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SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 28 November 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 25 GK / GS questions asked in SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 on 28 November 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Medieval History, Polity, Economics, Current Affairs, Static GK, Geography.

📚 25 questions🗓️ 28 November 2025⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Medieval History (1) · Polity (4) · Economics (4) · Current Affairs (7) · Static GK (6) · Geography (1) · Modern History (2)

Medieval History (1)

Delhi Sultanate · Slave (Mamluk) dynasty

Q1. Which of the following pair regarding the Ruler of Delhi Sultanate and period of their rule is correct?
I. Ghiyasuddin Balban - 1266-1287
II. Firuz Shah Tughlug - 1351-1388

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Both pairs are correct.
Ghiyasuddin Balban ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1266 to 1287 AD. He was a powerful ruler of the Slave Dynasty known for his strong administrative reforms.
Firuz Shah Tughlug ruled the Tughlug Dynasty from 1351 to 1388 AD. He was known for his welfare works like construction of canals and hospitals.
Hence, Both I and II is the correct answer.

Polity (4)

Amendments and Important Articles · Amendment procedure (Article 368)

Q2. Which article of the Indian Constitution is related with Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and procedure therefor?

  1. (a) Article 355
  2. (b) Article 368
  3. (c) Article 375
  4. (d) Article 394
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 368

Article 368 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and the procedure for doing so. It lays down the amending procedure — some provisions can be amended by simple majority, some by special majority, and some require ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures.
Article 355 deals with the duty of the Union to protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance.
Article 375 deals with continuance of courts, authorities and officers.
Article 394 deals with the commencement of certain provisions of the Constitution.
Judiciary · Supreme Court - composition and appointment

Q3. Article 126 of the Indian Constitution mentions _____.

  1. (a) Appointment of ad hoc Judges
  2. (b) Appointment of acting Chief Justice of India
  3. (c) Supreme Court to be a court of record
  4. (d) Seat of Supreme Court
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Appointment of acting Chief Justice of India

Article 126 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Appointment of an acting Chief Justice of India. When the office of the Chief Justice of India is vacant, or when the Chief Justice is unable to perform duties, the President of India can appoint one of the other Judges of the Supreme Court to perform the duties.
Article 127 deals with appointment of ad hoc Judges.
Article 129 declares the Supreme Court to be a court of record.
Article 130 deals with the Seat of the Supreme Court.
Union Executive · Council of Ministers and Cabinet

Q4. What subject does Article 77 of the Indian Constitution pertain to?

  1. (a) Rights of ministers in Parliament
  2. (b) Duties of prime minister
  3. (c) Conduct of business of the Government of India
  4. (d) Council of Ministers to aid and advise President
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Conduct of business of the Government of India

Article 77 of the Indian Constitution pertains to the Conduct of Business of the Government of India. It authorises the President to make rules for the more convenient transaction of business of the Government and for the allocation of business among Ministers.
Rights of ministers in Parliament is covered under other articles.
Duties of the Prime Minister are covered under Article 78.
Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President is covered under Article 74.
State Government · Legislative Council - creation and abolition

Q5. Members of the Legislative Council of an Indian state as nearly as may be, _____ shall be elected by electorates consisting of members of municipalities, district boards and such other local authorities in the State as Parliament may by law specify.

  1. (a) 1/12
  2. (b) 1/3
  3. (c) 1/2
  4. (d) 1/6
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1/3

As per Article 171(3)(a) of the Indian Constitution, as nearly as may be, 1/3 of the total membership of the State Legislative Council shall be elected by electorates consisting of members of municipalities, district boards, and other local authorities specified by Parliament.
1/12 of members are elected by graduates.
1/12 of members are elected by teachers.
1/6 of members are nominated by the Governor.
1/3 of members are elected by the Legislative Assembly.

Economics (4)

External Sector and International Economic Organisations · ADB, AIIB, NDB and other banks

Q6. The New Development Bank is associated with which of the following international organisations?

