SSC GD 2026 21 May 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Natya Shastra — Option (c)
The Natya Shastra is the ancient Sanskrit treatise that forms the theoretical basis of all classical Indian dance forms, including Odissi. About Natya Shastra: Author: Attributed to Bharata Muni; it is one of the oldest surviving texts on performing arts in the world; Period: Estimated to have been composed between 200 BCE and 200 CE; Content: A comprehensive treatise on dance, drama, and music — covers 36 chapters dealing with: rasa (aesthetic emotions), bhava (emotions), abhinaya (expression), tala (rhythm), raga (melody), theatrical construction, costume, makeup, and stage design; The Navarasa (nine rasas): Shringara (love), Hasya (comedy), Karuna (sorrow), Raudra (fury), Vira (heroism), Bhayanaka (terror), Bibhatsa (disgust), Adbhuta (wonder), Shanta (peace); Connection to Odissi: Odissi dance (from Odisha) derives its theoretical framework — postures, footwork, hand gestures (mudras), facial expressions, and compositional forms — from the principles laid down in Natya Shastra; the ' Tribhangi ' posture (S-curve body position) central to Odissi is rooted in Natya Shastra concepts; All eight classical dance forms (Bharatanatyam, Kathak, Kathakali, Kuchipudi, Manipuri, Mohiniyattam , Odissi, Sattriya ) are grounded in Natya Shastra.
Option (a) Ramayana — Incorrect: The Ramayana is one of the two great Sanskrit epics of ancient India (the other being Mahabharata), attributed to Maharishi Valmiki; while it provides themes and narratives performed in classical dances, it is NOT the theoretical text that forms the basis/foundation of classical dance forms — that is the Natya Shastra.
Option (b) Mahabharata — Incorrect: The Mahabharata is the world's longest epic poem (attributed to Vyasa), containing about 100,000 shlokas; while its stories (including the Bhagavad Gita) are depicted in classical dances, it is NOT the treatise that provides the theoretical framework for classical dance — that is the Natya Shastra. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Arthashastra — Incorrect: The Arthashastra is an ancient Indian treatise on statecraft, economic policy, and military strategy, attributed to Chanakya (Kautilya); it deals with governance and economics, NOT with the theory of performing arts; the foundational text for classical dance forms is the Natya Shastra.

Correct Answer: 14 — Option (b)
According to the official Rules of Golf (USGA and R&A), a golfer is allowed a maximum of 14 clubs in their bag during a round of golf. Key rules about golf clubs: The 14-club limit has been part of golf rules since 1938; A golfer may carry fewer than 14 clubs but cannot exceed 14 at any time during a stipulated round; Typical 14-club selection: 1 Driver, 1 3-wood (or other fairway wood), 1 5-wood (optional), 2-3 Hybrid clubs, 5-7 Irons (3-iron through 9-iron), 1 Pitching wedge, 1 Sand wedge, 1 Lob wedge, 1 Putter; Types of golf clubs: Woods (for long distances — driver, fairway woods), Irons (versatile clubs numbered 1-9), Wedges (for short approach shots — pitching, gap, sand, lob), Hybrids (cross between irons and woods), Putters (for rolling the ball on the green); Penalty for carrying more than 14 clubs: In stroke play — 2 penalty strokes per hole where the violation occurred (maximum 4 strokes); In match play — loss of the hole for each hole where the violation occurred (maximum 2 holes).
Option (a) 12 — Incorrect: The maximum number of clubs a golfer can carry is 14, not 12; carrying 12 clubs is permitted (as it is below the maximum), but 14 is the official maximum limit per the Rules of Golf. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) 16 — Incorrect: A golfer cannot carry 16 clubs — the maximum is 14; carrying more than 14 clubs results in a penalty; 16 would be a violation of the Rules of Golf.
Option (d) 18 — Incorrect: 18 is not the number of maximum clubs (though 18 is the standard number of holes in a full round of golf); the maximum number of clubs allowed per the Rules of Golf is 14, not 18.

