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SSC GD 2026 9 May 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 19 GK / GS questions asked in SSC GD 2026 on 9 May 2026 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Polity, Geography, Static GK, Economics, Medieval History, Current Affairs.

📚 19 questions🗓️ 9 May 2026⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Polity (3) · Geography (1) · Static GK (4) · Economics (2) · Medieval History (1) · Current Affairs (5) · Ancient History (1) · Biology (1) · Physics (1)

Polity (3)

Constitutional Development and Making · Borrowed features - sources of the Constitution

Q1. The Directive Principles of State Policy were borrowed from which of the following?

  1. (a) United Kingdom
  2. (b) Canada
  3. (c) United States of America
  4. (d) Ireland
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ireland

Correct Answer: Ireland — Option (d)
The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), enshrined in Part IV (Articles 36–51) of the Indian Constitution, were borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland ( Bunreacht na hÉireann , 1937). The concept was first developed in the Spanish Constitution of 1931 and then adopted by Ireland in 1937. India's framers, particularly Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, incorporated this concept to lay down socio-economic goals for the state. DPSPs are non-justiciable (cannot be enforced in a court of law) but are fundamental in governance and serve as guidelines for the state while making laws and policies.
Option (a) United Kingdom — Incorrect: From the UK, India borrowed the Parliamentary system of government, Rule of Law, bicameral legislature, and the Cabinet system — not DPSP.
Option (b) Canada — Incorrect: From Canada, India borrowed the federal system with a strong centre , residuary powers with the Union, and the appointment of State Governors by the Centre.
Option (c) United States of America — Incorrect: From the USA, India borrowed Fundamental Rights, judicial review, independence of judiciary, impeachment of the President, and the preamble's idea — not DPSP.
State Government · Legislative Council - creation and abolition

Q2. Which of the following states has a bicameral legislature?

  1. (a) Haryana
  2. (b) Rajasthan
  3. (c) Himachal Pradesh
  4. (d) Bihar
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bihar

Correct Answer: Bihar — Option (d)
Bihar has a bicameral (two-house) state legislature, consisting of the Vidhan Sabha (Legislative Assembly — lower house) and the Vidhan Parishad (Legislative Council — upper house). Under Article 168 of the Constitution, some states may have a bicameral legislature. States with Vidhan Parishad include Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, and Bihar. Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, and Rajasthan have unicameral legislatures with only the Vidhan Sabha.
Option (a) Haryana — Incorrect: Haryana has a unicameral legislature — only the Vidhan Sabha. It does not have a Vidhan Parishad.
Option (b) Rajasthan — Incorrect: Rajasthan has a unicameral legislature — only the Vidhan Sabha. While there have been legislative discussions about creating a Vidhan Parishad, at the time of this exam, Rajasthan had a unicameral legislature.
Option (c) Himachal Pradesh — Incorrect: Himachal Pradesh has a unicameral legislature — only the Vidhan Sabha. It does not have a Vidhan Parishad.
Union Executive · President - impeachment and succession

Q3. How many members of Parliament are required to initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India?

  1. (a) 100 from Lok Sabha
  2. (b) 50 from Rajya Sabha
  3. (c) One-fourth of the total membership of either House
  4. (d) Half of the total membership
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) One-fourth of the total membership of either House

Correct Answer: One-fourth of the total membership of either House — Option (c)
Under Article 61 of the Indian Constitution, the President of India can be impeached for violation of the Constitution. To initiate impeachment proceedings: A resolution to prefer charges against the President must be signed by not less than one-fourth (1/4) of the total membership of the House (either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha). A 14-day advance notice must be given to the President before the resolution is moved. The resolution must be passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds (2/3) of the total membership of the House where it was introduced. It is then sent to the other House, which investigates the charges. If the other House also passes the resolution by 2/3 majority, the President stands impeached.
Option (a) 100 from Lok Sabha — Incorrect: The requirement is one-fourth of total membership of EITHER house (not a fixed number like 100 specifically from Lok Sabha).
Option (b) 50 from Rajya Sabha — Incorrect: The requirement is one-fourth of total membership of either House; 50 from Rajya Sabha alone is not the correct constitutional requirement.
Option (d) Half of the total membership — Incorrect: Half (1/2) of total membership is the quorum/majority required for passing certain bills, not for initiating impeachment; impeachment initiation requires one-fourth (1/4) of total membership.

