SSC GD 2026 22 May 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Chandragupta II — Option (c)
According to popular belief (and most scholarly consensus), the great Sanskrit poet Kalidasa flourished in the court of Chandragupta II (also known as Chandragupta Vikramaditya). About Kalidasa: Kalidasa is considered the greatest Sanskrit poet and dramatist — often called the 'Shakespeare of India'; He is believed to have lived during the Gupta period (4th-5th century CE); Major works: Plays: Abhijnanasakuntalam (Shakuntala — his most famous work, the story of King Dushyanta and Shakuntala), Vikramorvasiyam (King Pururavas and the apsara Urvashi), Malavikagnimitram (King Agnimitra and Malavika); Epics/Poems: Raghuvamsha (dynasty of Raghu — ancestors of Rama), Kumarasambhava (birth of Kumara/Kartikeya); Lyrical poems: Meghaduta (The Cloud Messenger — a yaksha sends a message via a cloud), Ritusamhara (description of six seasons); About Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya): Ruled approximately 375-415 CE; the Gupta Empire reached its zenith under his reign; Known for his patronage of arts and literature; The Nine Gems ( Navaratnas ) of his court reportedly included Kalidasa, Aryabhatta (astronomer), Varahamihira , Vararuchi , and others.
Option (a) Skandagupta — Incorrect: Skandagupta (reigned c. 455-467 CE) was a later Gupta ruler who successfully repelled the Huna invasions; while he was a notable ruler, the literary tradition most strongly associates Kalidasa with the court of Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya), not Skandagupta .
Option (b) Samudragupta — Incorrect: Samudragupta (reigned c. 335-375 CE) was the great conqueror known as the 'Napoleon of India' and was himself a scholar and musician (played veena); he was the father of Chandragupta II; while he patronized arts, Kalidasa is most associated with the court of Chandragupta II.
Option (d) Kumaragupta — Incorrect: Kumaragupta I (reigned c. 415-455 CE) was the son of Chandragupta II; he founded the Nalanda University; Kalidasa is associated with the preceding court of Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya), not Kumaragupta .

Correct Answer: Mumbai — Option (c)
According to Census 2011, Mumbai (Greater Mumbai Urban Agglomeration) was the largest metropolitan city in India in terms of population. Census 2011 — Major Urban Agglomerations: Mumbai UA: 18,414,288 (1st); Delhi UA: 16,349,831 (2nd); Kolkata UA: 14,112,536 (3rd); Chennai UA: 8,696,010 (4th); Hyderabad UA: 7,749,334 (5th); Bengaluru UA: 8,499,399; Mumbai's significance: Greater Mumbai Municipal Corporation (MCGM) area population: 12,442,373 — the largest among all municipal corporations; Mumbai is India's financial capital and most commercially important city; Even beyond the municipal corporation limits, the Mumbai Metropolitan Region (MMR) and Greater Mumbai Urban Agglomeration dominate in terms of population; As per Census 2011, Mumbai UA was India's most populous urban agglomeration; Context: The Census of India 2011 was conducted under the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India; Next census (2021) was delayed due to COVID-19.
Option (a) Kolkata — Incorrect: According to Census 2011, Kolkata Urban Agglomeration had 14,112,536 population — making it the 3rd largest, NOT the largest; Mumbai UA (18.4 million) was the largest.
Option (b) Delhi — Incorrect: Delhi Urban Agglomeration had 16,349,831 population in Census 2011 — the 2nd largest; Mumbai UA (18.4 million) was larger than Delhi UA; Delhi became larger than Mumbai in subsequent years but as per Census 2011, Mumbai was larger.
Option (d) Chennai — Incorrect: Chennai Urban Agglomeration had 8,696,010 population in Census 2011 — the 4th largest; it was considerably smaller than Mumbai, Delhi, and Kolkata UAs.