Correct Answer: Only II — Option (b)
Only Statement II is correct about New Space India Limited (NSIL). Statement I Analysis — 'It is a private sector venture' (INCORRECT): NSIL is NOT a private sector company; it is a Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) — a Government of India undertaking; It was incorporated on March 6, 2019 under the Companies Act, 2013, as a wholly owned Government of India company under the Department of Space (DoS); It is India's second space public sector undertaking after Antrix Corporation; Statement II Analysis — 'It is involved in the manufacture of various types and categories of satellites and in-orbit delivery work' (CORRECT): NSIL is involved in: Manufacturing of Small Satellite Launch Vehicles (SSLVs) and PSLV rockets through Indian industry; Building operational communication satellites (like GSAT series); Providing launch services for commercial customers; Technology transfer from ISRO to Indian industry; In-orbit delivery of satellites as a commercial service; Key roles of NSIL: Demand-driven space activities; technology absorption by Indian industry; commercial exploitation of ISRO's research; NewSpace growth in India.
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: Statement I ('It is a private sector venture') is WRONG — NSIL is a Government of India CPSE (Central Public Sector Enterprise), not a private sector company; Statement II is the correct statement about NSIL.
Option (c) Both I and II — Incorrect: Statement I is incorrect (NSIL is a government company, not private); only Statement II (involvement in satellite manufacture and in-orbit delivery) is correct; therefore 'Both I and II' cannot be the answer. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Statement II IS correct — NSIL is indeed involved in the manufacture of various categories of satellites and in-orbit delivery work; 'Neither I nor II' would mean both statements are wrong, which is incorrect.

Correct Answer: Guitar — Option (c)
The traditional Mizo musical instrument 'Tingtang' is known as the Mizo version of the Guitar. About Tingtang: The Tingtang is a traditional stringed instrument of the Mizo people of Mizoram (a state in Northeast India); It is essentially the indigenous Mizo equivalent of a guitar — a plucked stringed instrument; Construction: Traditionally made from bamboo and other locally available materials; has strings that are plucked to produce music; Musical tradition of Mizoram: Mizo music has a rich tradition with various traditional instruments: Tingtang (guitar equivalent — plucked strings), Darkhuang (gong), Bengbung (drum), Khuang (drum), Phenglawng (flute), Hnahtum (mouth organ); Cultural significance: The Tingtang reflects the creative ingenuity of the Mizo people in adapting traditional musical forms; it is used in folk songs, community celebrations, and cultural events; About Mizoram: Located in Northeast India; the Mizo people are primarily of Tibeto-Burman origin; known for their musical traditions, literacy (one of highest literacy rates in India), and vibrant folk culture; Capital: Aizawl.
Option (a) Flute — Incorrect: The Mizo version of the flute is called ' Phenglawng ' (a bamboo flute) — not Tingtang; the Tingtang is the Mizo version of the guitar (plucked stringed instrument).
Option (b) Drum — Incorrect: The Mizo drums are called ' Khuang ' and ' Bengbung ' — not Tingtang; Tingtang is a plucked stringed instrument equivalent to the guitar, not a drum.
Option (d) Cymbal — Incorrect: The Mizo cymbal/gong equivalent is called ' Darkhuang ' — not Tingtang; Tingtang is specifically the Mizo version of the guitar (a plucked stringed instrument).

Correct Answer: Peninsular Plateau — Option (d)
The Peninsular Plateau (Deccan Plateau) is the oldest physical division of India from a geological perspective. Geological age: The Peninsular Plateau is composed of some of the oldest rocks on Earth — ancient crystalline, igneous, and metamorphic rocks (Archaean/Precambrian rocks, over 600 million years old); It is part of the ancient Gondwana supercontinent that existed before the breakup of landmasses; Gondwana connection: About 200 million years ago, India was part of the Gondwana landmass; as Gondwana broke up, the Indian Plate drifted northward, eventually colliding with the Eurasian plate to form the Himalayas; Rock types: The plateau consists of gneiss, granite, schist, and basalt (Deccan Traps — formed by massive volcanic eruptions 65-66 million years ago); Contrast with other divisions: Himalayas: Geologically youngest — formed about 40-50 million years ago due to the collision between the Indian and Eurasian tectonic plates; Indo-Gangetic Plains: Even younger — formed by alluvial deposits from Himalayan rivers; Coastal Plains: Also relatively recent geological formations; The Peninsular Plateau, being of Precambrian origin, is the geologically oldest among all physical divisions of India.
Option (a) Himalaya — Incorrect: The Himalayas are geologically the YOUNGEST physical division of India — they were formed relatively recently (about 40-50 million years ago) due to the collision of the Indian Plate with the Eurasian Plate; the Peninsular Plateau is far older.
Option (b) Indo-Gangetic Plains — Incorrect: The Indo-Gangetic Plains (also called the Great Plain of India) are formed by alluvial deposits from rivers — this is a geologically recent formation; the Peninsular Plateau (Archaean rocks) is the oldest.
Option (c) Coastal Plains — Incorrect: India's coastal plains are geologically recent formations, created by marine deposits and river deltas; they are among the youngest landforms in India; the Peninsular Plateau is geologically the oldest division of India.

