SSC GD 2026 22 May 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Lord Vishnu — Option (b)
The mythological legend of Mohiniyattam is associated with Lord Vishnu (specifically his Mohini avatar). About Mohiniyattam : Mohiniyattam is one of the eight classical dance forms of India, originating from Kerala; The name ' Mohiniyattam ' comes from two words: 'Mohini' (the enchantress/beautiful woman — a female avatar of Lord Vishnu) + ' aattam ' (dance); Mythological legend: The dance is associated with the legend of Lord Vishnu taking the Mohini avatar (a beautiful enchantress) during the Samudra Manthan (churning of the cosmic ocean/Milky Way); During Samudra Manthan, when the Amrit (nectar of immortality) emerged, both the Devas (gods) and Asuras (demons) fought for it; Lord Vishnu took the form of Mohini, a bewitchingly beautiful woman, to distract the Asuras and ensure the Amrit was given only to the Devas; Characteristics of Mohiniyattam : Graceful, feminine, lyrical dance style; Performed predominantly by women; Costumes: white and gold ( Kasavu saree); Incorporates elements of Bharatanatyam and Kathakali; Lasya style (gentle, feminine) as opposed to Tandava (vigorous, masculine); Language: Malayalam and Sanskrit; Revival: The dance was revived in the 19th century by Swathi Thirunal Rama Varma (King of Travancore) and later popularized by Vallathol Narayana Menon who founded Kerala Kalamandalam in 1930.
Option (a) Lord Shiva — Incorrect: Lord Shiva is associated with Bharatanatyam (through the Nataraja form — Shiva as the cosmic dancer/Lord of Dance); Shiva is also associated with Tandava (vigorous dance); the Mohiniyattam legend specifically involves Lord Vishnu's Mohini avatar, not Lord Shiva.
Option (c) Lord Krishna — Incorrect: Lord Krishna is associated with Manipuri dance (Ras Leela — Krishna's dance with the Gopis/Radha) and Kathak (devotional compositions on Krishna-Radha); the Mohiniyattam myth involves Vishnu's Mohini avatar, not Lord Krishna specifically.
Option (d) Goddess Durga — Incorrect: Goddess Durga is not associated with Mohiniyattam's mythology; Durga is associated with Garba and Dandiya Ras (Gujarat), and some forms of Odissi and Chhau dance which depict her battles; Mohiniyattam's legend centers on Lord Vishnu's Mohini form.

Correct Answer: Aditya L-1 — Option (c)
Aditya L-1 is the first Indian space mission dedicated to the observation of the Sun. About Aditya L-1: Launched by: ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation ); Launch date: September 2, 2023, from Sriharikota (Satish Dhawan Space Centre) using PSLV-C57; Destination: Lagrange Point 1 (L1) — a gravitational equilibrium point about 1.5 million km from Earth (towards the Sun), where it reached on January 6, 2024; Significance: India's first solar observatory spacecraft; allows continuous, unobstructed observation of the Sun without any eclipses; Payloads (7 instruments): VELC (Visible Emission Line Coronagraph), SUIT (Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope), ASPEX (Aditya Solar wind Particle Experiment), PAPA, SoLEXS , HEL1OS, MAG; Scientific objectives: Study the Sun's corona (outermost layer), solar wind, solar flares, Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs), and solar magnetic field; Why Lagrange Point 1? At L1, the spacecraft can maintain its position relative to the Earth-Sun system with minimal fuel, enabling uninterrupted solar observation; About the name: 'Aditya' is a Sanskrit name for the Sun; 'L1' refers to the first Lagrange point.
Option (a) Hinode — Incorrect: Hinode (meaning 'sunrise' in Japanese) is a JAXA (Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency) solar observatory mission launched in 2006 — it is a JAPANESE mission, not Indian; it studies the Sun's magnetic field, corona, and solar wind.
Option (b) Parker Solar Probe — Incorrect: Parker Solar Probe is a NASA (USA) mission launched in August 2018 — it is an AMERICAN mission, not Indian; it is the closest spacecraft to the Sun ever sent, studying the solar corona and solar wind.
Option (d) SOHO — Incorrect: SOHO (Solar and Heliospheric Observatory) is a joint ESA-NASA (European Space Agency and NASA) mission launched in December 1995 — it is not an Indian mission; Aditya L-1 is India's first dedicated solar observation mission.

