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SSC Selection Post 2025 26 July 2025 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 23 GK / GS questions asked in SSC Selection Post 2025 on 26 July 2025 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Economics, Static GK, Physics, Biology, Geography, Polity.

📚 23 questions🗓️ 26 July 2025⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Economics (5) · Static GK (6) · Physics (2) · Biology (1) · Geography (3) · Polity (2) · Medieval History (1) · Current Affairs (3)

Economics (5)

Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Demand, supply and elasticity

Q1. Which of the following is NOT an exception to the 'Law of Demand'?

  1. (a) Giffen goods
  2. (b) Conspicuous goods
  3. (c) Speculative goods
  4. (d) Substitute goods
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Substitute goods

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Substitute goods
The Law of Demand states that as price rises, quantity demanded falls. Exceptions are goods that violate this (demand rises as price rises). Substitute goods are NOT an exception — if the price of one good rises, demand for that good falls (law holds) , and demand shifts to its substitute. The substitute itself also follows the law of demand normally.
Option 1 (Giffen goods): An inferior good where a price rise causes demand to increase — a direct exception to the law of demand (e.g., bread for the poor).
Option 2 (Conspicuous/Veblen goods): Luxury goods consumed for status; demand rises with price because higher price signals greater prestige.
Option 3 (Speculative goods): When buyers expect prices to rise further (e.g., gold, stocks), they buy more even at higher prices — violating the law of demand.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q2. What is a modern trend regarding business licenses?

  1. (a) Increasing the amount of time it takes to get them.
  2. (b) Removing them altogether.
  3. (c) Making them easier to obtain.
  4. (d) Making them impossible to obtain.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Making them easier to obtain.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Making them easier to obtain
A key modern trend globally and in India is simplifying and expediting business licensing under 'Ease of Doing Business' reforms. India's initiatives include single-window clearances, online applications, self-certification, automatic renewals, and removal of obsolete licenses. The World Bank's Ease of Doing Business Index pushed countries toward licensing reforms. India improved significantly in global rankings by streamlining processes.
Option 1 (Increasing time): The opposite — modern reforms aim to cut processing time.
Option 2 (Removing altogether): While some redundant licenses are abolished, necessary ones (safety, health, regulatory) are simplified, not removed entirely.
Option 4 (Making impossible): Directly contrary to modern reform trends worldwide.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Housing, sanitation and rural development schemes

Q3. Which government scheme aims to provide affordable housing to the urban poor and economically weaker sections?

  1. (a) Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT)
  2. (b) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Urban (PMAY-U)
  3. (c) Smart Cities Mission
  4. (d) Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Urban Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NULM)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Urban (PMAY-U)

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Urban (PMAY-U)
PMAY-Urban (launched June 2015, 'Housing for All' mission) provides affordable housing to the urban poor — EWS (Economically Weaker Sections), LIG (Low Income Groups), and MIG (Middle Income Groups) — through four verticals: In-situ Slum Redevelopment, Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS), Affordable Housing in Partnership, and Beneficiary-led Construction.
Option 1 (AMRUT): Focuses on urban infrastructure — water supply, sewerage, parks, and transport in select cities; not specifically housing for the poor.
Option 3 (Smart Cities Mission): Aims to develop 100 smart cities with advanced infrastructure and services; not a housing scheme for EWS/LIG.
Option 4 (DAY-NULM): Reduces urban poverty through self-employment, skill training, and social mobilization; not housing.
Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Poverty alleviation and employment programmes (MGNREGA, etc.)

Q4. The National Rural Employment Programme (NREP) was initiated in the ________ Five-Year Plan.

  1. (a) Fifth
  2. (b) Sixth
  3. (c) Seventh
  4. (d) Eighth
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sixth

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Sixth
The National Rural Employment Programme (NREP) was launched in October 1980, at the start of the Sixth Five-Year Plan (1980–85) under the Indira Gandhi government. NREP aimed to provide additional gainful employment to rural poor during lean agricultural seasons through creation of durable community assets (roads, irrigation, schools). It later merged with RLEGP in 1989 to form Jawahar Rozgar Yojana.
Option 1 (Fifth): The Fifth Plan (1974–79) had other rural employment schemes (SFDA, MFAL); NREP was not launched then.
Option 3 (Seventh): Seventh Plan (1985–90) continued NREP but did not initiate it.
Option 4 (Eighth): Eighth Plan (1992–97) was after NREP had already been merged into JRY (1989).
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Indirect taxes and GST

Q5. The 'one nation, one tax' initiative in India refers to:

  1. (a) Income Tax
  2. (b) Corporate Tax
  3. (c) Goods and Services Tax (GST)
  4. (d) Import Duties
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Goods and Services Tax (GST)

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Goods and Services Tax (GST)
Goods and Services Tax (GST), implemented on July 1, 2017, is officially described as the 'One Nation, One Tax, One Market' reform. It replaced over 17 indirect taxes and 23 cesses (Central Excise, Service Tax, VAT, CST, Entertainment Tax, etc.) with a unified tax structure applicable uniformly across India. GST is a destination-based, multi-stage consumption tax with seamless input tax credit.
Option 1 (Income Tax): A direct tax already in force nationally before GST; not the 'One Nation, One Tax' initiative.
Option 2 (Corporate Tax): Another pre-existing direct tax; not the 'One Nation, One Tax' reform.
Option 4 (Import Duties): Customs duties continue separately on imports; GST replaced domestic indirect taxes, not import duties.