Correct Answer: Subtropical High Pressure Belt — Option (b)
The pressure belt found between 30°N to 35°N latitude (and similarly around 30°S to 35°S in the southern hemisphere) is the Subtropical High Pressure Belt, also known as the Horse Latitudes. Distribution of atmospheric pressure belts on Earth: Equatorial Low Pressure Belt (0° to 5° N/S): Also called Doldrums; formed by intense solar heating causing air to rise; calm, warm, humid; Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ); Subtropical High Pressure Belt (25°-35° N/S): Horse Latitudes; sinking air (subsidence) from high altitudes creates high pressure; calm, hot, dry conditions; origin of trade winds (blowing toward equator) and westerlies (blowing poleward); Sub-polar Low Pressure Belt (60°-65° N/S): Convergence zone where cold polar air and warm temperate air meet; associated with cyclones and depressions; Polar High Pressure Belt (80°-90° N/S): Extremely cold, dense, sinking air creates high pressure; origin of polar easterlies; Why 'Horse Latitudes'? According to historical legend, when sailing ships carrying horses were becalmed in these latitudes (no wind), sailors were forced to throw horses overboard to conserve drinking water; Characteristics: High pressure, descending dry air, very little precipitation, desert regions often found here (Sahara, Arabian Desert, etc.).
Option (a) Equatorial Low Pressure Belt — Incorrect: The Equatorial Low Pressure Belt (Doldrums) is found near the equator (0°-5° N/S) — NOT at 30°-35° N/S; it is a low pressure belt (not high pressure) characterized by calm, hot, humid conditions and rising air. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) Sub-polar Low Pressure Belt — Incorrect: The Sub-polar Low Pressure Belt is found at 60°-65° N/S latitudes — NOT at 30°-35° N/S; it is also a low pressure belt (not high pressure) where polar and temperate air masses meet.
Option (d) Polar High Pressure Belt — Incorrect: The Polar High Pressure Belt is found near the poles (around 80°-90° N/S) — NOT at 30°-35° N/S; it is formed by extremely cold, dense, sinking air at the poles; the 30°-35° belt is the Subtropical High Pressure Belt.

Correct Answer: Madhya Pradesh — Option (a)
The Panna Diamond Mine is located in the Panna district of Madhya Pradesh. About Panna Diamond Mines: Location: Panna district, Madhya Pradesh (Vindhya region); Panna is the only producing diamond mine in India and one of the few diamond mines in Asia; The Panna diamond mining area spans approximately 25 km × 5 km; Operated by: National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC) — a Navratna CPSE under the Ministry of Steel; Diamond variety: Panna produces gem-quality diamonds; the diamonds are found in Kimberlite pipes (vertical volcanic intrusions) and alluvial deposits in the Ken River; Historical significance: Panna has been a source of diamonds for centuries; the famous Koh-i-Noor diamond and Shah Diamond are believed to have originated from this region; Notable diamonds: Many famous historical diamonds are said to have come from the Panna/Bundelkhand region; Production: Panna mines typically produce about 30,000-50,000 carats of diamonds annually; The surrounding Panna National Park (also in Panna district) is famous for its tiger conservation efforts; Panna Tiger Reserve: Known for successful tiger relocation program after local tigers were poached to extinction; tigers were reintroduced from 2009 onwards.
Option (b) Jharkhand — Incorrect: Jharkhand has significant mineral wealth (coal, iron ore, copper, mica, uranium) but the famous Panna Diamond Mine is NOT in Jharkhand — it is in Panna district, Madhya Pradesh. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) Karnataka — Incorrect: Karnataka's mining sector is known for iron ore (Bellary- Hospet region), gold (Kolar Gold Fields — now largely exhausted), and manganese; the Panna Diamond Mine is not in Karnataka — it is in Madhya Pradesh.
Option (d) Gujarat — Incorrect: Gujarat is known for its petrochemical industry, textiles, and agate/semi-precious stone mining — but the famous Panna Diamond Mine is in Madhya Pradesh, not Gujarat.

Correct Answer: Both I and II — Option (c)
Both statements about Critical Minerals are correct. Statement I Analysis — 'Critical minerals are the building blocks of the modern economy' (CORRECT): Critical minerals are indeed the foundational materials for the modern digital and clean energy economy; They are essential for: Electric vehicles (EVs) — lithium, cobalt, nickel, manganese for batteries; Renewable energy — rare earth elements for wind turbines, silicon for solar panels; Electronics and semiconductors — gallium, germanium, indium, tellurium; Defense and aerospace — titanium, chromium, tungsten, rare earths; Without critical minerals, production of smartphones, EVs, renewable energy systems, and advanced defense equipment would be impossible; Statement II Analysis — 'Critical minerals are rapidly becoming the oil of the 21st century' (CORRECT): Just as petroleum was the defining strategic resource of the 20th century (driving geopolitics, wars, and economic power), critical minerals are becoming the strategic resource of the 21st century; Nations are competing for access to these minerals; China controls over 60% of rare earth production — creating supply chain vulnerabilities for other nations; India's Critical Minerals Mission: India identified 30 critical minerals and launched the Critical Minerals Mission in 2024 with a corpus of Rs 16,300 crore to ensure domestic availability and supply chain security.
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: Both Statement I and Statement II are correct about critical minerals; selecting 'Only I' ignores that Statement II (critical minerals as '21st century oil') is also an accurate and widely accepted characterization.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: Both statements are correct; Statement I (critical minerals as building blocks of modern economy) is also accurate; selecting 'Only II' is incomplete. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Both statements are factually correct and widely accepted descriptions of critical minerals in the context of modern global economy and strategic competition; 'Neither I nor II' is completely incorrect.