Correct Answer: 2023 — Option (a)
Mumbai Indians Women's team won their first WPL (Women's Premier League) title in 2023. About the inaugural WPL 2023: The Women's Premier League (WPL) is a professional women's T20 cricket league organized by the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI); First season: March 2023 — the inaugural WPL season; Five franchises: Mumbai Indians (MI), Delhi Capitals (DC), Royal Challengers Bangalore (RCB), UP Warriorz , and Gujarat Giants; Final (WPL 2023): Mumbai Indians Women defeated Delhi Capitals Women in the final; Venue: Brabourne Stadium, Mumbai; Result: Mumbai Indians won by 7 wickets; Key players: Nat Sciver-Brunt, Harmanpreet Kaur (captain), Amelia Kerr, Hayley Matthews, Yastika Bhatia; About WPL format: T20 format; Round-robin league stage followed by playoffs (Qualifier 1, Eliminator, Qualifier 2, and Final); Significance of WPL: WPL is considered a landmark event for women's cricket in India — providing Indian women cricketers a high-profile domestic platform similar to IPL; The franchise fees totalled approximately Rs 4,669.99 crore — significantly higher than initial estimates, reflecting massive investor confidence in women's cricket; WPL 2024: RCB Women won the WPL 2024 title (defeating Delhi Capitals in the final); WPL 2025: Delhi Capitals won their first WPL title in 2025.
Option (b) 2024 — Incorrect: Mumbai Indians did not win the WPL title in 2024 — the WPL 2024 title was won by Royal Challengers Bangalore (RCB) Women; Mumbai Indians won the inaugural WPL title in 2023.
Option (c) 2022 — Incorrect: The Women's Premier League (WPL) did not exist in 2022 — the WPL was launched in 2023; therefore Mumbai Indians could not have won a WPL title in 2022.
Option (d) 2021 — Incorrect: The WPL did not exist in 2021 — it was first held in March 2023; Mumbai Indians Women won the inaugural WPL title in 2023, not 2021.

Correct Answer: India — Option (a)
The 'Indo-Pacific Ocean Initiative' (IPOI) is an initiative of India. About the Indo-Pacific Ocean Initiative (IPOI): Launched by: Prime Minister Narendra Modi at the East Asia Summit (EAS) in Bangkok, Thailand in November 2019; Nature: A collaborative, non-treaty-based initiative for a free, open, inclusive, and rules-based Indo-Pacific region; Objectives: To promote peace, stability, sustainable development, and enhanced maritime security in the Indo-Pacific; Seven Pillars of IPOI: Maritime Security — led by India; Maritime Ecology — led by India and Australia; Maritime Resources — led by France (associated via its Indian Ocean territories); Capacity Building and Resource Sharing — led by Japan; Disaster Risk Reduction and Management — led by Australia; Science, Technology and Academic Cooperation — led by India and USA; Trade Connectivity and Maritime Transport — led by India; Significance: IPOI positions India as a key security provider and development partner in the Indo-Pacific; It complements India's 'SAGAR' (Security and Growth for All in the Region) vision articulated by PM Modi in 2015; IPOI aligns with India's Act East Policy and the Quad (India, USA, Japan, Australia) framework; The initiative is non-military in nature and emphasizes rules-based order, freedom of navigation, and sustainable development; Context: India sees the Indo-Pacific region (stretching from the eastern coast of Africa to the western coast of the Americas) as crucial to its strategic interests, given India's 7,500 km coastline and dependence on sea lanes for trade.
Option (b) Madagascar — Incorrect: The Indo-Pacific Ocean Initiative was launched by India's PM Modi at the 2019 East Asia Summit — it is India's initiative, not Madagascar's; Madagascar, as an island nation in the Indian Ocean, may be a beneficiary or participant, but it did not launch IPOI.
Option (c) Kenya — Incorrect: The IPOI is India's initiative — Kenya is not the launching nation; Kenya is a partner in Indian Ocean frameworks but did not launch the Indo-Pacific Ocean Initiative.
Option (d) Maldives — Incorrect: The Indo-Pacific Ocean Initiative was launched by India, not Maldives; the Maldives is an important partner in India's Indian Ocean strategy, but IPOI is specifically India's PM Modi's initiative launched at the 2019 East Asia Summit. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: Badminton — Option (a)
In Badminton, the court is divided into left service court and right service court. About Badminton service courts: A standard badminton court is divided into two halves by a net; Each half is further divided into left service court and right service court by the centre line; Service rules based on service courts: In Singles: Server serves from right service court when score is even (0, 2, 4, 6...) and from left service court when score is odd (1, 3, 5...); The receiver stands diagonally opposite in the corresponding service court; In Doubles: When score is even, both the server and receiver stand in their right service courts; when score is odd, both stand in their left service courts; The diagonal service rule: Serves must be delivered diagonally — from the server's service court to the receiver's diagonally opposite service court; Short service line and Long service line define the depth of the service; Badminton court dimensions: Length: 13.4 metres (singles/doubles); Width: 6.1 metres (doubles) / 5.18 metres (singles); Net height: 1.55 metres at the posts, 1.524 metres at the centre ; Governing body: Badminton World Federation (BWF); India's badminton stars: PV Sindhu (2 Olympic medals), Saina Nehwal (Olympic bronze), Chirag Shetty, Satwiksairaj Rankireddy (world No. 1 doubles pair).
Option (b) Football — Incorrect: A football (soccer) field does NOT have left and right service courts — it has a rectangular playing field with penalty areas, goal areas, and centre circle; the concept of 'service courts' does not exist in football.
Option (c) Basketball — Incorrect: A basketball court does NOT have left and right service courts — it has a rectangular court with the key/paint area, three-point line, mid-court line, and restricted area; 'service courts' are not a feature of basketball.
Option (d) Cricket — Incorrect: A cricket field does NOT have left and right service courts — it has a pitch (22-yard strip), crease markings, boundary line, and various field positions; 'service courts' are not part of cricket terminology.

