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SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 21 September 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 22 GK / GS questions asked in SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 on 21 September 2025 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Static GK, Economics, Polity, Geography, Ancient History, Medieval History.

📚 22 questions🗓️ 21 September 2025⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Static GK (7) · Economics (5) · Polity (3) · Geography (3) · Ancient History (1) · Medieval History (1) · Modern History (1) · Physics (1)

Static GK (7)

Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q1. Which of the following is a main goal of the Chabahar port project?

  1. (a) To increase military presence in the region
  2. (b) To mine for undersea minerals
  3. (c) To increase tourism in Iran
  4. (d) To boost regional trade
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) To boost regional trade

Chabahar Port in Iran is developed by India primarily to boost regional trade and connectivity, particularly with Afghanistan and Central Asia, bypassing Pakistan.
Option 1: It is a commercial, not military project — wrong.
Option 2: Not its purpose — wrong.
Option 3: Tourism is not the goal — wrong.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q2. The first recorded origin of Bonalu festival is traced back to which disease outbreak in Hyderabad?

  1. (a) Smallpox
  2. (b) Cholera
  3. (c) Plague
  4. (d) Malaria
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Plague

Bonalu festival's origin dates back to the 1869 plague outbreak in Hyderabad, when devotees prayed to Goddess Mahakali to ward off the disease.
Monuments and Heritage · Forts and palaces

Q3. Consider the following statements about Chittorgarh Fort:
1. The fort features iconic structures like the Vijay Stambha and Kirti Stambha.
2. The fort complex includes nineteen main temples.
3. Its main entrance was established in the 5th century.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. (a) 1 and 2 only
  2. (b) 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 1 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

All three statements about Chittorgarh Fort are correct as per ASI records.
It has Vijay Stambha & Kirti Stambha (1).
Contains 19 main temples (2).
Main entrance established in early period (3).
Sports · Athletics - events, rules and specifications

Q4. Elite long jumpers typically use how many strides in their approach run?

  1. (a) 10–14
  2. (b) 14–18
  3. (c) 18–22
  4. (d) 22–26
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 18–22

Elite long jumpers typically use 18–22 strides in their approach run to maximize speed before take-off.
Sports · Olympic Games

Q5. Which of the following statements about India's participation in the 2008 Beijing Olympics is correct?
1) India won medals in Shooting, Boxing, and Wrestling, including its first-ever individual Olympic Gold.
2) Saina Nehwal participated in the women's singles badminton event representing India.
Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1 is Correct
  2. (b) Only 2 is Correct
  3. (c) 1 and 2 are Correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 are Correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 are Correct

Statement 1: Correct. Abhinav Bindra won India's first individual Olympic Gold (Shooting). Sushil Kumar (Wrestling) and Vijender Singh (Boxing) won bronze.
Statement 2: Correct. Saina Nehwal competed in women's singles badminton at Beijing 2008.
Both correct.
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q6. Which of the following best encapsulates the core philosophy presented in Shane Watson's book 'The Winner's Mindset'?

  1. (a) Technical manual on cricket techniques
  2. (b) Sociological study of sports and gender
  3. (c) Psychological resilience and strategic adaptability in elite sports
  4. (d) Biography of Shane Watson's cricket career
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Psychological resilience and strategic adaptability in elite sports

Shane Watson's 'The Winner's Mindset' focuses on psychological resilience and strategic adaptability in elite sports, drawing on his cricketing experience.
It is not a technical manual, sociological study, or biography.
Music and Musical Instruments · Musical instruments and exponents

Q7. Lavani is a rhythmic and sensual folk dance form from Maharashtra. What is the traditional percussion instrument used to accompany it?

  1. (a) Mridangam
  2. (b) Tabla
  3. (c) Dholki
  4. (d) Nagada
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Dholki

Dholki is the traditional percussion instrument used to accompany Lavani — a popular folk dance of Maharashtra.
Mridangam — South Indian classical music.
Tabla — Hindustani classical.
Nagada — Rajasthani folk.

Economics (5)

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Housing, sanitation and rural development schemes

Q8. Which government initiative focuses on improving the road infrastructure in rural areas of India?