Correct Answer: Government of India Act, 1858 — Option (b)
The Government of India Act, 1858 formally abolished the East India Company and marked the official end of Company rule in India. Key provisions of the Government of India Act, 1858: Passed by the British Parliament after the Great Revolt of 1857 (First War of Independence); Transferred control of India from the East India Company to the British Crown (Queen Victoria); Established the Secretary of State for India (a Cabinet minister in London) as the head of Indian administration; Created the India Council (an advisory body of 15 members) to assist the Secretary of State; The Governor-General of India was redesignated as 'Viceroy of India' (representing the Crown directly); First Secretary of State: Lord Stanley; First Viceroy of India: Lord Canning (who was Governor-General at the time of the 1857 revolt); Queen Victoria's Proclamation (November 1, 1858): Promised equal opportunities for Indians irrespective of religion, renounced annexation policy, declared amnesty for rebels (with exceptions); Significance: Marks the beginning of direct British Crown rule (British Raj) in India, which lasted until India's independence on August 15, 1947.
Option (a) Regulating Act, 1773 — Incorrect: The Regulating Act, 1773 was the FIRST act by the British Parliament to regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India — it created the post of Governor-General (first: Warren Hastings) and Supreme Court at Calcutta; it did NOT end Company rule — it actually strengthened parliamentary control over the Company.
Option (c) Indian Councils Act, 1861 — Incorrect: The Indian Councils Act, 1861 was passed AFTER the Government of India Act, 1858 (which already ended Company rule); the 1861 Act decentralized legislative powers and allowed Indians to be nominated to legislative councils — it came in the post-Company era of Crown rule.
Option (d) Charter Act, 1833 — Incorrect: The Charter Act, 1833 was a significant reform that ended the Company's commercial activities (it ceased to be a trading company), opened Indian trade to all British citizens, and appointed a Law Commission (led by Macaulay) — but it did NOT end Company rule; the Company continued to govern India until 1858. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: Rs 24,000 crore — Option (c)
The annual allocation under the PM Dhan-Dhanya Krishi Yojana (PM DDKY) approved in July 2025 is Rs 24,000 crore. About PM Dhan-Dhanya Krishi Yojana (PM DDKY): Launched/approved in 2025 as part of the Union Budget initiatives for agriculture; The scheme focuses on agricultural districts that are lagging behind in productivity and growth; Objectives: Boosting agricultural productivity in identified districts, increasing crop diversification, improving irrigation and water efficiency, developing post-harvest storage infrastructure, enhancing credit access for farmers; Coverage: The scheme targets agriculturally underdeveloped districts across India; Annual allocation: Rs 24,000 crore approved in July 2025; Significance: The PM Dhan-Dhanya Krishi Yojana aims to transform lagging agricultural districts by addressing gaps in infrastructure, productivity, and farmer income; it is part of India's ongoing effort to double/increase farmer incomes and modernize agriculture; The scheme was approved by the Union Cabinet and is implemented by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare.
Option (a) Rs 20,000 crore — Incorrect: The annual allocation under PM Dhan-Dhanya Krishi Yojana is Rs 24,000 crore (not Rs 20,000 crore); Rs 20,000 crore is lower than the actual approved amount.
Option (b) Rs 22,000 crore — Incorrect: The correct annual allocation is Rs 24,000 crore, not Rs 22,000 crore; Rs 22,000 crore is not the approved allocation for PM Dhan-Dhanya Krishi Yojana.
Option (d) Rs 30,000 crore — Incorrect: The annual allocation under PM Dhan-Dhanya Krishi Yojana is Rs 24,000 crore, not Rs 30,000 crore; Rs 30,000 crore is higher than the actual approved annual outlay.