Geography (1)

India - Population and Census · Workforce composition and work participation

Q4. In the Indian Census, the working population is classified into which of the following three categories?

  1. (a) Main workers, Marginal workers, and Non-workers
  2. (b) Agricultural, Industrial, and Service workers
  3. (c) Organised , Unorganised , and Unemployed
  4. (d) Rural, Urban, and Migrant workers
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Main workers, Marginal workers, and Non-workers

Correct Answer: Main workers, Marginal workers, and Non-workers — Option (a)
In the Indian Census, the total population is classified into workers and non-workers, and workers are further categorised as: (1) Main Workers — those who have worked for the major part of the year (6 months or 183 days or more) in any economically productive activity; (2) Marginal Workers — those who have worked for less than 6 months (fewer than 183 days) during the reference year; (3) Non-Workers — those who did not participate in any economically productive activity (e.g., housewives engaged only in household duties, students, dependants , retirees). Main workers are further sub-classified into cultivators, agricultural labourers , workers in household industries, and other workers.
Option (b) Agricultural, Industrial, and Service workers — Incorrect: This is an economic sector-based classification (primary, secondary, tertiary), not the Census classification of workers.
Option (c) Organised , Unorganised , and Unemployed — Incorrect: This is a labour market classification based on formal/informal sector; it is not the Census classification.
Option (d) Rural, Urban, and Migrant workers — Incorrect: This is a geographical/location-based classification; the Indian Census classifies workers by duration of work (Main, Marginal, Non-workers), not by rural/urban location.

Static GK (4)

Organisations and Headquarters · Indian organisations and headquarters

Q5. Which of the following Acts created a separate authority
for food safety in India?

  1. (a) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
  2. (b) National Food Security Act, 2013
  3. (c) Competition Act, 2002
  4. (d) Consumer Protection Act, 2019
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006

Correct Answer: Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 — Option (a)
The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 established the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) as an independent statutory body for regulating food safety and standards in India. FSSAI is responsible for setting science-based standards for food articles, regulating their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale, and import, and ensuring the availability of safe food for human consumption. FSSAI replaced multiple earlier food-related laws and bodies (Prevention of Food Adulteration Act 1954, Fruit Products Order 1955, etc.) with a single, unified regulatory framework.
Option (b) National Food Security Act, 2013 — Incorrect: The NFSA 2013 ensures subsidised food grain entitlements for eligible beneficiaries (PDS); it did not create a separate food safety regulatory authority.
Option (c) Competition Act, 2002 — Incorrect: The Competition Act, 2002 established the Competition Commission of India (CCI) to regulate anti-competitive practices; it has nothing to do with food safety.
Option (d) Consumer Protection Act, 2019 — Incorrect: The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 established the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA); it deals with consumer rights broadly, not specifically food safety regulation.

Q6. ' Laru Kaj' is a traditional festival celebrated by which community in Madhya Pradesh?

  1. (a) Bhil
  2. (b) Baiga
  3. (c) Gond
  4. (d) Sahariya
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Gond

Correct Answer: Gond — Option (c)
Laru Kaj (also spelled ' Laaru Kaaj') is a traditional post-death memorial feast/ritual celebrated by the Gond tribal community in Madhya Pradesh and surrounding regions of central India. 'Kaj' means feast or ritual ceremony in Gondi language. After a death in the Gond family, after a certain period (often one year), the family organizes this elaborate feast to honour the deceased person's soul and to officially end the mourning period. The Gonds are one of the largest tribal communities in India and have a rich cultural tradition of such community rituals.
Option (a) Bhil — Incorrect: The Bhils are a major tribal community primarily from Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Madhya Pradesh, but Laru Kaj is specifically associated with the Gond community.
Option (b) Baiga — Incorrect: The Baiga tribe (found in Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh) have their own cultural traditions and festivals, but Laru Kaj is a Gond festival.
Option (d) Sahariya — Incorrect: The Sahariya are a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) found in Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan; Laru Kaj is not their festival — it belongs to the Gond community.
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q7. When was the first Indian Open Golf Championship organised ?