  1. (a) BRICS
  2. (b) World Trade Organisation
  3. (c) QUAD
  4. (d) SAARC
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) BRICS

The New Development Bank (NDB), also known as the BRICS Development Bank, was established by the BRICS nations (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa). It was set up in 2014 and is headquartered in Shanghai, China. Its purpose is to mobilise resources for infrastructure and sustainable development in BRICS and other emerging economies.
WTO, QUAD, and SAARC are unrelated to NDB.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Energy and power sector schemes

Q7. Which ministry oversees Pradhan Mantri Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana launched in February 2024?

  1. (a) Ministry of Power
  2. (b) Ministry of New & Renewable Energy
  3. (c) Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change
  4. (d) Ministry of Rural Development
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ministry of New & Renewable Energy

The Pradhan Mantri Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana, launched in February 2024, is overseen by the Ministry of New & Renewable Energy. This scheme aims to provide free electricity up to 300 units per month to 1 crore households by installing rooftop solar panels.
Ministry of Power handles conventional electricity.
Ministry of Environment deals with environmental policies.
Ministry of Rural Development handles rural welfare programmes.
Financial Markets and Institutions · Insurance and IRDAI

Q8. In which year did the committee for reforms in the insurance sector formed under the chairmanship of R.N. Malhotra submitted its report?

  1. (a) 1991
  2. (b) 1992
  3. (c) 1994
  4. (d) 1995
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1994

The R.N. Malhotra Committee, set up to recommend reforms in the insurance sector in India, submitted its report in 1994. Based on its recommendations, the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) was established and the insurance sector was opened to private players.
1991, 1992, and 1995 are incorrect years for submission of this report.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Deficits (fiscal, revenue, primary)

Q9. The gross fiscal deficit as a ratio to GDP in India had climbed to _____ per cent by 1990-91.

  1. (a) 10
  2. (b) 25
  3. (c) 30
  4. (d) 45
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 10

The gross fiscal deficit as a ratio to GDP in India had climbed to approximately 10 per cent by 1990-91. This was a period of severe fiscal stress and balance of payments crisis in India, which led to the landmark economic reforms of 1991 under Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao and Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh.
25%, 30%, and 45% are incorrect figures for this period.

Current Affairs (7)

International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q10. Where was the BIMSTEC Summit held in April 2025?

  1. (a) India
  2. (b) Bangladesh
  3. (c) Bhutan
  4. (d) Thailand
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Thailand

The 6th BIMSTEC Summit was held in Bangkok, Thailand in April 2025. BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) includes 7 member states: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand.
India, Bangladesh, and Bhutan are also BIMSTEC members but were not the host of this summit.
Appointments and Resignations · Heads of organisations

Q11. Who has been appointed as the President of the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) for FY 2025-26?

  1. (a) Sanjiv Puri
  2. (b) R Mukundan
  3. (c) Rajiv Memani
  4. (d) T. Rabi Sankar
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Rajiv Memani

Rajiv Memani was appointed as the President of the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) for the financial year 2025-26. CII is a non-governmental trade association and advocacy group headquartered in New Delhi. It plays a key role in shaping India's industrial and economic policies.
Sanjiv Puri, R Mukundan, and T. Rabi Sankar are other notable business personalities but not CII President for 2025-26.
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q12. In July 2024, Om Prakash Mathur has been appointed as Governor of _____.

  1. (a) Assam
  2. (b) Sikkim
  3. (c) Tripura
  4. (d) Nagaland
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sikkim

Om Prakash Mathur was appointed as the Governor of Sikkim in July 2024. He is a senior BJP leader and has also served as the Governor of other states previously.
Assam, Tripura, and Nagaland are other northeastern states that have different governors.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Policies, laws and bills

Q13. In June 2025, EPFO revised its auto-settlement limit. This limit is now Rs. _____ lakh.