Correct Answer: 3 lakh — Option (a)
Under the PM-DAKSH scheme, OBC and EWS candidates with annual family income less than Rs 3 lakh are eligible to receive training. About PM-DAKSH Scheme: Full name: Pradhan Mantri Dakshta Aur Kushalta Sampann Hitgrahi (PM-DAKSH) Yojana; Implementing Ministry: Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment; Objective: To provide skill training to marginalized communities (SC, OBC, EWS, sanitation workers, de-notified tribes) to enhance their livelihood and help them become self-reliant; Eligibility criteria: Scheduled Castes (SC): No income limit; Other Backward Classes (OBC): Annual family income less than Rs 3 lakh; Economically Weaker Section (EWS): Annual family income less than Rs 3 lakh; Sanitation workers ( safai karamcharis ) and their dependents: No income limit; De-notified, nomadic and semi-nomadic tribes: No income limit; Types of training: Short-term training (up to 6 months) — for wage employment; Long-term training — for skilled trades; Reskilling/Upskilling — for self-employment; Benefits: Free training, stipend during training, free boarding & lodging at training centers, assessment and certification, placement assistance.
Option (b) 5 lakh — Incorrect: The income limit under PM-DAKSH for OBC and EWS candidates is Rs 3 lakh per annum (not Rs 5 lakh); Rs 5 lakh is a different income threshold used in other government schemes. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) 8 lakh — Incorrect: Rs 8 lakh is the annual income limit used to define the 'Non-Creamy Layer' for OBC reservations in central government jobs — but for PM-DAKSH training eligibility, the income limit for OBC and EWS is Rs 3 lakh per annum.
Option (d) 10 lakh — Incorrect: Rs 10 lakh is not the income limit for PM-DAKSH training eligibility for OBC/EWS candidates; the correct income threshold under the PM-DAKSH scheme is Rs 3 lakh per annum.

Correct Answer: 2005-2006 — Option (c)
Gender Budgeting was formally introduced in India in the Union Budget of 2005-2006. About Gender Budgeting in India: Gender budgeting is NOT a separate budget for women — it is the analysis of the mainstream budget from a gender perspective to ensure adequate allocation for women's welfare; Introduction: The Ministry of Finance introduced the Gender Budget Statement (PBS — Part B of Union Budget) starting from the Union Budget 2005-06; The Gender Budget Statement shows two sets of funds: Part A: Schemes with 100% women-centric allocation; Part B: Schemes where at least 30% funds are for women's benefit; Historical background: India signed the Beijing Platform for Action (1995) which called for gender-responsive budgeting; The 10th Five-Year Plan (2002-07) emphasized gender mainstreaming; Following international commitments and gender equity goals, India formally launched Gender Budget Statements in 2005-06; Current status: Every year, the Union Budget includes a Gender Budget Statement showing allocation for women across different ministries and schemes; Women's share in Union Budget has been growing over the years; Purpose: Accountability for gender equality commitments; better allocation of resources for women's health, education, and economic empowerment.
Option (a) 1991-1992 — Incorrect: 1991-1992 was the year of India's major economic reforms (liberalization, privatization, globalization under Finance Minister Manmohan Singh) — gender budgeting was NOT introduced in 1991-92; it was formally introduced in 2005-06.
Option (b) 1997-1998 — Incorrect: 1997-1998 was not when gender budgeting was introduced in India — it was introduced in 2005-06; the 1990s saw the Women's Reservation Bill debates and the 73rd/74th Constitutional Amendments (1992-93) giving women reservation in local bodies, but not gender budgeting in 1997-98. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) 2020-2021 — Incorrect: Gender budgeting in India was started in 2005-06, not 2020-21; by 2020-21, gender budgeting was already a 15-year old practice in India's Union Budget.

Correct Answer: Both I and II — Option (c)
Both Public Transport and Logistics Infrastructure are driving enablers of the PM Gati Shakti initiative. About PM Gati Shakti — National Master Plan: Launched: October 13, 2021 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on his birthday; Full name: PM Gati Shakti — National Master Plan for Multi-modal Connectivity; Objective: To provide multimodal connectivity infrastructure to various economic zones; It integrates 16 Ministries including Railways, Roads, Ports, Waterways, Aviation, Telecom, etc. on a single GIS-based digital platform; Seven Engines of PM Gati Shakti: Roads, Railways, Airports, Ports, Mass Transport (Public Transport), Waterways, and Logistics Infrastructure; All seven engines are considered pillars/enablers of the initiative; Statement I — Public Transport is a driving enabler: Mass Transport (metro rails, bus systems, last-mile connectivity) is one of the seven engines of PM Gati Shakti; Statement II — Logistics Infrastructure is a driving enabler: Logistics Infrastructure (warehousing, cold chains, Multimodal Logistics Parks, integrated ports) is one of the seven engines; Significance: PM Gati Shakti aims to reduce logistics costs (currently 13-14% of GDP — target to reduce to below 8%), enhance export competitiveness, and create employment.
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: Both Public Transport AND Logistics Infrastructure are driving enablers of PM Gati Shakti — it has seven engines including mass transport and logistics; selecting 'Only I' is incomplete.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: Both are enablers — public transport is one of the seven engines (mass transport), and logistics infrastructure is another; selecting 'Only II' is incomplete.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Both Public Transport and Logistics Infrastructure ARE explicitly listed as driving enablers (engines) of the PM Gati Shakti initiative; 'Neither I nor II' is factually incorrect.