Correct Answer: Anangpal Tomar — Option (d)
Lal Kot, the first city of Delhi, was built by Anangpal Tomar ( Anangpal II) of the Tomar dynasty. About Lal Kot: Lal Kot (also known as Qila Rai Pithora when extended by Prithviraj Chauhan) is the first of the seven ancient cities of Delhi; Built by: Anangpal II ( Anangpal Tomar), a Tomar (Tomara) dynasty ruler, around the 8th-9th century CE (traditionally dated to 736 CE, though some historians date it to 11th century); Location: In the Mehrauli area, near the Qutub Minar complex (South Delhi); The site contains Surajkund and the famous Iron Pillar; 'Lal Kot' means 'Red Fort' in Hindi (Lal = Red, Kot = Fort) — named for the red stones used in its construction; Significant features: The Iron Pillar (Gupta-period, ~4th-5th century CE) was originally at a site in central India, possibly brought to Delhi by Anangpal Tomar; The ruins of Lal Kot's walls can still be seen near Qutub Minar; Seven Cities of Delhi: Lal Kot/Qila Rai Pithora (Tomar dynasty/Chauhan), Siri (Alauddin Khilji), Tughlaqabad (Ghiyath ud -Din Tughlaq), Jahanpanah (Muhammad bin Tughlaq), Firozabad (Firuz Shah Tughlaq), Dinpanah / Shergarh (Humayun/Sher Shah Suri), Shahjahanabad (Shah Jahan).
Option (a) Prithviraj Chauhan — Incorrect: Prithviraj Chauhan III (the famous Rajput king who fought the Battles of Tarain against Muhammad of Ghor) EXTENDED Lal Kot and renamed it Qila Rai Pithora — but he did NOT build Lal Kot; Lal Kot was originally built by Anangpal Tomar of the Tomar dynasty.
Option (b) Alauddin Khilji — Incorrect: Alauddin Khilji built 'Siri' — the second city of Delhi (around 1303 CE); he did NOT build Lal Kot, which was built by Anangpal Tomar centuries earlier.
Option (c) Humayun — Incorrect: Humayun (and later Sher Shah Suri) is associated with ' Dinpanah ' (and Shergarh ) — the 6th city of Delhi; Humayun also had Delhi's Purana Qila constructed; he did NOT build Lal Kot.

Correct Answer: Harmonium — Option (d)
In 1875, Dwarkanath Ghosh designed the Indian version of the hand-pumped Harmonium in Calcutta. About the Harmonium in India: The harmonium is a keyboard instrument that produces sound by pushing air through metal reeds; The Western harmonium (foot-pumped/pedal-operated) was introduced to India by Christian missionaries in the early 19th century; Indian adaptation: Dwarkanath Ghosh (also spelled Dwarkanath Ghosh or Dwarkadas Ghosh) redesigned/adapted the Western harmonium to create the hand-pumped version in Calcutta in 1875; The Indian hand-pumped harmonium: The bellows (air pump) are operated by one hand while the other hand plays the keyboard — making it possible for a single Indian musician to play and pump simultaneously; This made it far more practical for Indian classical and semi-classical music performances; Significance in Indian music: The Indian harmonium became ubiquitous in Indian classical (Hindustani), devotional (bhajan, kirtan), ghazal, thumri, and popular music; It was embraced by virtually all genres of North Indian music; Initially, All India Radio (AIR) banned the harmonium (in 1940) due to its tempered Western scale not fitting Indian microtones — the ban was lifted in 1971; Famous harmonium players: Tulsidas Borkar, Govindrao Tembe, Pandit Ulhas Kashalkar accompaniment; The harmonium remains one of the most widely used instruments in Indian music today.
Option (a) Tabla — Incorrect: The Tabla is an ancient Indian percussion instrument (double drum) with a long history predating 1875 — it was NOT designed by Dwarkanath Ghosh in 1875; Tabla's origins are traced to the splitting of the Pakhawaj (mridangam-like drum), possibly by Amir Khusrow or developed gradually over centuries.
Option (b) Guitar — Incorrect: The Guitar is a Western stringed instrument — Dwarkanath Ghosh is not associated with designing any version of the guitar; he is specifically known for designing the Indian hand-pumped harmonium in Calcutta in 1875.
Option (c) Bansuri (Flute) — Incorrect: The Bansuri is an ancient Indian bamboo flute with origins going back thousands of years (associated with Lord Krishna) — it was not 'designed' by Dwarkanath Ghosh in 1875; Ghosh's contribution was the Indian hand-pumped harmonium. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: T.H. Vinayakram — Option (b)
T.H. Vinayakram is known as the 'God of Ghatam' for his extraordinary skill and contribution to popularizing the Ghatam. About T.H. Vinayakram : Full name: Thiruvarur Bakthavathsalam Vinayakram; Born: 1942 in Thiruvarur , Tamil Nadu; He is a Carnatic percussionist who mastered the Ghatam — a clay pot percussion instrument; Awarded the Padma Bhushan (India's third highest civilian honour ) in 2012; International fame: He gained worldwide recognition through his collaboration with world music icon John McLaughlin's band Shakti (which fused jazz with Indian classical music) in the 1970s-80s; About the Ghatam: A large clay pot/earthen pot (typically terracotta) used as a percussion instrument in Carnatic music; The musician strikes it with fingers, palms, and the heel of the hand to produce various tones; The pitch can be altered by pressing the pot against the abdomen; The opening of the pot is pointed away from the performer and sometimes used as a resonating chamber; Other performers: Vikku Vinayakram (T.H. Vinayakram's son) is also a renowned Ghatam artist; About other options: Bhimsen Joshi (Pandit Bhimsen Joshi): Legendary Hindustani vocalist, Bharat Ratna awardee — not a Ghatam player; Pandit Shivkumar Sharma: Legendary Santoor maestro, popularized the Santoor in classical music — not associated with Ghatam; T.M. Krishna: Renowned Carnatic vocalist — vocalist, not a Ghatam player.
Option (a) Bhimsen Joshi — Incorrect: Pandit Bhimsen Joshi was one of India's greatest Hindustani classical vocalists (Kirana Gharana), known for his Khayal performances and bhajans — he is not associated with the Ghatam; T.H. Vinayakram is the 'God of Ghatam'.
Option (c) Pandit Shivkumar Sharma — Incorrect: Pandit Shivkumar Sharma (1938-2022) was the maestro who popularized the Santoor (a Kashmiri string instrument) in Indian classical music — he is not associated with the Ghatam; T.H. Vinayakram is known as the 'God of Ghatam'.
Option (d) T.M. Krishna — Incorrect: T.M. Krishna ( Thodur Madabusi Krishna) is a celebrated Carnatic vocalist known for his boundary-crossing approach to classical music and advocacy for making music accessible — he is a vocalist, not a Ghatam percussionist; T.H. Vinayakram is the 'God of Ghatam'.