  1. (a) 1964
  2. (b) 1978
  3. (c) 1955
  4. (d) 1999
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1964

Correct Answer: 1964 — Option (a)
The first Indian Open Golf Championship (also known as the Hero Indian Open) was organised in 1964. The Indian Open is one of Asia's most prestigious golf tournaments and has been played at various courses in India. It is sanctioned by the Asian Tour and the European Tour (now DP World Tour). The tournament has a rich history spanning over 60 years and has featured many international and Indian golf legends. Venues have included the Delhi Golf Club (Royal Delhi Golf Club), Jaypee Greens Golf Course (Greater Noida), and others.
Option (b) 1978 — Incorrect: The first Indian Open Golf Championship was held in 1964, not 1978.
Option (c) 1955 — Incorrect: The Indian Open Golf Championship started in 1964, not 1955.
Option (d) 1999 — Incorrect: The tournament was first organised in 1964; 1999 is not the correct year.
Sports · Sports schemes and campaigns (Khelo India, Fit India)

Q8. In India, the RESET (Re-Empowering Sports Elites through Training) programme was started in _____.

  1. (a) 2021
  2. (b) 2020
  3. (c) 2024
  4. (d) 2023
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2024

Correct Answer: 2024 — Option (c)
The RESET (Re-Empowering Sports Elites through Training) programme was started in India in 2024. The programme was launched by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports to help retired/former elite sportspersons (athletes who have represented India at national/international level) transition into second careers. The programme offers coaching, skill development, entrepreneurship training, and career guidance to former athletes, enabling them to utilise their sporting experience and discipline in various fields including coaching, sports management, entrepreneurship, media, and public service.
Option (a) 2021 — Incorrect: The RESET programme was not started in 2021; it was launched in 2024.
Option (b) 2020 — Incorrect: The RESET programme was not started in 2020; it was launched in 2024.
Option (d) 2023 — Incorrect: The RESET programme was started in 2024, not 2023.

Economics (2)

Agriculture and Food Security · Green Revolution and other agricultural revolutions

Q9. In India, during the Green Revolution, high-yielding variety seeds of _____ were used.

  1. (a) Rice and Wheat
  2. (b) Sugarcane and Tea
  3. (c) Jowar and Bajra
  4. (d) Mustard and Ragi
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Rice and Wheat

Correct Answer: Rice and Wheat — Option (a)
The Green Revolution in India (mid-1960s to 1970s) was primarily based on the introduction and adoption of High-Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds of Rice and Wheat. The revolution was spearheaded by Dr. M.S. Swaminathan (Indian agricultural scientist, known as the 'Father of the Green Revolution in India') along with the support of Norman Borlaug (who developed dwarf wheat varieties and won the Nobel Peace Prize in 1970). The new HYV seeds, combined with increased use of fertilizers, pesticides, and irrigation, led to a dramatic increase in food grain production — making India self-sufficient in food grains and transforming it from a food-deficit to a food-surplus country.
Option (b) Sugarcane and Tea — Incorrect: The Green Revolution focused on staple food grains (rice and wheat), not cash crops like sugarcane or plantation crops like tea.
Option (c) Jowar and Bajra — Incorrect: While HYV seeds for millets were developed later, the primary Green Revolution was centred on Rice and Wheat, not coarse cereals like Jowar and Bajra.
Option (d) Mustard and Ragi — Incorrect: These crops were not the primary focus of the Green Revolution; the revolution was built on HYV seeds of Rice and Wheat.
National Income · GDP, GNP, NDP and NNP

Q10. In the context of the Indian economy, which of the following statements about Personal Disposable Income (PDI) is correct?

  1. (a) PDI = Personal Income − Personal Tax Payments + Non-tax Payments
  2. (b) PDI = Personal Income − Personal Tax Payments − Non-tax Payments
  3. (c) PDI = National Income − Personal Tax Payments + Non-tax Payments
  4. (d) PDI = National Income − Personal Tax Payments − Non-tax Payments
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) PDI = Personal Income − Personal Tax Payments − Non-tax Payments