Correct Answer: 1960 — Option (c)
The Government of India took over Mazagon Dock in 1960. About Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL): Mazagon Dock is India's premier warship and submarine building yard; Located in Mumbai (Maharashtra); History: Originally established as a small dry dock in 1774 by the East India Company; Operated as a private shipyard for many years; In 1934, it was taken over by a British firm (Mackinnon Mackenzie & Co.); On August 11, 1960, the Indian government nationalized/took over Mazagon Dock, incorporating it as a government-owned company under the Ministry of Defence ; Current status: It is a Schedule 'A' Defence Public Sector Undertaking (DPSU) under the Ministry of Defence ; Listed on the stock exchanges (BSE and NSE) since 2020; Achievements: Built India's first frigate (INS Nilgiri ), first submarine (INS Shalki), P17A stealth frigates (Project 17A), Scorpene -class submarines (Project 75); Significance: MDL is critical to India's naval self-reliance under the 'Make in India' initiative in defence .
Option (a) 1972 — Incorrect: Mazagon Dock was taken over by the Government of India in 1960, not 1972; 1972 is not the correct year of nationalization of Mazagon Dock. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (b) 1968 — Incorrect: The correct year of the Government of India taking over Mazagon Dock is 1960, not 1968.
Option (d) 1964 — Incorrect: Mazagon Dock was nationalized/taken over by the Government of India in 1960, not 1964.

Correct Answer: West Bengal — Option (c)
Gaudiya Nritya (also spelled Gaur Nritya or Gaudiya Dance) is a classical dance tradition from West Bengal. About Gaudiya Nritya: 'Gauda' or 'Gaur' refers to the ancient kingdom of Bengal — hence the name ' Gaudiya '; It is one of the classical dance styles of the Bengal/West Bengal region; Historical roots: The dance has ancient roots dating back to the Gauda kingdom (Bengal region); it draws from the Natya Shastra and the Vaishnava Bhakti tradition; Connection to Vaishnavism: Gaudiya Nritya is closely associated with the Gaudiya Vaishnavism movement started by Sri Chaitanya Mahaprabhu (1486-1534 CE) who was born in Nabadwip , West Bengal; Elements: Incorporates elements of devotional music (kirtan), storytelling through dance (abhinaya), and specific mudras (hand gestures) based on Natya Shastra; Themes: Primarily depicts stories of Radha-Krishna and Vaishnava mythology; Revivalist efforts: The dance form was revived and popularized by dance guru Mahua Shankar and others in modern times; Significance: Gaudiya Nritya is being promoted as an important classical dance form of West Bengal alongside other Bengal dance traditions.
Option (a) Haryana — Incorrect: Haryana's traditional dances include Saang , Dhamal , and Phag performances — not Gaudiya Nritya; Gaudiya Nritya is specifically associated with West Bengal.
Option (b) Jammu and Kashmir — Incorrect: Jammu and Kashmir's folk dances include Rouf (Kashmir), Dumhal , Bhand Pather (folk theatre) — Gaudiya Nritya is not a J&K tradition; it is a West Bengal dance form. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Andhra Pradesh — Incorrect: Andhra Pradesh has Kuchipudi as its classical dance tradition and Vilasini Natyam as a semi-classical form — Gaudiya Nritya is not associated with Andhra Pradesh; it is from West Bengal.