  1. (a) Bharatmala Pariyojana
  2. (b) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY)
  3. (c) National Highways Development Project (NHDP)
  4. (d) Setu Bharatam Programme
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY)

PMGSY (launched 2000) aims to provide all-weather road connectivity to unconnected rural habitations.
Bharatmala — focuses on national highways and economic corridors.
NHDP — focuses on national highways.
Setu Bharatam — aims to make NHs free of railway level crossings.
National Income · Keynesian income determination and multiplier

Q9. Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct option:
Assertion (A): Increase in autonomous investment leads to a multiplied rise in national income.
Reason (R): This happens because of the marginal propensity to save being less than one.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Investment multiplier k = 1/MPS. Since MPS < 1, k > 1, so investment leads to multiplied rise in national income.
Both A and R are true; R correctly explains A.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q10. Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options:
Assertion (A): The Global Ease of Doing Business (EoDB) rankings gave maximum weightage to starting a business.
Reason (R): Starting a business was one of the 10 indicators considered.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) A is false, but R is true.

Assertion: False. EoDB gave equal weightage to all 10 indicators, not maximum to 'starting a business'.
Reason: True. Starting a business was indeed one of the 10 parameters.
Hence, A is false, R is true.
Agriculture and Food Security · Green Revolution and other agricultural revolutions

Q11. What led to regional disparity despite the overall success of the Green Revolution?

  1. (a) Uneven price controls
  2. (b) Unequal land ownership
  3. (c) HYV seed access restricted to well-irrigated regions
  4. (d) Neglect of fertilizers
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) HYV seed access restricted to well-irrigated regions

The Green Revolution's HYV (High-Yielding Variety) seeds required assured irrigation, fertilizers, and pesticides. Hence, benefits were largely confined to well-irrigated regions like Punjab, Haryana, and Western UP, while rain-fed regions lagged behind, causing regional disparity.
Industry and Infrastructure · Disinvestment

Q12. Which type of sale allows partial transfer of PSU ownership to private hands?

  1. (a) Minority sale
  2. (b) Complete sale
  3. (c) Auction
  4. (d) Leasing
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Minority sale

Minority sale (disinvestment) — government sells less than 50% stake → ownership remains with the government, but a partial share goes to private hands.
Complete sale → full privatization.
Auction and Leasing are different mechanisms.

Polity (3)

Polity Miscellaneous · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q13. Which major legal framework does the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, seek to align with in recognizing electronic evidence?

  1. (a) The Information Technology Act, 2000
  2. (b) The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
  3. (c) The National Investigation Agency Act, 2008
  4. (d) The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The Information Technology Act, 2000

Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (replacing IEA 1872) updates rules for electronic evidence and aligns with the IT Act, 2000 in recognizing electronic records.
Other Acts are unrelated to electronic evidence frameworks.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q14. Fill in the blanks:
The Rajya Sabha's special power under Art 249 allows it to authorise Parliament to legislate on a ______ List subject.

  1. (a) State
  2. (b) Union
  3. (c) Concurrent
  4. (d) Residuary
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) State

Article 249 empowers the Rajya Sabha to pass a resolution (by 2/3rd majority) allowing Parliament to legislate on a State List subject in the national interest.
Union and Concurrent List subjects are already legislable by Parliament; Residuary belongs to Parliament under Art 248.
Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · Inter-State Council and Zonal Councils

Q15. Which of the following statements about the Inter-State Council (ISC) is/are correct?
A) The Inter-State Council is headed by the Prime Minister of India.
B) It functions as a recommendatory body rather than a tribunal for dispute resolution.

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Statement A: Correct. ISC is chaired by the Prime Minister (established under Art 263, 1990).
Statement B: Correct. It is purely a recommendatory body; it does not adjudicate inter-state disputes (that is the Supreme Court's role under Art 131).
Hence, both correct.

Geography (3)

India - Agriculture · Types of farming (shifting, terrace, etc.)

