SSC GD 2026 27 April 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Finance Commission — Option (b)
The Finance Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution. Its primary function is to recommend the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Centre and the States (vertical devolution) and also among the States themselves (horizontal devolution). It also recommends grants-in-aid to states and measures to improve the finances of states. The Finance Commission is constituted every five years (or earlier) by the President of India. The 16th Finance Commission was constituted in 2023 under Dr. Arvind Panagariya and covers the period 2026-31.
Option (a) Planning Commission — Incorrect: The Planning Commission was dissolved in 2014 and replaced by NITI Aayog; it was responsible for planning economic development, not recommending tax distribution.
Option (c) Parliament — Incorrect: Parliament enacts tax laws but does not recommend the distribution of taxes between Centre and States; that is the specific constitutional mandate of the Finance Commission.
Option (d) NITI Aayog — Incorrect: NITI Aayog is a policy think tank that replaced the Planning Commission in 2015; it does not have the constitutional mandate to recommend tax distribution between Centre and States.

Correct Answer: President — Option (c)
Under Article 280(1) of the Indian Constitution, the President of India constitutes the Finance Commission within two years from the commencement of the Constitution and thereafter at the expiration of every fifth year or at such earlier time as the President considers necessary. The President appoints the Chairman and four other members of the Finance Commission. The qualifications of the members are determined by Parliament by law. The Finance Commission submits its report to the President, who then causes it to be laid before both Houses of Parliament.
Option (a) Parliament — Incorrect: Parliament does not appoint the Finance Commission; it determines the qualifications of its members by law. Appointment is made by the President.
Option (b) Union Cabinet — Incorrect: The Union Cabinet does not appoint the Finance Commission members; the constitutional authority vested with this power is the President of India.
Option (d) Prime Minister — Incorrect: The Prime Minister does not formally appoint the Finance Commission; the appointment is made by the President under Article 280, though the President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Correct Answer: 1994 — Option (b)
The Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (PC-PNDT) Act was enacted by the Government of India in 1994 to prohibit sex selection (female foeticide ) before or after conception and to prevent the misuse of pre-natal diagnostic techniques for sex determination. Originally enacted as the Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Regulation and Prevention of Misuse) Act, 1994 (PNDT Act), it was significantly amended in 2003 to include pre-conception sex selection techniques as well, after which it was renamed as the PC-PNDT Act. The Act regulates the use of technologies like ultrasound, genetic testing, and amniocentesis, prohibiting their use for determining the sex of a foetus .
Option (a) 1991 — Incorrect: The PCPNDT Act was enacted in 1994, not 1991. Maharashtra passed its own state-level act against sex determination in 1988, which may be confused with the national act.
Option (c) 2011 — Incorrect: The PCPNDT Act was originally enacted in 1994; 2011 is not the year of its enactment (though subsequent rules and amendments were issued over the years).
Option (d) 2015 — Incorrect: 2015 is not the year of the PCPNDT Act; it was enacted in 1994 (originally as PNDT Act) and amended in 2003 to become the PC-PNDT Act.

Correct Answer: Holi — Option (b)
Gaur dance (also known as Gour dance) is a traditional folk dance of the Baiga tribal community of Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. It is predominantly performed during the Holi festival. In this dance, men wear the horns of the Gaur (Indian bison) as a headdress and dress in colourful attire, dancing vigorously to the beats of drums and other traditional musical instruments. The name 'Gaur' comes from the Indian bison (Bos gaurus), and the dance is performed to express joy and celebrate the festival of colours . It is a vibrant folk tradition that showcases the tribal culture of central India.
Option (a) Diwali — Incorrect: Diwali (Festival of Lights) has its own associated dances and celebrations, but Gaur dance is predominantly performed during Holi, not Diwali.
Option (c) Navratri — Incorrect: Navratri is primarily associated with Garba and Dandiya Raas in Gujarat; the Gaur dance is a Holi festival tradition of the Baiga tribal community.
Option (d) Baisakhi — Incorrect: Baisakhi is the harvest festival celebrated primarily in Punjab, associated with Bhangra and Giddha ; Gaur dance is performed during Holi by the Baiga tribal community.