Correct Answer: Mangrove Forest — Option (c)
Sundarbans is famous for its Mangrove Forest — the world's largest mangrove ecosystem. About Sundarbans: Location: The Sundarbans spans across the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna delta, shared between India (West Bengal) and Bangladesh; Total area: approximately 10,000 sq km (India ~4,200 sq km + Bangladesh ~6,000 sq km); It is the world's largest single block of tidal halophytic mangrove forest; The name 'Sundarbans' likely comes from the dominant mangrove tree 'Sundari' ( Heritiera fomes); About Mangrove Forests: Found in tropical and subtropical coastal regions where freshwater rivers meet the sea (estuaries, tidal zones); Salt-tolerant (halophytic) trees and shrubs that grow in brackish or saline water; Characteristic features: aerial roots (pneumatophores), prop roots, vivipary (seeds germinate while still on the tree), dense canopy; Ecological functions: coastal protection against storms/cyclones/tsunamis, nursery habitat for fish, carbon sequestration (blue carbon), water filtration; Sundarbans UNESCO Status: A UNESCO World Heritage Site (1987); A Ramsar Wetland site; Sundarban Biosphere Reserve; Famous for: Royal Bengal Tiger (largest population in a single forest), Irrawaddy dolphins, estuarine crocodiles, fishing cat, Gangetic river dolphin, numerous bird species.
Option (a) Tropical Evergreen Forest — Incorrect: Tropical Evergreen Forests (Tropical Rainforests) are found in areas with heavy annual rainfall (>200 cm), like the Western Ghats, Andaman Islands, and northeastern India — NOT in the Sundarbans delta region; Sundarbans is specifically a mangrove ecosystem.
Option (b) Desert Vegetation — Incorrect: Desert vegetation (xerophytes — cacti, thorny shrubs, succulents) is found in arid regions with very low rainfall, like the Thar Desert of Rajasthan — completely opposite to the wet, tidal, riverine environment of Sundarbans.
Option (d) Alpine Grasslands — Incorrect: Alpine Grasslands ( Bugyals ) are found at high altitudes in the Himalayas (above the treeline , typically above 3,000-4,000 metres ) — Sundarbans is a low-lying coastal delta at sea level with mangrove vegetation, not alpine grassland.