Q16. 'Permaculture', a term often seen in the news, pertains to:

  1. (a) Cropping and vegetation in permafrost regions.
  2. (b) Ex-situ growth of organisms facilitated in a semi-solid medium.
  3. (c) A bioremediation technique to remove oil spills.
  4. (d) Development of sustainable agricultural ecosystems.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Development of sustainable agricultural ecosystems.

Permaculture = 'permanent agriculture'. It refers to designing sustainable agricultural ecosystems that mimic natural processes.
Other options describe unrelated concepts.
India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Soil erosion and conservation

Q17. Chambal Ravines are found in which Indian states?

  1. (a) Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh
  2. (b) Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh
  3. (c) Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat
  4. (d) Punjab, Haryana, Madhya Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh

The Chambal river flows through Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and Uttar Pradesh, where its ravines (badlands) are located.
Gujarat, Punjab, and Haryana do not lie on the Chambal.
Environment and Protected Areas · Ramsar sites and wetlands

Q18. Consider the following statements regarding India's Ramsar Sites:
1. India has the highest number of Ramsar sites in South Asia.
2. Keibul Lamjao is the only floating National Park in the world and is also a Ramsar site.
3. All Ramsar sites in India are located in coastal regions.

  1. (a) Only 1 and 2 are correct
  2. (b) Only 2 and 3 are correct
  3. (c) Only 1 and 3 are correct
  4. (d) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1 and 2 are correct

Statement 1: Correct. India has the highest number of Ramsar sites in South Asia.
Statement 2: Correct. Keibul Lamjao (Manipur) is the world's only floating national park and a Ramsar site.
Statement 3: Incorrect. Many Ramsar sites are inland (e.g., Chilika is coastal but Loktak, Sambhar are inland).
Hence, only 1 and 2 are correct.

Ancient History (1)

Indus Valley Civilisation · Artefacts and findings

Q19. In ancient India, Chanhudaro was primarily a centre for:

  1. (a) Agriculture
  2. (b) Metalworking
  3. (c) Bead-making
  4. (d) Textile weaving
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Bead-making

Chanhudaro (Harappan site in Sindh, present-day Pakistan) was a major centre for bead-making, shell-cutting, and seal-making.
Unlike other Harappan sites, it had no citadel.

Medieval History (1)

Early Medieval North India · Tripartite struggle (Palas, Pratiharas, Rashtrakutas)

Q20. Consider the following statements regarding political rivalries in early medieval India:
Statement I: The Rashtrakutas launched several campaigns to gain control over the region of Kanauj.
Statement II: The Pratiharas were primarily based in eastern India, while the Palas were established in the western and central regions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only Statement I is correct
  2. (b) Only Statement II is correct
  3. (c) Both Statement I and II are correct
  4. (d) Neither Statement I nor Statement II is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only Statement I is correct

Statement I: Correct. Rashtrakutas were part of the tripartite struggle for Kanauj.
Statement II: Incorrect. Pratiharas were based in western/northern India; Palas were in eastern India (Bengal & Bihar).
Hence, only Statement I is correct.

Modern History (1)

Socio-Religious Reform Movements · Social reform laws (sati, widow remarriage, child marriage)

Q21. Who introduced the law that abolished the practice of Sati in British India in 1829?

  1. (a) Lord Dalhousie
  2. (b) Lord Curzon
  3. (c) Lord William Bentinck
  4. (d) Lord Canning
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Lord William Bentinck

Lord William Bentinck (Governor-General) introduced the Bengal Sati Regulation, 1829, abolishing Sati.
Dalhousie — Doctrine of Lapse.
Curzon — Partition of Bengal (1905).
Canning — Governor-General during 1857 revolt.

Physics (1)

Light - Reflection and Mirrors · Concave mirror - image formation and uses

Q22. Which mirror type is used in solar furnaces to focus sunlight?

  1. (a) Convex
  2. (b) Plane
  3. (c) Concave
  4. (d) Biconvex
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Concave

Concave mirrors converge parallel rays of sunlight to a single focal point, producing very high temperatures — ideal for solar furnaces.
Convex mirrors diverge light. Plane mirrors do not focus. Biconvex is a lens, not a mirror.
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