Correct Answer: They lack iron (ferrous element) — Option (b)
The defining characteristic of non-ferrous minerals is that they do NOT contain iron (Fe) as a primary component. Definition: Non-ferrous minerals/metals are those that do not contain iron in significant quantities (or at all) as a primary constituent; The term 'ferrous' comes from the Latin ' ferrum ' meaning iron; therefore 'non-ferrous' literally means 'without iron'; Examples of non-ferrous metals and their minerals: Copper — chalcopyrite, malachite, azurite; Gold — native gold, gold tellurides; Silver — argentite, galena; Aluminium — bauxite; Zinc — sphalerite; Lead — galena; Tin — cassiterite; Nickel — pentlandite; Chromite — chromium ore; Manganese — pyrolusite; Characteristics of non-ferrous minerals: Do NOT contain iron as primary element; Generally higher resistance to corrosion compared to iron; Often have specific valuable properties: copper (electrical conductivity), aluminium (low weight), gold/silver (non-corrosive, valuable); Higher economic value per tonne than ferrous metals; Used in electronics, electrical wiring, aerospace, jewelry, plating; India's non-ferrous mineral resources: India has significant copper reserves (Rajasthan), bauxite (Odisha, Gujarat), zinc-lead (Rajasthan — Zawar mines), manganese (Odisha, Madhya Pradesh).
Option (a) They contain iron — Incorrect: This is the opposite — minerals that contain iron are called FERROUS minerals (like iron ore — magnetite, hematite, limonite, siderite); NON-ferrous minerals are specifically those that LACK iron as their primary constituent.
Option (c) They are limited to construction only — Incorrect: Non-ferrous minerals are NOT limited to construction — they have a wide range of applications including electronics (copper wiring), aerospace ( aluminium alloys), jewelry (gold, silver), chemical industries, batteries (lead, zinc), etc.; this is a false characteristic.
Option (d) They are only metallic — Incorrect: While many non-ferrous minerals are indeed metals, not ALL non-ferrous minerals are metallic; some are mineral compounds; moreover, the defining characteristic of non-ferrous minerals is the ABSENCE OF IRON — not that they are 'only metallic'; this option is misleading and incorrect.

Correct Answer: Jagannath Temple, Puri — Option (a)
The Jagannath Temple in Puri, Odisha, is a classic example of the Kalinga style of architecture. About Kalinga Architecture: The Kalinga style of temple architecture developed in ancient Kalinga (modern Odisha) and is one of the major regional styles of Indian temple architecture; It has three sub-types: Rekha Deula (or Rekha Prasad): Curvilinear tower (shikhara) — the most common type; used for main shrine (sanctum sanctorum); Pidha Deula: Pyramid-shaped superstructure — used for the 'Jagamohana' (assembly hall); Khakhara Deula: A barrel-vaulted roof — associated with Chamunda and Durga temples; Jagannath Temple: Located in Puri, Odisha; built in the 12th century (around 1161 CE) by King Anantavarman Chodaganga Deva; Height: Main tower (Rekha Deula) is about 65 meters tall; The complex includes the Rekha Deula (sanctum), Jagamohana (assembly hall), Natamandira (dancing hall), and Bhogamandapa (hall of offerings); Famous for the Rath Yatra (Chariot Festival); Other examples of Kalinga architecture: Lingaraj Temple (Bhubaneswar), Sun Temple at Konark, Mukteshwar Temple (Bhubaneswar).
Option (b) Brihadeeswara Temple — Incorrect: The Brihadeeswara Temple (also called Peruvudaiyar Kovil) in Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu, is a prime example of DRAVIDIAN (Chola) architecture — NOT Kalinga architecture; built by Raja Raja Chola I (1003-1010 CE); it has a gopuram (gateway tower) and vimana (tower over sanctum) typical of South Indian Dravidian style. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) Meenakshi Temple, Madurai — Incorrect: The Meenakshi Amman Temple in Madurai, Tamil Nadu, is another example of DRAVIDIAN architecture — characterized by towering gopurams (gateway towers), the tallest of which is 52 meters; it is NOT an example of Kalinga architecture.
Option (d) Shore Temple, Mamallapuram — Incorrect: The Shore Temple at Mamallapuram (Mahabalipuram), Tamil Nadu, is an example of PALLAVA architecture (Dravidian style) — built during the reign of Narasimhavarman II (700-728 CE); it is a UNESCO World Heritage Site but is NOT an example of Kalinga architecture.