Correct Answer: Karnataka — Option (a)
Hutti Gold Mines is located in Raichur district, Karnataka. About Hutti Gold Mines: Location: Hutti village, Lingasugur taluka, Raichur district, Karnataka; Operated by: Hutti Gold Mines Company Limited (HGML) — a government-owned company under the Karnataka government; Hutti is one of the oldest operating gold mines in India — gold mining here dates back to ancient times; Hutti Gold Mine produces approximately 2-3 tonnes of gold annually; HGML also operates the Uti gold mine (nearby) and Hira- Buddini mine; Historical significance: The Hutti belt (Hutti-Maski- Hampapatna ) has been known for gold since ancient times; the Vijayanagara Empire extensively mined gold in this region; About gold mining in India: India has limited gold production compared to global leaders (China, Australia, Russia); Other gold deposits in India: Kolar Gold Fields (KGF) in Karnataka — once one of the world's deepest and most productive gold mines, now largely exhausted (officially closed by Bharat Gold Mines Ltd/BGML in 2001); Dharwad region, Karnataka; Sonbhadra district, Uttar Pradesh (reported deposits); Jonnagiri , Andhra Pradesh; Ramagiri , Andhra Pradesh; Karnataka dominates India's gold mining sector — both Hutti and KGF are in Karnataka.
Option (b) Bihar — Incorrect: Hutti Gold Mines is in Karnataka (Raichur district), not Bihar; Bihar's mineral resources include coal (Jharia coalfield region), mica, and pyrite — but not significant gold mines.
Option (c) Jharkhand — Incorrect: Hutti Gold Mines is in Karnataka, not Jharkhand; Jharkhand is rich in coal (Jharia, Bokaro, Dhanbad), iron ore, copper ( Singhbhum ), mica, and uranium ( Jadugoda ) — but Hutti Gold Mines is specifically in Karnataka.
Option (d) Odisha — Incorrect: Hutti Gold Mines is located in Raichur district, Karnataka — not in Odisha; Odisha is known for its iron ore ( Keonjhar , Sundargarh ), bauxite (Kalahandi), and coal deposits, but Hutti Gold Mines is in Karnataka.

Correct Answer: 2 months — Option (c)
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), the investigation of sexual offences must be completed within 2 months. About BNSS: The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS) replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973; Enacted in December 2023 and came into force on July 1, 2024; It is one of three new criminal laws that replaced colonial- era laws: Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) — replaced Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860; Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) — replaced Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973; Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) — replaced Indian Evidence Act, 1872; Timeline for investigation of sexual offences under BNSS: Section 193 of BNSS mandates that investigation of rape and other sexual offences must be completed within 2 months from the date of recording of information (FIR); This provision aims to ensure speedy justice for victims of sexual crimes; Trial: The BNSS also mandates that trial of rape cases must be completed within 2 years; Significance: The 2-month investigation deadline reflects India's commitment to expediting justice for sexual offence victims, following landmark cases like the Nirbhaya case (2012) which exposed delays in the criminal justice system.
Option (a) 6 months — Incorrect: The BNSS mandates a 2-month timeline for investigation of sexual offences, not 6 months; 6 months is a longer period that does not match the BNSS provision.
Option (b) 1 year — Incorrect: The BNSS requires investigation of sexual offences to be completed within 2 months — 1 year is far beyond the statutory timeline prescribed under BNSS.
Option (d) 3 months — Incorrect: The correct timeline under BNSS for investigation of sexual offences is 2 months, not 3 months; 3 months is not the prescribed investigation period under BNSS.

Correct Answer: Preamble of the Constitution — Option (c)
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution is borrowed from the United States of America (USA). Features borrowed from the USA for Indian Constitution: Preamble — the concept of a written preamble beginning with 'We, the People' was inspired by the US Constitution's preamble; Fundamental Rights (Part III) — the concept and structure of enforceable fundamental rights was influenced by the US Bill of Rights; Judicial Review — power of courts to review constitutionality of laws, borrowed from US; Independence of Judiciary — separation of judiciary from executive; Impeachment of the President — procedure for removal of constitutional functionaries; Vice-President's role as ex-officio Chairperson of the Upper House; Sources of other borrowed features: Fundamental Duties: Borrowed from the USSR (Soviet Union) Constitution — added by 42nd Amendment, 1976; Concept of Republic: While India is a republic (not a monarchy), the formal concept as presented in the Preamble was influenced by France (Liberty, Equality, Fraternity) and the USA; Freedom of Trade, Commerce and Intercourse: Borrowed from the Australian Constitution (Article 301-307); Cabinet System of Government: Borrowed from the British (Westminster) model; Directive Principles of State Policy: Borrowed from the Irish Constitution; Emergency Provisions: Borrowed from the German (Weimar Republic) Constitution.
Option (a) Fundamental Duties — Incorrect: Fundamental Duties (Article 51-A) were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment (1976) — they were borrowed from the Constitution of the USSR (Soviet Union), NOT from the USA; the US Constitution does not have a specific list of fundamental duties.
Option (b) Concept of 'Republic' — Incorrect: While the USA is also a republic, the 'Republic' concept in the Indian Preamble is associated more with the French Revolution (Liberty, Equality, Fraternity — borrowed from France) than solely from the USA; moreover, the specific feature borrowed from the USA for the Preamble is its format and 'We, the People' concept.
Option (d) Freedom of Trade and Commerce — Incorrect: The provisions relating to Freedom of Trade, Commerce and Intercourse (Articles 301-307 of the Indian Constitution) were borrowed from the Australian Constitution — NOT from the USA.