Correct Answer: Dol Purnima — Option (a)
In West Bengal, the festival of Holi is known as 'Dol Purnima' (also called Dol Jatra or Dol Utsav). About Dol Purnima in West Bengal: 'Dol' means 'swing' in Bengali — the festival involves placing the idol of Lord Krishna (or Radha-Krishna) on a decorated swing (dol) and swinging them while devotees sing devotional songs; 'Purnima' means 'full moon' — the festival is celebrated on the full moon day of the month of Phalguna (February-March); How it's celebrated: Processions ( shobhajatra ) with Radha-Krishna idols on palanquins; Devotees spray colored powder ( abir ) on each other; Classical music and Holi songs ( dhulot gaan ) are performed; Special celebrations: Shantiniketan (Rabindranath Tagore's institution in Birbhum district, West Bengal) celebrates it as 'Basanta Utsav' (Spring Festival) with singing, dancing, and cultural programs; Vrindavan: Also called Dol Yatra in the Vaishnava tradition; Religious connection: The festival commemorates the divine love of Radha and Krishna; in the Vaishnava tradition (very prominent in Bengal), it is one of the most important festivals.
Option (b) Bhai Phonta — Incorrect: Bhai Phonta is a West Bengali festival similar to Raksha Bandhan (celebrating the bond between brothers and sisters) celebrated on the second day of Kali Puja week — it is NOT the name of Holi in West Bengal; the Holi equivalent is Dol Purnima.
Option (c) Jagadhatri Puja — Incorrect: Jagadhatri Puja is a festival in West Bengal dedicated to Goddess Jagadhatri (a form of Durga) — celebrated in the month of Kartik (October-November), especially in Chandannagar ; it is NOT the name of Holi in West Bengal.
Option (d) Kalpataru Utsav — Incorrect: Kalpataru Utsav is an annual festival celebrated on January 1st at Cossipore Garden House, Kolkata (Adi Udbodhan Mandir), commemorating the day when Sri Ramakrishna blessed devotees — it is NOT the name of Holi in West Bengal; Dol Purnima is the correct name.

Correct Answer: 1983 — Option (a)
India won its first Men's Cricket World Cup in 1983. Key facts about India's 1983 World Cup victory: Tournament: 3rd ICC Cricket World Cup (Prudential World Cup); Venue: England (matches played across various English grounds); Final: June 25, 1983 at Lord's Cricket Ground, London; Result: India defeated the West Indies by 43 runs; India's score: 183 all out (a modest target by today's standards); West Indies chase: 140 all out (losing 9 wickets); India's captain: Kapil Dev (who had famously scored 175* against Zimbabwe in the group stage — an unbeaten innings that saved India's campaign); Key performances: Mohinder Amarnath (man of the match in the final — took 3 wickets), Balwinder Sandhu (took Viv Richards' wicket with a classic out-swinger), Madan Lal; Significance: This was a massive upset as West Indies were the defending champions and won the first two World Cups (1975 and 1979); West Indies had dominant players like Viv Richards, Clive Lloyd, Gordon Greenidge, Malcolm Marshall; India's victory transformed cricket in India — it led to the explosion of cricket's popularity and commercialization; Indian cricket legend: Kapil Dev holds the 1983 World Cup trophy at Lord's is one of the most iconic images in Indian sports history; The story was depicted in the 2021 Bollywood film '83' directed by Kabir Khan.
Option (b) 1975 — Incorrect: 1975 was the year of the first Men's Cricket World Cup — won by the West Indies (defeating Australia in the final); India participated but did not win; India won its first World Cup in 1983.
Option (c) 1999 — Incorrect: India did NOT win the 1999 Cricket World Cup — Pakistan and Australia were in the 1999 final (Australia won); India was knocked out in the Super Six stage of the 1999 tournament.
Option (d) 1996 — Incorrect: India did NOT win the 1996 Cricket World Cup — Sri Lanka won the 1996 World Cup (defeating Australia in the final at Lahore); India reached the semi-finals in 1996 but lost to Sri Lanka.

Correct Answer: 20 — Option (a)
The 20th Asian Games (Aichi-Nagoya 2026) are to be held in Aichi-Nagoya, Japan in 2026. Asian Games history (recent editions): 17th Asian Games: 2014 — Incheon, South Korea; 18th Asian Games: 2018 — Jakarta-Palembang, Indonesia; 19th Asian Games: 2022 (held in September-October 2023) — Hangzhou, China (delayed by one year due to COVID-19); 20th Asian Games: 2026 — Aichi-Nagoya, Japan; About the 2026 Asian Games (Aichi-Nagoya): Host: Aichi Prefecture (capital: Nagoya) in Japan; This will be Japan's third time hosting the Asian Games (previously Tokyo 1958 and Bangkok... wait, Japan hosted in 1958 in Tokyo); About OCA: The Olympic Council of Asia (OCA) organizes the Asian Games; The Asian Games are held every 4 years; India at the Asian Games: India has been sending athletes to the Asian Games since 1951 (New Delhi — inaugural games); At the 19th Asian Games 2023 (Hangzhou), India achieved its best-ever performance with 107 medals (28 gold, 38 silver, 41 bronze); The 20th Asian Games in Aichi-Nagoya 2026 will be a major event for Asian athletes.
Option (b) 19 — Incorrect: The 19th Asian Games were held in Hangzhou, China in 2023 (delayed from 2022 due to COVID-19); the 2026 Asian Games in Aichi-Nagoya will be the 20th edition.
Option (c) 18 — Incorrect: The 18th Asian Games were held in Jakarta-Palembang, Indonesia in 2018; the 2026 Asian Games will be the 20th edition. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) 17 — Incorrect: The 17th Asian Games were held in Incheon, South Korea in 2014; the Aichi-Nagoya 2026 games will be the 20th Asian Games.