Correct Answer: Ain- i -Akbari — Option (d)
The third volume of Akbarnama is known as 'Ain- i -Akbari' ( آئینِ اکبری — meaning 'The Constitution of Akbar' or 'The Institutes of Akbar'). About Akbarnama : Author: Abul Fazl (Abu'l-Fazl ibn Mubarak), the court historian and close advisor of Emperor Akbar; Written: Between 1590 and 1596 CE at Akbar's command; Language: Persian; About the three volumes: Volume 1: Covers history from Timur (ancestor of the Mughals) through Babur, Humayun, and the first 17 years of Akbar's reign; Volume 2: Covers the remaining years of Akbar's reign (17th to 46th regnal year); Volume 3 — Ain- i -Akbari: The most distinctive volume; it is essentially a gazetteer and administrative manual of the Mughal Empire; divided into 5 books (Daftars): Book 1 — Akbar's household, harem, stables, military organization; Book 2 — Regulations of the army, servants, land revenue; Book 3 — Revenue administration of provinces (important for historians); Book 4 — Hindu philosophy, sciences, and traditions; Book 5 — Ahadis (sayings and conversations of Akbar).
Option (a) Tuzuk -e- Baburi — Incorrect: Tuzuk -e- Baburi (also called Baburnama ) is the autobiography of the Mughal Emperor Babur — the first Mughal emperor; it is a separate work written by Babur himself (not Abul Fazl) and has no connection to the Akbarnama .
Option (b) Razmnama — Incorrect: Razmnama (meaning 'Book of War') is the Persian translation of the Mahabharata commissioned by Emperor Akbar (translated by court scholars including Faizi and Naqib Khan); it is a separate work and NOT a volume of the Akbarnama .
Option (c) Fatwa-e- Jahandari — Incorrect: Fatwa-e- Jahandari is a political treatise written by Ziauddin Barani (a 14th-century Delhi Sultanate historian) during the reign of Firuz Shah Tughlaq — it is a completely separate work from the Akbarnama and is NOT a volume of it.

Correct Answer: Manan Kumar Mishra — Option (a)
Manan Kumar Mishra was the Chairman of the Bar Council of India as of May 2025. About Manan Kumar Mishra: He is a senior advocate and has been a prominent figure in the Indian legal fraternity; He has served as the Chairman of the Bar Council of India, the statutory body that regulates the legal profession in India; About the Bar Council of India (BCI): Established under the Advocates Act, 1961; Statutory body that regulates legal education and legal profession in India; Functions: Setting standards for legal education, granting certificates of enrollment to advocates, prescribing rules for professional conduct and etiquette, safeguarding the rights and interests of advocates; Composition: Consists of one member elected from each State Bar Council, plus the Attorney General of India and the Solicitor General of India as ex-officio members; The Chairman is elected by members of the BCI from among themselves; State Bar Councils exist in each state to regulate advocates at the state level.
Option (b) Dushyant Dave — Incorrect: Dushyant Dave is a prominent Senior Advocate of India who has served as President of the Supreme Court Bar Association (SCBA) — a separate body from the Bar Council of India; he was not the Chairman of BCI as of May 2025.
Option (c) Vikas Singh — Incorrect: Vikas Singh is a Senior Advocate who has also served as President of the Supreme Court Bar Association; he was not the Chairman of the Bar Council of India as of May 2025.
Option (d) P.S. Patwalia — Incorrect: P.S. Patwalia is a former judge and legal professional; he was not serving as Chairman of the Bar Council of India as of May 2025; the correct answer is Manan Kumar Mishra.