Correct Answer: Guru Granth Sahib — Option (a)
Guru Granth Sahib is the eternal living Guru and the holy scripture of Sikhism. During Hola Mohalla — the Sikh festival celebrated the day after Holi, established by Guru Gobind Singh Ji in 1701 at Anandpur Sahib — the Guru Granth Sahib is recited and kirtan (devotional singing of hymns) is performed. Hola Mohalla is a festival of martial arts, military exercises, and mock battles, as well as religious discourses and poetry readings. The Guru Granth Sahib (also called the Adi Granth) contains 1,430 pages and includes the hymns (Gurbani) of Sikh Gurus and various saints across faiths.
Option (b) Bhagavad Gita — Incorrect: The Bhagavad Gita is a Hindu scripture; Hola Mohalla is a Sikh festival during which the Guru Granth Sahib (Sikh holy scripture) is recited.
Option (c) Quran — Incorrect: The Quran is the holy scripture of Islam and is not recited at Hola Mohalla; the Guru Granth Sahib is the scripture recited at this Sikh festival.
Option (d) Bible — Incorrect: The Bible is the holy scripture of Christianity and is not associated with Hola Mohalla; the Sikh holy scripture Guru Granth Sahib is recited during this festival.

Correct Answer: Mary Shelley — Option (a)
Frankenstein; or, The Modern Prometheus was written by Mary Wollstonecraft Shelley (1797-1851) and was first published anonymously in 1818 and under her name in 1823. The novel tells the story of Victor Frankenstein, a scientist who creates a sapient creature through an unorthodox scientific experiment. The book is considered one of the earliest examples of science fiction and Gothic fiction. Mary Shelley reportedly conceived the idea during a ghost story contest with Percy Bysshe Shelley (her husband), Lord Byron, and John Polidori at the Villa Diodati in Geneva in 1816 — a stormy summer known as the 'Year Without a Summer.'
Option (b) Bram Stoker — Incorrect: Bram Stoker wrote Dracula (1897), another classic Gothic horror novel; he did not write Frankenstein.
Option (c) H.G. Wells — Incorrect: H.G. Wells wrote classic science fiction works like The War of the Worlds, The Time Machine, and The Invisible Man; Frankenstein was written by Mary Shelley.
Option (d) Robert Louis Stevenson — Incorrect: Robert Louis Stevenson wrote Strange Case of Dr Jekyll and Mr Hyde (1886) and Treasure Island; Frankenstein is the work of Mary Shelley, not Stevenson.

Correct Answer: Helsinki, 1983 — Option (a)
The first World Athletics Championships (officially the 1st IAAF World Championships in Athletics) were held in Helsinki, Finland in August 1983. The event was organised by the International Association of Athletics Federations (now called World Athletics). Helsinki was chosen as the venue partly because of its historic association with athletics — the city had hosted the 1952 Summer Olympics and the 1971 European Athletics Championships. The 1983 championships featured 41 events and saw 1,355 athletes from 153 countries competing. Carl Lewis of the USA won four gold medals at the inaugural championships. The championships have since been held every two years (biennially since 1993).
Option (b) Tokyo, 1991 — Incorrect: The 3rd World Athletics Championships were held in Tokyo in 1991 (where Carl Lewis set a 100m world record of 9.86s); the FIRST championships were in Helsinki, 1983.
Option (c) Rome, 1987 — Incorrect: The 2nd World Athletics Championships were held in Rome in 1987; the first championships were held in Helsinki in 1983.
Option (d) Berlin, 1993 — Incorrect: The 4th World Athletics Championships were held in Stuttgart, Germany in 1993, not Berlin; and the first championships were in Helsinki, 1983.