Correct Answer: PDI = Personal Income − Personal Tax Payments − Non-tax Payments — Option (b)
Personal Disposable Income (PDI) is the income available to individuals and households for final consumption expenditure and saving, after all mandatory deductions. The formula is: PDI = Personal Income (PI) − Personal Tax Payments − Non-tax Payments. Personal Tax Payments include income tax, wealth tax, gift tax, etc. Non-tax Payments include fees paid to the government (court fees, registration fees, fines, penalties, etc.). PDI represents the actual spending power in the hands of individuals after fulfilling all obligatory payments to the government.
Option (a) PDI = Personal Income − Personal Tax Payments + Non-tax Payments — Incorrect: Non-tax payments should be subtracted (not added); they are payments made FROM income, reducing disposable income.
Option (c) PDI = National Income − Personal Tax Payments + Non-tax Payments — Incorrect: PDI is calculated from Personal Income (not National Income), and non-tax payments should be subtracted, not added.
Option (d) PDI = National Income − Personal Tax Payments − Non-tax Payments — Incorrect: PDI is derived from Personal Income, not National Income. National Income includes corporate income, government income, etc., whereas PDI relates only to income received by individuals/households.

Medieval History (1)

South Indian Kingdoms · Cholas - rulers and administration

Q11. With reference to different categories of land mentioned in Chola
inscriptions, which of the following pairs is correct?
I. Shalabhoga — Land set apart for maintenance of schools.
II. Devadana , Tirunamattukkani — Land gifted to temples.

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Correct Answer: Both I and II — Option (c)
Chola inscriptions (from the 9th–13th centuries CE) mention several categories of land with specific purposes: Shalabhoga (also ' Salabhoga ') refers to land set apart for the maintenance of schools ( Salaas /Salais). The revenue from such land was used to fund educational institutions. Devadana (literally 'gift to God') refers to land donated to temples for their maintenance. Tirunamattukkani is another term for temple land (land given as a religious gift). Both statements (I and II) are accurate descriptions of these Chola land categories as documented in their inscriptions and supported by historical scholarship on South Indian temple economies and administration.
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: Statement II is also correct — Devadana and Tirunamattukkani do refer to land gifted to temples in Chola inscriptions.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: Statement I is also correct — Shalabhoga does refer to land set apart for school maintenance in Chola inscriptions.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Both statements are historically accurate descriptions of Chola land categories.

Current Affairs (5)

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q12. In November 2024, who launched the 'Bal Vivah Mukt Bharat'
(Child Marriage Free India) campaign?

  1. (a) Smriti Irani
  2. (b) Amit Shah
  3. (c) Narendra Modi
  4. (d) Annapurna Devi
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Annapurna Devi

Correct Answer: Annapurna Devi — Option (d)
Annapurna Devi, Union Minister for Women and Child Development, launched the 'Bal Vivah Mukt Bharat' (Child Marriage Free India) campaign in November 2024. The campaign was launched with the aim of making India free from the social evil of child marriage. It involved awareness drives, community mobilisation , and engagement with state governments, NGOs, and local bodies to prevent child marriages across India. The initiative aligned with the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 and India's commitment to Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 5.3 — eliminating child marriage by 2030.
Option (a) Smriti Irani — Incorrect: Smriti Irani served as Union Minister for Women and Child Development in an earlier government; the 'Bal Vivah Mukt Bharat' campaign was launched by Annapurna Devi in November 2024.
Option (b) Amit Shah — Incorrect: Amit Shah is the Union Home Minister ; the 'Bal Vivah Mukt Bharat' campaign was launched by the Women and Child Development Minister Annapurna Devi.
Option (c) Narendra Modi — Incorrect: PM Narendra Modi has championed various social welfare programmes , but the 'Bal Vivah Mukt Bharat' campaign was specifically launched by Minister Annapurna Devi.
Environment and Climate - Current · New protected areas and Ramsar sites

Q13. Which of the following Tiger Reserves has been notified as the 56th Tiger Reserve of India?