  1. (a) 1
  2. (b) 2
  3. (c) 5
  4. (d) 10
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 5

In June 2025, the Employees' Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) revised its auto-settlement limit to Rs. 5 lakh. This means EPFO members can now claim up to Rs. 5 lakh through the automated settlement process without manual intervention, making it faster and easier for members to access their funds.
Rs. 1 lakh, Rs. 2 lakh, and Rs. 10 lakh are incorrect figures.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Policies, laws and bills

Q14. Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas has on 4 August 2025 issued a detailed response to certain concerns raised on the impact of _____ percent Ethanol Blended Petrol on mileage and vehicle life.

  1. (a) 20
  2. (b) 40
  3. (c) 60
  4. (d) 50
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 20

The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas issued a detailed response on 4 August 2025 regarding concerns about the impact of 20 percent Ethanol Blended Petrol (E20) on mileage and vehicle life. E20 is a blend of 20% ethanol with 80% petrol. The government's Ethanol Blending Programme aims to achieve 20% blending by 2025-26 to reduce import dependence and lower carbon emissions.
40%, 60%, and 50% are incorrect blending percentages in this context.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Technology launches and AI

Q15. Which of the following institution has developed a device named "AroTrack"?

  1. (a) IIT Bombay
  2. (b) IISC Bangalore
  3. (c) IIT Kanpur
  4. (d) IIT Roorkee
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) IIT Bombay

IIT Bombay developed the device named "AroTrack," an aroma-tracking device. It is designed to detect and track specific scents or chemical compounds, with potential applications in areas such as food quality testing, environmental monitoring, and defence.
IISC Bangalore, IIT Kanpur, and IIT Roorkee are premier research institutions but did not develop AroTrack.
Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q16. In January 2025, India Open badminton tournament was held in _____.

  1. (a) New Delhi
  2. (b) Chennai
  3. (c) Bengaluru
  4. (d) Kolkata
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) New Delhi

The India Open Badminton Tournament 2025 was held in New Delhi in January 2025. It is a prestigious BWF Super 750 event held annually in India. The Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium in New Delhi is the regular venue for this tournament.
Chennai, Bengaluru, and Kolkata are not the venue for the India Open Badminton 2025.

Static GK (6)

Awards and Honours · Film awards (Dadasaheb Phalke, National Film Awards)

Q17. Amitabh Bachchan had been selected for the Dada Saheb Phalke award for the year _____.

  1. (a) 2014
  2. (b) 2016
  3. (c) 2018
  4. (d) 2020
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2018

Amitabh Bachchan was selected for the Dada Saheb Phalke Award for the year 2018. This award is India's highest honour in cinema and is given by the Government of India for outstanding contribution to the growth and development of Indian cinema.
2014, 2016, and 2020 are incorrect years for his Dada Saheb Phalke Award.
National Symbols, Firsts and Superlatives · First in India - persons

Q18. Who among the following was the first Indian female doctor of western medicine?

  1. (a) EK Janaki Ammal
  2. (b) Rupa Bai Furdoonji
  3. (c) Mary Poonen Lukose
  4. (d) Anandibai Gopalrao Joshi
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Anandibai Gopalrao Joshi

Anandibai Gopalrao Joshi was the first Indian woman to obtain a degree in western medicine. She obtained her MD degree from the Women's Medical College of Pennsylvania, USA in 1886. She was a pioneering figure in the field of women's medical education in India.
EK Janaki Ammal was a botanist and plant scientist.
Rupa Bai Furdoonji was an early educated Indian woman but not a western medicine doctor.
Mary Poonen Lukose was a notable Indian female surgeon but not the first.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q19. _____ was the first Indian to win a medal in Birmingham Commonwealth Games 2022.

  1. (a) Sanket Sargar
  2. (b) Mirabai Chanu
  3. (c) Harjinder Kaur
  4. (d) Vikas Thakur
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sanket Sargar

Sanket Sargar was the first Indian to win a medal at the Birmingham Commonwealth Games 2022. He won a silver medal in weightlifting (55 kg category) on the first day of competition.
Mirabai Chanu won gold in the 49 kg weightlifting category but was not the first medallist of the Games.
Harjinder Kaur and Vikas Thakur also won medals in weightlifting but after Sanket Sargar.
Sports · Olympic Games

Q20. Which of the following sport was not played in the Summer Olympics 2024?

