designed to promote organic farming in India.
It supports cluster-based organic farming and certification.
PM-KMY provides pension to small farmers.
SHC provides soil health cards to farmers — not specifically for organic farming.
ATMA is for agricultural extension — technology dissemination.
Answer: PKVY (Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana)
Industry and Infrastructure · Make in India, Startup India and PLI

Q23. Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options:
Assertion (A): The National Single Window System (NSWS) supports investor clearances.
Reason (R): It works as a separate ministry.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false

Assertion A: NSWS (National Single Window System) is a platform that helps investors obtain approvals and clearances easily. A is TRUE.
Reason R: NSWS is NOT a separate ministry. It is a portal run under the DPIIT (Dept for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade). R is FALSE.
Answer: A is true, but R is false.
Industry and Infrastructure · Classification of industries (size, ownership, raw material)

Q24. Which of the following statements best defines joint sector industries?

  1. (a) They are jointly owned by the public and private sectors
  2. (b) They are run by village panchayats and municipalities
  3. (c) They are fully financed by foreign companies
  4. (d) They are operated only by self-help groups
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) They are jointly owned by the public and private sectors

Joint sector industries are enterprises that are jointly owned and operated by both the public sector (government) and private sector companies.
This combines government resources with private sector efficiency.
They are not run by panchayats or self-help groups alone.
Answer: They are jointly owned by the public and private sectors
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