  1. (a) Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve
  2. (b) Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve
  3. (c) Sundarbans Tiger Reserve
  4. (d) Kanha Tiger Reserve
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve

Correct Answer: Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve — Option (a)
Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve in Chhattisgarh was notified as the 56th Tiger Reserve of India. The reserve is located in the Koriya and Surajpur districts of Chhattisgarh and covers a large area encompassing the Guru Ghasidas National Park and Tamor Pingla Wildlife Sanctuary. India's tiger reserves are notified under Project Tiger (now part of the National Tiger Conservation Authority — NTCA). India has significantly increased its tiger population and the number of tiger reserves as part of its conservation efforts, making it the country with the highest tiger population in the world.
Option (b) Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve — Incorrect: Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh is one of the oldest and most renowned tiger reserves but is NOT the 56th Tiger Reserve.
Option (c) Sundarbans Tiger Reserve — Incorrect: Sundarbans Tiger Reserve (West Bengal) is a much older tiger reserve; it was not the 56th notified reserve.
Option (d) Kanha Tiger Reserve — Incorrect: Kanha Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh is one of India's first and most famous tiger reserves; it is not the 56th notified reserve.
International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q14. India and Bhutan organised the 6th Joint Group meeting on customs duty from April 24 to 25, 2025 in _____.

  1. (a) Thimphu
  2. (b) Gandhinagar
  3. (c) Paro
  4. (d) New Delhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Thimphu

Correct Answer: Thimphu — Option (a)
India and Bhutan organised the 6th Joint Group meeting on customs duty in Thimphu, the capital of Bhutan, from April 24 to 25, 2025. The meeting was held to review and strengthen bilateral trade and customs cooperation between the two neighbouring countries. India and Bhutan share a close and special relationship — India is Bhutan's largest trading partner, and the two countries have a free trade agreement. The Joint Group on customs discusses issues related to border trade, customs procedures, anti-smuggling measures, and facilitation of legitimate trade between the two countries.
Option (b) Gandhinagar — Incorrect: Gandhinagar is the capital of Gujarat, India; the India-Bhutan Joint Group customs meeting was held in Thimphu, Bhutan.
Option (c) Paro — Incorrect: Paro is a city in Bhutan (home to the international airport) but the meeting was held in Thimphu, Bhutan's capital.
Option (d) New Delhi — Incorrect: New Delhi is India's capital; the 6th India-Bhutan Joint Group customs meeting was held in Thimphu (Bhutan), not New Delhi.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q15. Which country ranked first in the Energy Transition Index 2025?

  1. (a) Sweden
  2. (b) Finland
  3. (c) Denmark
  4. (d) USA
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sweden

Correct Answer: Sweden — Option (a)
Sweden ranked first in the Energy Transition Index (ETI) 2025, published by the World Economic Forum (WEF). The Energy Transition Index measures countries on their energy systems' performance and readiness to transition to a secure, sustainable, affordable, and inclusive energy future. Sweden has consistently topped or ranked very high in the ETI due to its high share of renewable energy (hydropower, wind, bioenergy), strong energy security, low carbon electricity grid, high energy efficiency, and robust policy and regulatory environment. Sweden has one of the lowest carbon footprints per unit of electricity generated among developed nations.
Option (b) Finland — Incorrect: Finland ranks very high in the ETI but was not ranked first in the 2025 edition; Sweden topped the index.
Option (c) Denmark — Incorrect: Denmark is a global leader in wind energy and clean energy transition and consistently ranks high in the ETI, but was not ranked first in 2025.
Option (d) USA — Incorrect: The USA has a large and complex energy system; it does not rank first in the Energy Transition Index, which is typically led by Scandinavian/Nordic countries.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · National indices and rankings

Q16. In the North-East Region District SDG Index 2023-24, all districts of which of the following states were classified as 'Front Runner'?
I. Sikkim II. Mizoram

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Correct Answer: Both I and II — Option (c)
In the North-East Region District SDG (Sustainable Development Goals) Index 2023-24, all districts of both Sikkim (Statement I) and Mizoram (Statement II) were classified as 'Front Runner' states. The SDG Index classifies districts into categories: Achiever (score 100), Front Runner (score 65–99), Performer (score 50–64), and Aspirant (score below 50). Sikkim and Mizoram — being smaller, better-governed states in the North-East — achieved this distinction of having ALL their districts in the 'Front Runner' category, reflecting strong performance across key SDG indicators like health, education, clean energy, and livelihoods.
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: Both Sikkim AND Mizoram had all their districts classified as 'Front Runner'; not just Sikkim.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: Both Sikkim AND Mizoram qualified, not just Mizoram.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: Both Sikkim and Mizoram did have all districts classified as 'Front Runner' in the NER District SDG Index 2023-24.