Correct Answer: 91.4 m — Option (b)
The standard length of a field hockey pitch is 91.4 metres (equivalent to 100 yards), with a width of 55 metres (60 yards). The pitch is rectangular and includes: The shooting circle (D-shaped area) at each end, 14.63 metres from the goal line; The centre line; The 23-metre lines (approximately quarter-way marks). Goals are 3.66 metres wide and 2.14 metres tall. Field hockey pitches used in international competitions (including the Olympics) are typically made of water-based or sand-based artificial turf. The dimensions are standardized by the International Hockey Federation (FIH).
Option (a) 80 m — Incorrect: 80 metres is not the standard length of a field hockey pitch; the correct length is 91.4 metres (100 yards).
Option (c) 100 m — Incorrect: 100 metres is the length of an athletics track (sprint) and close to the length of a football/soccer pitch; a field hockey pitch is 91.4 metres .
Option (d) 105 m — Incorrect: 105 metres is the maximum length of a standard football (soccer) pitch as per FIFA regulations; a field hockey pitch is shorter at 91.4 metres .

Correct Answer: Jahangir — Option (d)
Mughal Emperor Jahangir (1569-1627) mentioned the role of the Banjaras in transporting grain in his memoirs, the Tuzuk - i -Jahangiri (also called Jahangirnama ). The Banjaras were a nomadic trading community who served as the primary grain carriers and transport merchants in medieval India. They were known for their enormous caravans of thousands of bullocks loaded with grain, salt, and other commodities. During the Mughal period, the Banjaras were crucial to the military logistics, supplying grain to armies on the move. They travelled across the subcontinent, playing an essential role in maintaining the food supply chain of the Mughal empire.
Option (a) Babur — Incorrect: Babur's memoirs ( Baburnama ) focus on his conquests and observations of Hindustan; the specific mention of Banjaras' role in grain transport in Mughal memoirs is attributed to Jahangir.
Option (b) Humayun — Incorrect: Humayun's memoir ( Humayunnama , written by his sister Gulbadan Begum) focuses on court life and events; the reference to Banjaras in grain transport is from Jahangir's memoirs.
Option (c) Sher Shah Suri — Incorrect: Sher Shah Suri (1540-45) was an Afghan ruler who briefly displaced the Mughals; he is known for administrative reforms, but the memoir mentioning Banjaras' grain transport role belongs to Jahangir.

Correct Answer: When it is in the direction of velocity — Option (c)
Acceleration is a vector quantity (has both magnitude and direction). Acceleration is considered positive when it acts in the same direction as the velocity (or in the positive direction of motion). This means the object is speeding up — its speed is increasing. For example, if a car moves in the positive x-direction and its engine accelerates it forward, the acceleration is positive. Mathematically, if the velocity vector and acceleration vector point in the same direction, the acceleration is positive. This causes the speed to increase over time (positive rate of change of speed).
Option (a) When it is opposite to velocity — Incorrect: When acceleration is opposite to velocity (anti-parallel), it is called negative acceleration or retardation/deceleration; the object slows down.
Option (b) When velocity is decreasing — Incorrect: Decreasing velocity means deceleration/retardation, which corresponds to negative acceleration (acceleration opposing the direction of motion).
Option (d) When the object is at rest — Incorrect: An object at rest has zero velocity; it may have positive, negative, or zero acceleration depending on the net force acting on it. Being at rest alone does not define positive acceleration.

Correct Answer: 58 days — Option (b)
Calculation: Distance = 1 AU = 150,000,000 km; Speed = 30 km/s
Time = Distance / Speed = 150,000,000 km ÷ 30 km/s = 5,000,000 seconds
Converting to days: 5,000,000 ÷ 86,400 (seconds per day) ≈ 57.87 days ≈ 58 days
1 AU (Astronomical Unit) = approximately 150 million km, which is the average distance between the Earth and the Sun. For context, the New Horizons spacecraft (fastest man-made object at the time) travelled at about 16.26 km/s. The Parker Solar Probe has reached speeds of over 160 km/s at perihelion. At 30 km/s, it would take approximately 58 days to travel 1 AU.
Option (a) 15 days — Incorrect: At 30 km/s, the spacecraft would need approximately 58 days to cover 150 million km; 15 days would require a speed of about 115.7 km/s.
Option (c) 100 days — Incorrect: At 30 km/s, the correct time is approximately 58 days; 100 days would imply a speed of only ~17.4 km/s.
Option (d) 365 days — Incorrect: At 30 km/s, a spacecraft would cover 1 AU in about 58 days, not 365 days; 365 days would imply a speed of only ~4.76 km/s.