  1. (a) Ice Skating
  2. (b) Badminton
  3. (c) Lawn tennis
  4. (d) Basketball
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ice Skating

Ice Skating (including Figure Skating and Speed Skating) is a Winter Olympics sport, not a Summer Olympics sport, and was therefore not played at the Paris Summer Olympics 2024.
Badminton has been a Summer Olympics sport since 1992.
Lawn Tennis (Tennis) has been part of the Summer Olympics since 1988.
Basketball has been an Olympic sport since 1936.
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q21. Who among the following invented the game of judo?

  1. (a) Jigoro Kano
  2. (b) James Naismith
  3. (c) James Creighton
  4. (d) Ebenezer Morley
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Jigoro Kano

Judo was invented by Jigoro Kano in Japan in 1882. He developed it as a modern martial art and sport based on traditional Japanese jujutsu. Judo became an Olympic sport at the 1964 Tokyo Olympics.
James Naismith invented basketball in 1891.
James Creighton is associated with the development of ice hockey.
Ebenezer Morley is credited with drafting the first rules of association football (soccer).
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q22. Which festival of Kerala has entered the Guinness World Records for being the single largest gathering of women for a religious activity?

  1. (a) Chikalkalo
  2. (b) Pooram
  3. (c) Vishu
  4. (d) Attukal Pongala
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Attukal Pongala

Attukal Pongala festival of Kerala holds the Guinness World Record for the largest gathering of women for a religious activity. Millions of women gather at the Attukal Bhagavathy Temple in Thiruvananthapuram every year to cook pongala (a rice pudding) as an offering to the goddess.
Chikalkalo, Pooram, and Vishu are other Kerala festivals but do not hold this Guinness record.

Geography (1)

Environment and Protected Areas · Elephant reserves and other conservation projects

Q23. The Aravalli Green Wall Project is a major initiative to spread green cover in the _____ km buffer area around the Aravalli hill range.

  1. (a) 5
  2. (b) 35
  3. (c) 60
  4. (d) 125
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 5

The Aravalli Green Wall Project aims to spread green cover in a 5 km buffer area around the Aravalli hill range. The project spans the states of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Haryana, and Delhi. Its purpose is to combat desertification, prevent the Thar Desert from expanding eastward, and restore ecological balance in the Aravalli region.
35 km, 60 km, and 125 km are incorrect buffer distances.

Modern History (2)

British Administration and Policies · Governors-General and Viceroys - events

Q24. Around which year was Robert Clive appointed the Governor of Bengal?

  1. (a) 1733
  2. (b) 1752
  3. (c) 1764
  4. (d) 1781
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1764

Robert Clive was appointed as the first Governor of Bengal (formally as Governor of the Presidency of Fort William) around 1765, following the Battle of Buxar (1764). He served as Governor of Bengal from 1765 to 1767. The year 1764 is considered the reference year.
1733 and 1781 are unrelated to Clive's governorship.
1752 was around the time Clive was engaged in military campaigns in the Carnatic region, not Bengal.
Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Early civil and tribal revolts

Q25. The _____ took place in Assam in 1906.

  1. (a) Revolt of Songram Sangma
  2. (b) Self Respect Movement
  3. (c) Blue rebellion
  4. (d) Koli Revolt
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Revolt of Songram Sangma

The Revolt of Songram Sangma took place in Assam in 1906. Songram Sangma led a tribal uprising in the Garo Hills of Assam against British colonial rule and exploitation. It is an important event in the history of tribal resistance movements in Northeast India.
The Self Respect Movement was started by Periyar E.V. Ramasamy in Tamil Nadu in 1925.
The Blue Rebellion (Nil Bidroha) was the indigo revolt of Bengal in 1859-60.
The Koli Revolt took place in the Bombay Presidency in the early 19th century.
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