Correct Answer: Arvinder Singh Sahni — Option (c)
Arvinder Singh Sahni was appointed as the Chairman of Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL) in November 2024. Key facts: Arvinder Singh Sahni took charge as the Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL) in November 2024; About Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL): IOCL is India's largest commercial enterprise by revenue and the only Indian company in the Fortune Global 50 list; It is a Maharatna Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) under the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas; Established: 1959 (as Indian Refineries Ltd), renamed Indian Oil Corporation in 1964; Business: Petroleum refining, pipelines, marketing of petroleum products, petrochemicals, natural gas, and exploration & production; Network: IOCL has the largest marketing network among Indian oil companies — over 50,000 fuel stations across India; Refineries: Operates 11 refineries with a combined refining capacity of about 80.7 MMTPA; Headquarters: New Delhi; Key products: Petrol, diesel, LPG (Indane brand), Lubricants (Servo brand), aviation fuel.
Option (a) K.K. Pathak — Incorrect: K.K. Pathak is associated with the education sector (he was Additional Chief Secretary of Education in Bihar); he was not appointed as Chairman of Indian Oil Corporation in November 2024.
Option (b) Alok Joshi — Incorrect: Alok Joshi is associated with intelligence/security services (he has been associated with RAW — Research and Analysis Wing); he was not the Chairman of Indian Oil Corporation in November 2024.
Option (d) Arvind Srivastava — Incorrect: Arvind Srivastava is a senior IAS officer associated with the Finance Ministry; he was not appointed as Chairman of Indian Oil Corporation in November 2024; the correct answer is Arvinder Singh Sahni.

Correct Answer: Odisha — Option (b)
Odisha is establishing the world's first Black Tiger Safari. About the Black Tiger Safari in Odisha: Location: To be set up near the Simlipal Tiger Reserve in the Mayurbhanj district of Odisha; Why Odisha? Simlipal Tiger Reserve is the only known habitat of the rare pseudo-melanistic (black) tigers in the entire world; Simlipal has a significant population of these rare tigers; The Black Tiger Safari is planned to give tourists a chance to see these unique tigers in a safari setting; About Black Tigers (Pseudo-melanistic Tigers): These are NOT fully melanistic (true black) tigers; They are called 'pseudo-melanistic' because they have extremely wide, merged stripes that give them a darker/black appearance; The scientific name remains Panthera tigris tigris (Bengal tiger); The dark coloration is due to a genetic mutation (in the Taqpep gene); Simlipal hosts about 16-17 of these rare pseudo-melanistic tigers; Simlipal Tiger Reserve: Located in Mayurbhanj district, Odisha; designated as a Tiger Reserve in 1973 under Project Tiger; also a UNESCO Biosphere Reserve; spread over 2,750 sq km.
Option (a) Rajasthan — Incorrect: Rajasthan is known for its Ranthambore Tiger Reserve (famous for its tiger population) but is NOT establishing the world's first Black Tiger Safari; the Black Tiger Safari is being established in Odisha (home of the unique pseudo-melanistic black tigers of Simlipal ).
Option (c) Karnataka — Incorrect: Karnataka has prominent tiger reserves ( Bandipur , Nagarhole , Bhadra) but is NOT the state establishing the world's first Black Tiger Safari; the unique pseudo-melanistic black tigers are found only in Simlipal , Odisha. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Andhra Pradesh — Incorrect: Andhra Pradesh is not establishing the world's first Black Tiger Safari; the rare pseudo-melanistic black tigers are endemic to Simlipal Tiger Reserve in Odisha, making Odisha the natural choice for this unique safari.

Correct Answer: IIT Bombay — Option (d)
IIT Bombay developed a low-cost Tinnitus Device with a mobile solution in December 2024. About the Tinnitus Device: IIT Bombay researchers developed an affordable, portable Tinnitus management device that can be paired with a mobile application; Tinnitus: A medical condition characterized by perception of sound (ringing, buzzing, hissing, or clicking) in the ears or head without any external source; affects approximately 15% of the global population; can be temporary or chronic; Impact of Tinnitus: Chronic tinnitus can cause significant distress, sleep disturbances, concentration problems, anxiety, and depression; can seriously affect quality of life; Current treatment limitations: Most existing tinnitus devices are expensive (imported) and out of reach for many patients in India; IIT Bombay's innovation: The device was developed to be affordable and accessible; uses sound therapy/masking technology combined with a smartphone app for personalized treatment; aims to help patients manage and reduce tinnitus symptoms; Significance: Makes tinnitus treatment accessible to the large patient population in India and developing countries at a fraction of the cost of imported devices.
Option (a) IISc Bengaluru — Incorrect: The Indian Institute of Science (IISc) Bengaluru is a premier research institution but was not the institution that developed the low-cost Tinnitus Device in December 2024; IIT Bombay is the correct answer.
Option (b) IIT Kanpur — Incorrect: IIT Kanpur is a leading engineering institution but was not the developer of the low-cost Tinnitus Device in December 2024; the development was at IIT Bombay. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) JIPMER Puducherry — Incorrect: JIPMER (Jawaharlal Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education & Research) in Puducherry is a premier medical institution — while it deals with ENT conditions including tinnitus from a clinical perspective, it was not the institution that developed the mobile-integrated low-cost Tinnitus Device in December 2024; that was IIT Bombay.