Correct Answer: 3 years — Option (b)
The Secretary-General of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) is appointed for a term of 3 years. About the SCO Secretariat and Secretary-General: The Permanent Secretariat of the SCO is located in Beijing, China; The Secretary-General is the chief administrative officer of the SCO; Term: 3 years (not renewable — each member state provides one Secretary-General on a rotation basis); Appointment: Each SCO member state nominates a candidate for Secretary-General on a rotating basis; the candidate is approved by the Council of Heads of State (the SCO's supreme body); About the SCO (Shanghai Cooperation Organisation ): Founded: June 15, 2001 in Shanghai, China; Original members: China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan (the 'Shanghai Six'); Expanded: India and Pakistan joined as full members in June 2017 at the Astana Summit; Iran joined in July 2023 at the New Delhi Summit; Belarus joined in 2024; Current full members (10): China, Russia, India, Pakistan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, Iran, Belarus; Objectives: Strengthening mutual trust and neighbourliness among member states, promoting effective cooperation in politics, trade, economy, science and technology, culture, education, energy, transportation, tourism, environmental protection, and other fields.
Option (a) 2 — Incorrect: The Secretary-General of the SCO is appointed for a 3-year term, not 2 years.
Option (c) 5 — Incorrect: The SCO Secretary-General serves for 3 years (not 5 years); a 5-year term is common for heads of some other international organizations but not the SCO.
Option (d) 6 — Incorrect: The SCO Secretary-General is appointed for a 3-year term, not 6 years; 6-year terms are associated with some other international positions. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: Both I and II — Option (c)
Both Breaststroke and Backstroke are recognized swimming strokes used in competitive swimming. The four main competitive swimming strokes: Freestyle (Front Crawl): The fastest stroke; swimmer faces down, alternating arm strokes with a flutter kick; used in freestyle events; Butterfly: Second fastest; both arms move simultaneously over the water in a windmill motion with a dolphin kick; most technically demanding; Breaststroke (Statement I): Third fastest; swimmer faces down, arms push forward then sweep back under water in a frog-like motion; simultaneous frog kick with legs; the oldest competitive swimming stroke; Backstroke (Statement II): Swimmer lies on their back, alternating arm strokes with a flutter kick (same as freestyle but on the back); only stroke where swimmers start in the water (not on starting blocks); Other swimming terms: Individual Medley (IM): Combines all four strokes in order: Butterfly, Backstroke, Breaststroke, Freestyle; Relay events: 4×100m Medley Relay uses all four strokes; Olympic swimming: Started in 1896 (Athens Olympics); both Breaststroke and Backstroke have been Olympic events since the early modern Olympics; Swimming governing body: FINA (now World Aquatics).
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: Both Breaststroke and Backstroke are swimming strokes; selecting 'Only I' (Breaststroke) ignores that Backstroke is also an equally valid and recognized competitive swimming stroke. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: Both Breaststroke (Statement I) and Backstroke (Statement II) are used in swimming; 'Only II' would incorrectly exclude Breaststroke which is one of the four main competitive swimming strokes.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Both Breaststroke and Backstroke ARE swimming strokes used in competitive and recreational swimming; 'Neither I nor II' is completely factually wrong.

Correct Answer: Vaporization — Option (d)
The change of state from liquid to gas at atmospheric pressure is called Vaporization ( वाष्पीकरण ). Types of phase changes (state changes): Solid → Liquid: Melting (also called Fusion); Liquid → Solid: Solidification (also called Freezing); Liquid → Gas: Vaporization (evaporation at surface, or boiling throughout); Gas → Liquid: Condensation; Solid → Gas (directly): Sublimation; Gas → Solid (directly): Deposition; About Vaporization: Vaporization occurs in two ways: Evaporation — occurs at the surface of a liquid at any temperature (e.g., water evaporating from a wet cloth); Boiling — occurs throughout the liquid at its boiling point (100°C for water at 1 atm pressure); Both are forms of vaporization; During vaporization: Liquid absorbs latent heat of vaporization (energy needed to break intermolecular bonds); Temperature remains constant during boiling despite continuous heating; Water's latent heat of vaporization: 2260 kJ/kg; Importance: Vaporization is the key process in the water cycle (evaporation from oceans/rivers), sweating (cooling mechanism in humans), steam engines, and refrigeration.
Option (a) Solidification — Incorrect: Solidification is the change of state from LIQUID to SOLID (the reverse of melting); it is NOT the liquid-to-gas change; for example, water solidifies to form ice when temperature drops below 0° C at standard pressure.
Option (b) Deposition — Incorrect: Deposition is the change of state directly from GAS to SOLID (bypassing the liquid phase) — the reverse of sublimation; for example, frost formation on cold surfaces (water vapour directly depositing as ice); it is not the liquid-to-gas change.
Option (c) Freezing — Incorrect: Freezing is the same as Solidification — the change of state from LIQUID to SOLID; for example, water freezing to form ice at 0°C; it is NOT the liquid-to-gas transition which is called Vaporization.