Correct Answer: Efficiency of the judicial system in resolving commercial disputes — Option (c)
The 'Enforcing Contracts' indicator in the World Bank's Ease of Doing Business (EODB) index measures the time, cost, and quality of processes for resolving a commercial dispute through the court system. Specifically, it measures: Time (in calendar days) to resolve a commercial dispute; Cost (as a percentage of the claim value) including court fees and attorney fees; and Quality of judicial processes index — which assesses court structure, case management, automation, and alternative dispute resolution (ADR) mechanisms. This indicator reflects how efficiently the judicial system handles commercial (business-to-business) disputes, which is crucial for business confidence and investment decisions.
Option (a) Implementation of labor regulations — Incorrect: Labor regulations and their implementation are measured by the 'Labor Market Regulation' indicator, not 'Enforcing Contracts'.
Option (b) Ease of paying and managing taxes — Incorrect: Tax-related compliance is measured by the 'Paying Taxes' indicator in the EODB framework; 'Enforcing Contracts' focuses on commercial dispute resolution.
Option (d) Effectiveness of law enforcement agencies — Incorrect: Law enforcement effectiveness is not measured by the 'Enforcing Contracts' EODB indicator; that indicator specifically measures the judicial system's efficiency in resolving commercial disputes.

Correct Answer: 2021 — Option (b)
India assumed the BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa) Chairship in 2021, taking over from Russia (which held the chairship in 2020). Under India's BRICS Chairship 2021, the theme was 'BRICS@15: Intra-BRICS Cooperation for Continuity, Consolidation and Consensus.' The 13th BRICS Summit was held virtually in September 2021, chaired by PM Narendra Modi. India's priorities during its BRICS Chairship included multilateralism reform, counter-terrorism, use of digital and technological tools for sustainable development, and people-to-people cooperation. India has previously held the BRICS Chairship in 2012 and 2016 as well.
Option (a) 2020 — Incorrect: Russia held the BRICS Chairship in 2020 (theme: 'BRICS Partnership for Global Stability, Shared Security and Innovative Growth'); India took over in 2021.
Option (c) 2022 — Incorrect: China held the BRICS Chairship in 2022 (theme: 'Foster High-quality BRICS Partnership, Usher in a New Era for Global Development'); India chaired in 2021.
Option (d) 2023 — Incorrect: South Africa held the BRICS Chairship in 2023 (the Johannesburg Summit where 6 new members were invited to join); India chaired in 2021.

Correct Answer: They restricted economies of scale and technological upgrading — Option (d)
The small-scale industry (SSI) reservation policy in India (which reserved certain products exclusively for manufacture in small-scale units) had the primary drawback of restricting economies of scale and technological upgrading. Since SSIs were kept small by definition (with investment limits in plant and machinery), they could not: Adopt modern large-scale machinery and technology; Benefit from economies of scale (lower per-unit costs at higher production volumes); Upgrade to capital-intensive, technologically advanced production methods; Compete effectively in global markets requiring large volumes and consistent quality. This policy was gradually dismantled after 1991 economic reforms, as it was recognized as hampering India's industrial competitiveness. The number of reserved items was progressively reduced from over 800 to zero by 2015.
Option (a) They encouraged monopoly power — Incorrect: SSI reservation policies actually prevented large firms from entering reserved sectors; monopoly power is more associated with the lack of competition, not SSI reservation specifically.
Option (b) They eliminated export opportunities — Incorrect: While SSI policies affected export competitiveness, the primary and most significant drawback was the restriction on achieving economies of scale and technology adoption, not the elimination of export opportunities per se.
Option (c) They excluded rural entrepreneurs — Incorrect: SSI reservation policies were not specifically aimed at rural vs. urban entrepreneurs; both could set up small-scale units. The key drawback was the restriction on scale and technology.