Ancient History (1)

Indus Valley Civilisation · Artefacts and findings

Q17. The famous bronze 'Dancing Girl' statue was discovered in _____.

  1. (a) Lothal
  2. (b) Chanhu- daro
  3. (c) Mohenjo-daro
  4. (d) Ropar
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Mohenjo-daro

Correct Answer: Mohenjo-daro — Option (c)
The famous bronze 'Dancing Girl' statue was discovered at Mohenjo-daro, one of the major urban centres of the Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC), located in present-day Sindh, Pakistan. It was discovered in 1926 by British archaeologist Ernest Mackay. The figurine (about 10.8 cm tall) depicts a young woman in a confident, relaxed pose — with her right hand on her hip and wearing bangles. It was cast using the lost-wax (cire perdue) technique, demonstrating the advanced metallurgical skills of the IVC. The original statue is now housed in the National Museum, New Delhi.
Option (a) Lothal — Incorrect: Lothal (in present-day Gujarat) is another important IVC site known for its dockyard and bead-making industry; the Dancing Girl was not found there.
Option (b) Chanhu- daro — Incorrect: Chanhu- daro (in present-day Pakistan) is an IVC site known for bead-making and bronze tools, but the Dancing Girl statue was found at Mohenjo-daro.
Option (d) Ropar — Incorrect: Ropar (Rupnagar, in Punjab, India) is an IVC site in independent India; the Dancing Girl statue was discovered at Mohenjo-daro.

Biology (1)

Control and Coordination · Endocrine glands and hormones

Q18. Which brain structure is responsible for releasing the growth hormone-releasing factor in humans?

  1. (a) Hypothalamus
  2. (b) Thyroid gland
  3. (c) Pituitary gland
  4. (d) Thymus gland
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Hypothalamus

Correct Answer: Hypothalamus — Option (a)
The Hypothalamus is the brain structure responsible for releasing Growth Hormone-Releasing Hormone (GHRH), also called Growth Hormone-Releasing Factor (GRF or GHRF). The hypothalamus acts as the master regulator of the endocrine system — it secretes GHRH which travels through the hypophyseal portal system to the anterior pituitary gland, stimulating it to secrete Growth Hormone (GH/Somatotropin). GH then acts on various tissues and organs — promoting protein synthesis, bone growth, and fat metabolism. The hypothalamus also produces GHIH (Growth Hormone-Inhibiting Hormone/Somatostatin) to inhibit GH release.
Option (b) Thyroid gland — Incorrect: The thyroid gland secretes thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3); it does not release growth hormone-releasing factor.
Option (c) Pituitary gland — Incorrect: The pituitary gland SECRETES Growth Hormone (GH) in response to GHRH from the hypothalamus — it does not release the releasing factor itself.
Option (d) Thymus gland — Incorrect: The thymus gland (located in the chest) is part of the immune system and produces thymosin hormones for T-cell development; it has no role in growth hormone regulation.

Physics (1)

Sound and Waves · Applications of ultrasound and SONAR

Q19. Which of the following organs of the human body CANNOT be
imaged using ultrasound waves?
I. Liver II. Gallbladder

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Neither I nor II

Correct Answer: Neither I nor II — Option (d)
Both the Liver (Statement I) and Gallbladder (Statement II) CAN be effectively imaged using ultrasound (sonography). Ultrasound imaging (sonography) uses high-frequency sound waves to create images of structures inside the body and is routinely used to image: the Liver (to detect liver diseases, tumours , cirrhosis); the Gallbladder (to detect gallstones — ultrasound is the most preferred investigation for gallstones); kidneys, uterus, ovaries, thyroid, and other soft tissue organs. Since both Liver and Gallbladder can be imaged using ultrasound, 'Neither I nor II' is the correct answer — meaning neither is correct as an organ that CANNOT be imaged by ultrasound.
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: The Liver CAN be imaged by ultrasound; it is routinely used for liver assessment.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: The Gallbladder CAN be imaged by ultrasound; abdominal ultrasound is the gold standard investigation for gallstones.
Option (c) Both I and II — Incorrect: Both organs CAN be imaged by ultrasound; neither the Liver nor the Gallbladder is excluded from ultrasound imaging.
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