Correct Answer: CPCB — Option (a)
The Comprehensive Environmental Pollution Index (CEPI) in India is published by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB). About CEPI: Full form: Comprehensive Environmental Pollution Index; The CEPI is a tool developed to assess the pollution load of industrial clusters across India; It considers environmental pollution across air, water, and land (soil) dimensions; Developed by: CPCB in collaboration with IIT Delhi (National Environmental Engineering Research Institute — NEERI also involved); Used to identify: Critically Polluted Areas (CPAs) — industrial clusters scoring above 70 on CEPI; Severely Polluted Areas — clusters scoring between 60 and 70; CEPI scoring: Scored on a scale of 0-100; higher score = more polluted; a score above 70 triggers a Moratorium (ban on new industries); Critically Polluted Areas (CPAs): Tarapur (Maharashtra), Vapi (Gujarat), Angul-Talcher (Odisha), Ludhiana (Punjab), etc.; About CPCB: Central Pollution Control Board is a statutory organisation constituted in September 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974; It is under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change ( MoEFCC ); Headquarters: New Delhi; Main functions: Promote cleanliness of streams and wells, improve quality of air, provide technical assistance and guidance to SPCBs (State Pollution Control Boards).
Option (b) NGT — Incorrect: The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a judicial body established in 2010 to handle environmental cases — it adjudicates environmental disputes and can impose penalties; it does NOT publish the CEPI; the CEPI is published by CPCB.
Option (c) CGWB — Incorrect: CGWB (Central Ground Water Board) is a national apex agency under the Ministry of Jal Shakti that monitors and manages groundwater resources in India — it does NOT publish the CEPI; the CEPI is a CPCB publication. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) NITI Aayog — Incorrect: NITI Aayog is the government's policy think-tank that publishes reports on various developmental topics including environment, but the Comprehensive Environmental Pollution Index (CEPI) specifically is published by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), not NITI Aayog.

Correct Answer: 58 — Option (b)
The Environment Performance Index (EPI) 2024 uses 58 performance indicators. About the EPI 2024: The Environment Performance Index (EPI) is published biennially by Yale University and Columbia University in collaboration with the World Economic Forum; EPI 2024: Released in June 2024; The 2024 edition uses 58 performance indicators across 11 issue categories; Three policy objectives: Environmental Health (protecting human health from environmental harms), Ecosystem Vitality (protecting ecosystems and biodiversity), and Climate Change (reducing greenhouse gas emissions); 11 issue categories in EPI 2024: Air Quality, Sanitation & Drinking Water, Heavy Metals, Waste Management, Biodiversity & Habitat, Ecosystem Services, Fisheries, Climate Change, Pollution Emissions, Water Resources, Agriculture; India's EPI ranking: India has historically ranked poorly on EPI due to air pollution, water quality issues, and biodiversity concerns; in EPI 2024, India ranked near the bottom among assessed countries; Top performers: Estonia, Luxembourg, Switzerland, UK, Finland, Sweden, and other European nations typically dominate the top ranks; About the EPI methodology: Countries are scored on a 0-100 scale (100 = best environmental performance); weighted composite index of all 58 indicators.
Option (a) 11 — Incorrect: The EPI 2024 uses 58 performance indicators — not 11; 11 is the number of ISSUE CATEGORIES (not indicators) in the EPI 2024 framework; the 58 indicators are spread across these 11 categories. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) 15 — Incorrect: The EPI 2024 uses 58 performance indicators, not 15; 15 is not the correct number associated with EPI 2024.
Option (d) 77 — Incorrect: The EPI 2024 uses 58 performance indicators, not 77; 77 was the number of indicators used in some earlier versions of the EPI (e.g., EPI 2022 used 40 indicators, while earlier editions had different counts); 58 is the correct number for EPI 2024.