Correct Answer: Election Commission of India — Option (c)
The Election Commission of India (ECI) decides the reserved symbols for national and state-level political parties. About Election Symbols in India: Legal basis: The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 governs the allotment of election symbols to political parties and candidates in India; It was issued by the Election Commission of India under Article 324 of the Constitution and the Representation of the People Act; Powers of the ECI regarding symbols: Recognition of political parties (national and state parties); Reservation of symbols for recognized parties (exclusive symbols that only that party can use); Allotment of free symbols to unrecognized parties and independent candidates; Settlement of disputes regarding symbols (e.g., when a party splits, ECI decides which faction gets the symbol — as in the famous cases of Shiv Sena and NCP in 2022-23); National Party Status criteria: A party is recognized as a 'National Party' if it secures 6% votes in 4 or more states AND wins 4 Lok Sabha seats, OR wins 2% of Lok Sabha seats from at least 3 states; State Party criteria: 6% votes in a state + 2 state assembly seats, OR 6% of state assembly seats; ECI's constitutional status: The Election Commission of India is an independent constitutional body established under Article 324; Currently a three-member body (Chief Election Commissioner + 2 Election Commissioners).
Option (a) Supreme Court — Incorrect: The Supreme Court does not decide reserved symbols for political parties — that is the exclusive domain of the Election Commission of India; the Supreme Court may adjudicate disputes related to elections but does not allocate symbols.
Option (b) President — Incorrect: The President of India does not decide reserved symbols for political parties; this power rests with the Election Commission of India under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968.
Option (d) Speaker of Lok Sabha — Incorrect: The Speaker of Lok Sabha handles matters related to the anti-defection law (Tenth Schedule of the Constitution) and conduct of parliamentary proceedings — the Speaker does NOT decide reserved symbols for political parties; that is ECI's function.

Correct Answer: Kharaj — Option (d)
Under Alauddin Khilji's administration, Kharaj was the land/agricultural tax levied on cultivated land. About Alauddin Khilji's Revenue/Tax System: Alauddin Khilji (reigned 1296-1316 CE) introduced one of the most comprehensive and rigid revenue/taxation systems in medieval India; His revenue reforms were primarily aimed at financing his large standing army; Agricultural taxes under Alauddin Khilji: Kharaj (land tax): The principal tax on agricultural produce — fixed at 50% of the produce (half the agricultural yield went to the state); Ghari (house tax): Tax levied per household on cattle (for dairy animals); Charai (grazing tax): Tax on milch cattle and other livestock grazing on state lands; Administrative officials: Shahna: Revenue inspector who supervised agricultural assessment; Amil: Revenue collector (NOT a tax itself — it was the title of an official); Khut, Muqaddam, and Chaudhary: Village headmen/local revenue collection officials; Significance: Alauddin's tax system was extremely harsh — he famously said he wanted to leave peasants with only enough grain for seed and food, so they had no means to rebel; His system eliminated the intermediary revenue-collecting nobility and taxed directly at the source.
Option (a) Mahzar — Incorrect: Mahzar was a legal document (deed/certificate) — not a tax; it could be a formal document of renunciation or court decree; it is not an agricultural tax under Alauddin Khilji.
Option (b) Firoz — Incorrect: 'Firoz' is not a recognized agricultural tax under Alauddin Khilji's administration; the agricultural taxes were Kharaj (land tax), Ghari , and Charai.
Option (c) Amil — Incorrect: Amil was the title of a REVENUE OFFICIAL (revenue collector) under Alauddin Khilji — NOT a tax; the Amil collected taxes but was not himself a tax; the agricultural tax was Kharaj .

Correct Answer: The Order of Excellence — Option (a)
PM Narendra Modi was awarded Guyana's highest national award — 'The Order of Excellence' — in November 2024. About PM Modi's Visit to Guyana (November 2024): PM Modi visited Georgetown, Guyana — the first Indian Prime Minister to visit Guyana in over 56 years (since 1968); The visit was part of his tour to attend the CARICOM (Caribbean Community) Summit; President of Guyana: Dr. Irfaan Ali conferred the 'Order of Excellence' on PM Modi; The Order of Excellence is Guyana's highest state honor; Significance: India and Guyana share deep cultural and historical ties — about 40% of Guyana's population is of Indian origin (Indo-Guyanese), descendants of indentured laborers brought from India in the 19th century; PM Modi's speech at the joint sitting of the Guyanese Parliament was a historic moment; Areas of cooperation discussed: energy, digital public infrastructure, pharmaceuticals, and defense; Guyana context: Guyana is located on the northeastern coast of South America; it has recently become one of the world's fastest-growing economies due to major offshore oil discoveries; CARICOM (Caribbean Community): A regional grouping of 15 Caribbean nations; India has been deepening ties with CARICOM through the India-CARICOM Summit.
Option (b) The Order of Valour — Incorrect: 'The Order of Valour ' is not the name of Guyana's highest national award given to PM Modi; the correct award name is 'The Order of Excellence'.
Option (c) The Crown Jewel Honour — Incorrect: 'The Crown Jewel Honour ' is not a real award name associated with Guyana or PM Modi's November 2024 visit; the correct award is 'The Order of Excellence'.
Option (d) The Grand Cross of the Order — Incorrect: While 'Grand Cross' is a high class within many European orders of chivalry, it is not the name of Guyana's national award given to PM Modi; the correct award is 'The Order of Excellence'.