Correct Answer: Harrod-Domar model — Option (b)
The First Five-Year Plan (1951-1956) was based on the Harrod-Domar model of economic growth, developed by economists Roy Harrod (British) and Evsey Domar (American). The model emphasizes that the rate of economic growth depends on the level of saving (as a proportion of national income) and the capital-output ratio (productivity of capital). In simple terms: Growth Rate = Savings Rate ÷ Capital-Output Ratio. The First Plan focused on agriculture, irrigation, and power, emphasizing the need to increase savings and channel them into productive investment to achieve growth. The plan was drafted primarily by K. N. Raj under the guidance of Prime Minister Nehru.
Option (a) Solow model — Incorrect: The Solow growth model (Robert Solow, 1956) emphasizes technological progress and total factor productivity as the engine of long-run growth; it was not the basis for India's First Five-Year Plan.
Option (c) Keynesian model — Incorrect: The Keynesian model focuses on aggregate demand management through government expenditure; while Keynesian ideas influenced Indian planning, the specific model used for the First Plan was the Harrod-Domar model.
Option (d) Mahalanobis model — Incorrect: The Mahalanobis model (developed by P.C. Mahalanobis ) was used for the Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961), which focused on heavy industrialization; the First Plan used the Harrod-Domar model.

Correct Answer: Urban infrastructure and water supply — Option (d)
AMRUT (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation) was launched by the Government of India in June 2015 with the goal of providing basic urban infrastructure services to improve the quality of life, especially for the urban poor. The key objectives of AMRUT include: Ensuring every household has access to a tap with assured supply of water and a sewerage connection; Increasing the amenity value of cities by developing greenery and well-maintained open spaces (parks); Reducing pollution by switching to public transport or constructing facilities for non- motorised transport; Making governance transparent, improving urban local bodies' capacity. AMRUT 2.0 was launched in 2021 with an enhanced focus on making cities water-secure. The scheme covered 500 cities/towns with a total outlay of ₹50,000 crore.
Option (a) Promote digital services — Incorrect: Digital services promotion is covered under schemes like Digital India and Smart Cities Mission; AMRUT focuses on urban physical infrastructure (water supply, sewerage, transportation).
Option (b) Expand rural employment — Incorrect: Rural employment is addressed through schemes like MGNREGS (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme); AMRUT is specifically an urban mission.
Option (c) Enhance agricultural marketing — Incorrect: Agricultural marketing is addressed through schemes like eNAM (National Agriculture Market); AMRUT's mandate is urban infrastructure, particularly water supply and sewerage.

Correct Answer: EXIM Bank — Option (b)
The Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank) is the premier financial institution for coordinating the working of institutions engaged in financing exports and imports of India. It was established on January 1, 1982 under the Export-Import Bank of India Act, 1981, as a wholly owned Government of India undertaking. EXIM Bank provides: Pre-shipment and post-shipment export financing; Buyer's credit and supplier's credit for Indian exporters; Lines of credit to overseas financial institutions; Project finance for Indian companies setting up overseas ventures; Guarantees and other services for importers and exporters. EXIM Bank plays a key role in promoting India's international trade and investment.
Option (a) NABARD — Incorrect: NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) provides finance and development support for agriculture and rural areas; it does not specialize in export-import finance.
Option (c) World Bank — Incorrect: The World Bank is an international financial institution providing loans and grants to developing nations for capital programs; it is not India's primary institution for supporting export-import activities.
Option (d) SIDBI — Incorrect: SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India) provides finance and development support to micro, small and medium enterprises (MSMEs); while it supports export-oriented MSMEs, the lead institution for India's export-import activities is EXIM Bank.