Correct Answer: 28 — Option (c)
The 28th National Federation Senior Athletics Competition was held in 2025. About the National Federation Senior Athletics Competition: This is organized by the Athletics Federation of India (AFI), the governing body for athletics (track and field) in India; The National Federation Senior Athletics Championships are a prestigious athletics meet bringing together senior athletes from across India to compete in track and field events; Significance: Serves as a selection trial for international competitions (Asian Games, Commonwealth Games, World Championships, Olympics); Performance in the national championships helps athletes qualify for the Indian team; Athletics Federation of India (AFI): Affiliated to World Athletics (formerly IAAF — International Association of Athletics Federations) and the Asian Athletics Association (AAA); Responsible for development of athletics at the national level; Organizes National Championships at various levels — Junior, Youth, Senior, and Veterans categories; Indian athletics milestones: India's athletic achievements have grown significantly with players like Neeraj Chopra (Olympic gold in javelin 2021), Murali Sreeshankar (long jump), Tejaswin Shankar (high jump), and others.
Option (a) 22 — Incorrect: The National Federation Senior Athletics Competition held in 2025 was the 28th edition, not the 22nd.
Option (b) 23 — Incorrect: The 2025 edition of the National Federation Senior Athletics Competition was the 28th — not the 23rd. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) 30 — Incorrect: The National Federation Senior Athletics Competition held in 2025 was the 28th edition, not the 30th.

Correct Answer: Rio de Janeiro — Option (c)
The 17th BRICS Summit was held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in 2025. BRICS Summit history (recent): 15th BRICS Summit: August 2023, Johannesburg, South Africa (historic — expanded BRICS to include Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, UAE — making it BRICS+); 16th BRICS Summit: October 2024, Kazan, Russia (under Russia's BRICS Presidency — first summit with expanded BRICS+ members); 17th BRICS Summit: 2025, Rio de Janeiro, Brazil (under Brazil's BRICS Presidency in 2025); About BRICS: An intergovernmental organization of major emerging economies; Original members (2009): Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa; Expanded (2024): Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, United Arab Emirates joined; Indonesia joined in 2025; BRICS accounts for about 40% of the world's population and over 30% of global GDP; The grouping aims to reform global governance, increase south-south cooperation, and reduce dollar dependency; New Development Bank (NDB): Established by BRICS in 2015, headquartered in Shanghai; provides infrastructure and development financing.
Option (a) Vladivostok — Incorrect: Vladivostok is a Russian city associated with the Eastern Economic Forum (EEF), not BRICS summits; the 17th BRICS Summit was in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.
Option (b) Kazan — Incorrect: Kazan, Russia was the venue for the 16th BRICS Summit (October 2024) — not the 17th; the 17th BRICS Summit (2025) was held in Rio de Janeiro under Brazil's BRICS Presidency.
Option (d) Shanghai — Incorrect: Shanghai is the headquarters of the New Development Bank (NDB — the BRICS bank) but was not the venue of the 17th BRICS Summit; the 17th Summit was in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: 2 — Option (a)
The Performance Grading Index (PGI) 2.0 uses 2 main domains/categories for evaluation. About PGI 2.0: The Performance Grading Index (PGI) was launched by the Ministry of Education (formerly HRD Ministry) to assess the performance of states and UTs in school education; PGI 2.0 is the revised and restructured version of the original PGI framework; The PGI 2.0 framework is organized under 2 main domains/categories: Domain 1 — Educational Outcomes (focusing on learning outcomes, academic quality, and student achievement); Domain 2 — Governance & Management (focusing on access, infrastructure, equity, governance processes, and teacher-related aspects); Grading: States and UTs are graded on a scale — the highest grade (Daksh) is for states scoring above 940 (out of 1000) points; Grades include: Daksh (>940), Utkarsh (881-940), Ati-Uttam (821-880), Uttam (761-820), Prachesta -I (701-760), Prachesta -II (641-700), Prachesta -III (581-640), Aakankshi -I (521-580), Aakankshi -II (461-520), Aakankshi -III (401-460); Purpose: To help states identify areas for improvement, learn from best practices, and foster competitive spirit in improving school education quality.
Option (b) 4 — Incorrect: PGI 2.0 uses 2 main categories (domains), not 4; while there may be sub-categories within the 2 domains, the total number of main evaluation categories is 2.
Option (c) 6 — Incorrect: The original PGI (before PGI 2.0) had 6 categories, but PGI 2.0 was restructured into 2 main domains; 6 is not the correct answer for PGI 2.0.
Option (d) 11 — Incorrect: PGI 2.0 uses 2 main evaluation categories/domains; 11 is not the correct number of categories in PGI 2.0. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: North Korea — Option (b)
According to the SIPRI (Stockholm International Peace Research Institute) Trends in International Arms Transfers 2024 report (published March 2025), North Korea is NOT among the top 5 arms importers during 2020-24. About the SIPRI report (March 2025): SIPRI publishes its annual Arms Transfers Database and report every March; The 2025 report covering the 2020-24 period identified the top 5 arms importers; Top 5 arms importers (2020-24): India, Ukraine, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and Pakistan — these countries accounted for a significant portion of global arms imports; Why North Korea is NOT among top importers: North Korea, despite being a heavily militarized state, primarily develops its own weapons domestically (subject to international sanctions); Instead, North Korea is an ARMS EXPORTER — notably supplying artillery shells, ammunition, and ballistic missiles to Russia for use in the Russia-Ukraine war (this was widely reported from 2023-2024); North Korea has been under UN Security Council arms embargo, restricting formal arms imports; India as top importer: India has consistently been among the top arms importers globally — buying from Russia, France, Israel, USA, and others to modernize its defense forces.
Option (a) India — Incorrect: India IS among the top 5 arms importers during 2020-24 according to the SIPRI report (March 2025); India imports defense equipment from multiple countries to modernize its army, navy, and air force; North Korea is the country NOT among the top 5 importers. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) Ukraine — Incorrect: Ukraine IS among the top 5 arms importers during 2020-24 — due to the ongoing Russia-Ukraine war (from February 2022), Ukraine has received massive arms transfers from the USA, EU countries, UK, and others; North Korea is the country NOT in the top 5.
Option (d) Pakistan — Incorrect: Pakistan IS among the top 5 arms importers during 2020-24, primarily importing from China, which supplies a large portion of Pakistan's military equipment; North Korea is the country NOT among the top 5 arms importers for 2020-24.