Correct Answer: Air Marshal Jitendra Mishra — Option (c)
Air Marshal Jitendra Mishra took command of the Western Air Command (WAC) of the Indian Air Force in January 2025. About the Western Air Command (WAC): The Western Air Command is the largest and most strategically important command of the Indian Air Force (IAF); Headquarters: Subroto Park, New Delhi; Operational responsibility: Defends India's western borders (borders with Pakistan) and includes the national capital region; Key air bases under WAC: Air Force Station Ambala, Pathankot, Hindon, Adampur , Uttarlai , Jodhpur, Jaisalmer; Significance: The Western Air Command was actively involved in operations including the 1999 Kargil War and continues to be India's frontline air defence command; About Air Marshal Jitendra Mishra: An experienced IAF officer who assumed command of WAC in January 2025; The Western Air Command is headed by an Air Officer Commanding-in-Chief (AOC-in-C) at the rank of Air Marshal; Commands of IAF: India has 7 commands — Western Air Command (New Delhi), South Western Air Command (Gandhinagar), Central Air Command (Allahabad), Eastern Air Command (Shillong), Southern Air Command (Thiruvananthapuram), Maintenance Command (Nagpur), Training Command (Bengaluru).
Option (a) Air Marshal Vikram Singh — Incorrect: Air Marshal Vikram Singh did not take command of the Western Air Command in January 2025; the correct officer is Air Marshal Jitendra Mishra. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (b) Air Marshal Balakrishnan Manikanthan — Incorrect: Air Marshal Balakrishnan Manikanthan is not the officer who took command of the WAC in January 2025; Air Marshal Jitendra Mishra assumed command of the Western Air Command.
Option (d) Air Marshal Surat Singh — Incorrect: Air Marshal Surat Singh did not take command of the Western Air Command in January 2025; the correct officer who assumed WAC command in January 2025 is Air Marshal Jitendra Mishra.

Correct Answer: Madhya Pradesh — Option (a)
The Madhya Pradesh government established the Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar Wildlife Sanctuary (also known as Bamitha Wildlife Sanctuary). About Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar Wildlife Sanctuary: The Madhya Pradesh government declared the Bamitha area (also referred to as Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar Sanctuary) as a wildlife sanctuary; Location: Madhya Pradesh — the state with the highest number of wildlife sanctuaries in India; Significance: Named after Dr. Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar (1891-1956) — the chief architect of the Indian Constitution, social reformer, and champion of Dalit rights; About Madhya Pradesh's wildlife: Madhya Pradesh is known as the 'Tiger State of India' (highest tiger population); Major national parks: Kanha Tiger Reserve, Bandhavgarh, Pench, Satpura , Sanjay-Dubri; Wildlife sanctuaries: MP has the largest number of wildlife sanctuaries in India; Other significant wildlife sanctuaries in MP include Ratapani , Nauradehi , Gangau , Sanjay (not to be confused with the national park), etc.; MP is also home to the Ken-Betwa River Link Project — India's first river interlinking project affecting Panna Tiger Reserve; About Dr. B.R. Ambedkar: Born: April 14, 1891 in Mhow (now Dr. Ambedkar Nagar), Madhya Pradesh — hence the significance of naming institutions in MP after him; Died: December 6, 1956; Key contributions: Drafted the Indian Constitution, fought for Dalit rights, founded Buddhism revival in India (converted to Buddhism in 1956), established institutions for Dalit education.
Option (b) Kerala — Incorrect: The Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar Wildlife Sanctuary was established by the Madhya Pradesh government, not Kerala; Kerala's notable wildlife sanctuaries include Periyar, Silent Valley, Wayanad, Chinnar , and Parambikulam .
Option (c) Uttarakhand — Incorrect: The sanctuary named after Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar was established by Madhya Pradesh, not Uttarakhand; Uttarakhand's notable wildlife areas include Jim Corbett (India's first national park), Rajaji, Kedarnath, and Govind Pashu Vihar.
Option (d) Punjab — Incorrect: The Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar Wildlife Sanctuary is in Madhya Pradesh, not Punjab; Punjab's wildlife sanctuaries include Harike Wetland (Ramsar site) and Bir Bhadson.