Correct Answer: Brahmachari — Option (b)
In the Hindu concept of Ashrama Dharma (the four stages of life), Brahmacharya is the FIRST stage — the student stage. A person in this stage is called a Brahmachari (male) or Brahmacharini (female). During this stage, a young person lives in the guru's home (gurukul), studies the scriptures (Vedas), learns disciplines, practices celibacy and self-control, and prepares for adult life. This stage typically lasts from around age 5-8 until the early to mid-twenties. The four Ashramas are: 1. Brahmacharya (Student stage), 2. Grihastha (Householder stage), 3. Vanaprastha (Forest dweller/Retired stage), 4. Sannyasa (Renunciant/Ascetic stage).
Option (a) Vanaprastha — Incorrect: Vanaprastha is the THIRD Ashrama — the 'forest dweller' or retired stage, when a person gradually withdraws from worldly duties and begins spiritual preparation.
Option (c) Sannyasin — Incorrect: Sannyasa is the FOURTH Ashrama — the stage of complete renunciation of worldly life, possessions, and attachments to pursue spiritual liberation (moksha).
Option (d) Grihastha — Incorrect: Grihastha is the SECOND Ashrama — the householder stage, when a person marries, raises a family, and fulfils their social and economic duties in society.

Correct Answer: 12% — Option (a)
According to the report by Prime Minister's Economic Advisory Council (EAC-PM), the number of domestic migrants in India declined by nearly 12% between 2011 and 2023. This decline in domestic migration reflects improvements in economic conditions in rural and semi-urban areas, suggesting that development has become more geographically widespread. Factors contributing to this decline include: better job opportunities in home states/regions, improved rural infrastructure and connectivity, expansion of MGNREGS and other rural employment programmes , increasing urbanization of smaller towns, and digital connectivity reducing the need for physical relocation for certain types of work.
Option (b) 9% — Incorrect: The EAC-PM report stated a decline of nearly 12%, not 9%, in the number of domestic migrants between 2011 and 2023.
Option (c) 15% — Incorrect: The correct figure from the EAC-PM report for the decline in domestic migrants between 2011 and 2023 is approximately 12%, not 15%.
Option (d) 21% — Incorrect: 21% significantly overestimates the reported decline; the EAC-PM report indicated a reduction of approximately 12% in domestic migrants over the 2011-2023 period.

Correct Answer: Bahadur Shah Zafar — Option (a)
During the Revolt of 1857 (also called the First War of Independence or the Sepoy Mutiny), after the soldiers of the Meerut Regiment revolted on May 10, 1857, they marched to Delhi on May 11, 1857, and wanted to hand over the rule of the country to Bahadur Shah Zafar II — the last Mughal Emperor. They proclaimed him as the Emperor of Hindustan and the symbolic leader of the rebellion. Bahadur Shah Zafar, who was already 82 years old and a pensioner of the British East India Company, reluctantly accepted. He became the nominal head of the revolt. After the British suppressed the rebellion, Bahadur Shah Zafar was tried, exiled to Rangoon (Burma), and died there in 1862.
Option (b) Peshwa Baji Rao II — Incorrect: Peshwa Baji Rao II died in 1851 (before the 1857 revolt). His adopted son Nana Saheb was associated with the Kanpur (Cawnpore) uprising, not the Meerut revolt.
Option (c) Nana Saheb — Incorrect: Nana Saheb ( Dhondu Pant) led the revolt in Kanpur and proclaimed himself Peshwa; the rebel soldiers of Meerut specifically marched to Delhi to hand power to Bahadur Shah Zafar.
Option (d) Rani Lakshmibai — Incorrect: Rani Lakshmibai of Jhansi was a prominent figure in the 1857 revolt in the Jhansi region; the Meerut soldiers specifically chose to hand power to Bahadur Shah Zafar, the last Mughal Emperor.