Correct Answer: 57,897 — Option (a)
As of July 2025, more than 57,897 Anganwadi centres have been upgraded to Saksham Anganwadi centres . About Saksham Anganwadi: 'Saksham Anganwadi' (meaning 'Empowered/Capable Anganwadi') is an upgraded version of the traditional Anganwadi centres under Mission Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0 (a flagship government program for nutrition and child development); Upgraded features: Better infrastructure (improved buildings, drinking water, toilets), Smartphones/tablets for digitized data entry and monitoring, Audio-visual aids and smart TVs for teaching children, Improved services — health, nutrition, pre-school education, immunization; Mission Poshan 2.0 (PM Poshan): The government's flagship scheme merging ICDS (Integrated Child Development Services) with other nutrition programs; focuses on reducing malnutrition among children under 6 years, pregnant/lactating mothers, and adolescent girls; About Anganwadis : Traditional Anganwadis are village-level childcare centres run by the government — they provide nutrition, health, and pre-school education services; managed by Anganwadi workers and helpers under ICDS; India has over 1.3 million Anganwadi centres across the country.
Option (b) 67,600 — Incorrect: The correct figure for Anganwadi centres upgraded to Saksham Anganwadi as of July 2025 is more than 57,897 — not 67,600.
Option (c) 77,554 — Incorrect: The correct number of Anganwadi centres upgraded to Saksham Anganwadi as of July 2025 is more than 57,897, not 77,554.
Option (d) 87,661 — Incorrect: 87,661 is not the correct figure; as of July 2025, more than 57,897 Anganwadi centres have been upgraded to Saksham Anganwadi centres .