Correct Answer: IndiaAI — Option (a)
In August 2025, IndiaAI partnered with the National Cancer Grid (NCG) to launch the Cancer AI & Technology Challenge (CATCH) grant program. About the CATCH Program: Full name: Cancer AI & Technology Challenge (CATCH) grant program; Launched: August 2025; Partners: IndiaAI (India's national AI initiative) and the National Cancer Grid (NCG); Objective: To promote the development and deployment of Artificial Intelligence (AI) and technology solutions for cancer detection, diagnosis, treatment, and care in India; About IndiaAI : IndiaAI is India's national AI initiative under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY); Launched as part of the India AI Mission (approved by Cabinet in March 2024) with a budget of Rs 10,372 crore over 5 years; Key pillars: IndiaAI Compute Capacity, IndiaAI Innovation Centre, IndiaAI Datasets Platform, IndiaAI Application Development Initiative, IndiaAI FutureSkills , IndiaAI Startup Financing, Safe & Trusted AI; About National Cancer Grid (NCG): A network of major cancer centres , research institutes, patient groups, and charitable organizations across India; Established in 2012 by Tata Memorial Centre (TMC), Mumbai; Aims to establish uniform standards of cancer care across India and promote multidisciplinary oncology; CATCH Significance: Combines India's AI capabilities with cancer research networks to develop AI-driven solutions for early cancer detection, pathology automation, and personalized treatment — critical given India's rising cancer burden.
Option (b) CSIR — Incorrect: CSIR (Council of Scientific and Industrial Research) is a government-funded research organization under DSIR — while CSIR works on medical research, it is IndiaAI (not CSIR) that partnered with the National Cancer Grid for the CATCH program in August 2025.
Option (c) AIIMS Delhi — Incorrect: AIIMS Delhi (All India Institute of Medical Sciences, New Delhi) is a premier medical institution, but the CATCH grant program was launched through a partnership between IndiaAI and the National Cancer Grid (NCG) — not AIIMS Delhi. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) CancerAI — Incorrect: ' CancerAI ' is not a recognized government organization that partnered with the National Cancer Grid for the CATCH program; IndiaAI (India's national AI mission) is the correct partner organization.

Correct Answer: 0 — Option (d)
In the Performance Grading Index (PGI) 2.0 released in July 2025 for 2023-24, 0 (zero) states are under the 'Daksh' grade. About Performance Grading Index (PGI) 2.0: The PGI 2.0 is released by the Ministry of Education to assess the performance of states and UTs in school education; It replaced the earlier PGI 1.0 with a more comprehensive framework; PGI 2.0 for 2023-24 was released in July 2025; Grading categories in PGI 2.0 (from highest to lowest): Daksh (Highest grade — 951 to 1000 points), Utkarsh (901 to 950 points), Ati-Uttam (851 to 900 points), Uttam (801 to 850 points), Prachesta-1 (751 to 800 points), Prachesta-2 (701 to 750 points), Prachesta-3 (651 to 700 points), Akanshi-1 (601 to 650 points), Akanshi-2 (551 to 600 points), Akanshi-3 (Up to 550 points); Key finding for PGI 2.0 (2023-24): No state/UT achieved the highest 'Daksh' grade — hence 0 states are in the Daksh category; Top performing states/UTs in PGI 2.0 (2023-24): Chandigarh, Punjab, Gujarat, Kerala, Maharashtra, and others were among the top performers, but none reached the Daksh level; Total parameters: PGI 2.0 assesses states on multiple domains including access, infrastructure, equity, governance, learning outcomes, and teacher education.
Option (a) 2 — Incorrect: 0 (zero) states are under the 'Daksh' grade in PGI 2.0 for 2023-24 — not 2; no state achieved the highest Daksh grade in the PGI 2.0 released in July 2025.
Option (b) 4 — Incorrect: The correct answer is 0 (zero) states under the Daksh grade in PGI 2.0 for 2023-24; no state scored in the 951-1000 range required for Daksh. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) 6 — Incorrect: 0 states are in the Daksh (highest) grade category in PGI 2.0 for 2023-24 — not 6; the Daksh grade (951-1000 points) was not achieved by any state or UT in the 2023-24 assessment.

Correct Answer: Ministry of Jal Shakti — Option (a)
Swachh Survekshan Grameen (SSG) 2025 is a nationwide rural sanitation survey conducted by the Ministry of Jal Shakti. About Swachh Survekshan Grameen (SSG): Swachh Survekshan Grameen is an annual rural sanitation survey conducted by the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation (DDWS) under the Ministry of Jal Shakti; It assesses the sanitation status and cleanliness of rural areas across India; It is the rural counterpart of the urban Swachh Survekshan (conducted by Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs); Implemented under: Swachh Bharat Mission (Grameen) — SBM(G); Objective: To rank states, districts, and gram panchayats based on their sanitation and cleanliness performance; Parameters assessed: ODF (Open Defecation Free) status, toilet construction and usage, solid and liquid waste management, behavioural change, water quality, cleanliness of public places; Awards: Top-performing states, districts, and villages receive awards under SSG; About Ministry of Jal Shakti: Created in 2019 by merging the Ministry of Water Resources, River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation with the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation; Responsible for: Jal Jeevan Mission (drinking water to every rural household), Swachh Bharat Mission Grameen (rural sanitation), AMRUT, National Water Mission; The Ministry of Jal Shakti plays a central role in India's water security and rural sanitation goals.
Option (b) NITI Aayog — Incorrect: NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) is the government's policy think-tank that conducts studies, rankings, and evaluations in various sectors — but Swachh Survekshan Grameen is specifically conducted by the Ministry of Jal Shakti (DDWS), not NITI Aayog.
Option (c) National Green Tribunal — Incorrect: The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a judicial body for environmental disputes — it does NOT conduct the Swachh Survekshan Grameen survey; SSG is conducted by the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation under Ministry of Jal Shakti. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change — Incorrect: MoEFCC deals with environmental protection, forest conservation, wildlife, and pollution control — it does NOT conduct the Swachh Survekshan Grameen; that survey is conducted by the Ministry of Jal Shakti as part of Swachh Bharat Mission (Grameen).