Correct Answer: 3 years or until 70 years of age — Option (b)
The Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India serves for a term of 3 years or until the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier. About NHRC: Established: October 12, 1993, under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 (PHRA); India's NHRC is a statutory (not constitutional) body; It is a quasi-judicial body that safeguards and promotes human rights in India; Chairperson's qualifications: Must be a retired Chief Justice of India (as per the original Act) — however, the 2019 amendment also allowed retired Chief Justices of High Courts to become NHRC Chairperson; Term: 3 years or 70 years of age (whichever is earlier) — as per the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019; Members: NHRC has other members too (retired SC judges) — they also serve for 3 years or until 70 years of age; Re-appointment: Not eligible for re-appointment; Removal: Can be removed by the President of India on the recommendation of a Supreme Court inquiry committee; Key functions: Inquiry into complaints of human rights violations, review of legislation, visit prisons, conduct research on human rights.
Option (a) 3 years or until 65 years of age — Incorrect: The age limit for the NHRC Chairperson is 70 years (not 65 years); 65 years is not the stipulated age limit under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 (as amended in 2019). The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) 6 years or until 75 years of age — Incorrect: The term is 3 years (not 6 years), and the age limit is 70 years (not 75 years); 6-year terms apply to some constitutional bodies like the Election Commission, not the NHRC.
Option (d) 4 years or until 68 years of age — Incorrect: The correct term is 3 years (not 4 years) and the correct age limit is 70 years (not 68 years); these numbers are incorrect under the Protection of Human Rights Act.

Correct Answer: Union Home Minister — Option (d)
The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of all Zonal Councils in India. About Zonal Councils: Zonal Councils are advisory bodies established under Part III of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956 (not a constitutional body); Objective: To promote inter-state cooperation, discuss matters of common interest, and resolve inter-state disputes; There are Five Zonal Councils: Northern Zonal Council (HQ: New Delhi), Central Zonal Council (HQ: Allahabad), Eastern Zonal Council (HQ: Kolkata), Western Zonal Council (HQ: Mumbai), Southern Zonal Council (HQ: Chennai); Composition of each Zonal Council: Chairman — Union Home Minister (same person chairs ALL five Zonal Councils); Vice Chairman — Chief Minister of the host state (rotates annually); Members — Chief Ministers and two Cabinet Ministers of all states in the zone; Meetings: The Zonal Council typically meets once a year; the Union Home Minister presides over these meetings; North-Eastern Council (NEC): A separate council established under the North-Eastern Council Act, 1971 for the NE states (not under the States Reorganisation Act); Significance: Zonal Councils help foster a spirit of cooperation, coordination, and joint action among states.
Option (a) President of India — Incorrect: The President of India is NOT the Chairman of Zonal Councils; the Union Home Minister serves as the Chairman of all five Zonal Councils; the President is the constitutional head of state with a different role.
Option (b) Prime Minister — Incorrect: The Prime Minister does not serve as Chairman of the Zonal Councils; this role is specifically assigned to the Union Home Minister under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.
Option (c) Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog — Incorrect: The Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog has no role as Chairman of Zonal Councils; the Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog is an economic policy advisory position — entirely separate from the Zonal Council structure; the Union Home Minister is the Chairman of Zonal Councils. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: 12th — Option (c)
Pratibha Devisingh Patil assumed office as India's 12th President on July 25, 2007. Key facts about Pratibha Patil: Full name: Pratibha Devisingh Patil; Born: December 19, 1934, in Jalgaon, Maharashtra; Historic significance: She was India's FIRST FEMALE PRESIDENT; Term: July 25, 2007 to July 25, 2012 (12th President); Career before Presidency: A veteran Congress politician from Maharashtra; served as Governor of Rajasthan (2004-2007) before becoming President; Political career: Was a member of the Maharashtra Legislative Assembly for four terms; held various ministerial portfolios in Maharashtra state government; Election: Won the presidential election in 2007 against Bhairon Singh Shekhawat (BJP-backed candidate) by a large margin; Awards: Padma Vibhushan (posthumous-equivalent recognition); List of recent Presidents of India: 11th — A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (2002-2007), 12th — Pratibha Devisingh Patil (2007-2012), 13th — Pranab Mukherjee (2012-2017), 14th — Ram Nath Kovind (2017-2022), 15th — Droupadi Murmu (2022-present — also first tribal woman President).
Option (a) 8th — Incorrect: The 8th President of India was R. Venkataraman (1987-1992); Pratibha Patil was India's 12th President (2007-2012).
Option (b) 10th — Incorrect: The 10th President of India was K.R. Narayanan (1997-2002) — the first Dalit President of India; Pratibha Patil was the 12th President.
Option (d) 14th — Incorrect: The 14th President of India was Ram Nath Kovind (2017-2022); Pratibha Patil was the 12th President (2007-2012).