Static GK (6)

Space, Defence and Technology · Indian space missions

Q6. Which of the following is the CORRECT objective of ISRO's Gaganyaan mission scheduled for launch in 2025?

  1. (a) Establishing a permanent space station
  2. (b) Sending Indian astronauts into low-Earth orbit
  3. (c) Sending an unmanned rover to the Moon
  4. (d) Launching a solar probe to study the Sun
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sending Indian astronauts into low-Earth orbit

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Sending Indian astronauts into low-Earth orbit
Gaganyaan is India's first crewed human spaceflight mission by ISRO. Its objective is to demonstrate indigenous human spaceflight capability by sending Indian astronauts ( Gaganauts ) to low-Earth orbit (approximately 400 km altitude) for a 3-day mission and safely returning them to Earth. It will make India the fourth nation (after USSR/Russia, USA, and China) to independently launch humans to space.
Option 1 (Permanent space station): India plans a Bharatiya Antariksha Station by 2035, which is a separate future programme ; Gaganyaan is an orbital crewed mission.
Option 3 (Unmanned Moon rover): Lunar rover missions fall under Chandrayaan programme ; Gaganyaan is a human orbital mission.
Option 4 (Solar probe): India's Aditya-L1 is the solar mission (launched 2023); unrelated to Gaganyaan .
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q7. Which of the following is a traditional dance of Kerala?

  1. (a) Theyyam
  2. (b) Dhol Cholom
  3. (c) Giddha
  4. (d) Bhangra
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Theyyam

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Theyyam
Theyyam ( Teyyam ) is a ritualistic folk art form from northern Kerala (Kannur and Kasaragod districts), performed as a form of worship in which the performer embodies a deity or ancestral spirit. It features elaborate costumes, face paint, and towering headdresses. Theyyam is one of Kerala's most important ritual traditions, with over 400 forms documented.
Option 2 ( Dhol Cholom): A traditional drum dance of Manipur, not Kerala.
Option 3 ( Giddha ): A traditional folk dance of women from Punjab; performed at celebrations.
Option 4 (Bhangra): A vibrant harvest folk dance from Punjab, associated with Baisakhi festival; not from Kerala.
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q8. Which of the following situations will result in a point awarded to the defending team in Kabaddi?

  1. (a) The raider tags two defenders and crosses the midline
  2. (b) The raider fails to chant "Kabaddi" during the raid
  3. (c) The raider touches the bonus line without being tackled
  4. (d) The defending team crosses the lobby before contact
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The raider fails to chant "Kabaddi" during the raid

T he correct answer is:The raider fails to chant "Kabaddi" during the raid.
Why this option is correct:
🟢The raider fails to chant "Kabaddi" during the raid: According to the official International Kabaddi Federation (IKF) rules, a raider must maintain a continuous, audible chant of the word "Kabaddi" (known as the "Cant") in a single breath throughout the entire raid. If the raider stops chanting or takes a second breath while in the opponent's half, they are declared "out," and1 point is awarded to the defending team.
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q9. Which of the following best reflects the distinguishing operational philosophy of India's ' Neighbourhood First' policy compared to its 'Act East' policy?

  1. (a) Neighbourhood First targets ASEAN security; Act East delivers SAARC health aid.
  2. (b) Neighbourhood First offers non-reciprocal aid in South Asia; Act East builds strategic ties in Southeast Asia.
  3. (c) Both focus solely on infrastructure in BIMSTEC and QUAD.
  4. (d) Act East builds communities in neighbours ; Neighbourhood First leads Indo-Pacific navies.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Neighbourhood First offers non-reciprocal aid in South Asia; Act East builds strategic ties in Southeast Asia.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Neighbourhood First offers non-reciprocal aid in South Asia; Act East builds strategic ties in Southeast Asia
' Neighbourhood First' policy focuses on immediate South Asian neighbors (Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan, Sri Lanka, Maldives, Myanmar, Afghanistan) through non-reciprocal development assistance — grants, credit lines, power connectivity, water projects — without demanding equivalent returns, fostering goodwill.
'Act East' policy (relaunched 2014) extends India's strategic and economic engagement to ASEAN, East Asia, and the broader Indo-Pacific — through trade agreements (ASEAN FTA), defence partnerships, digital connectivity, and multilateral forums (EAS, Quad).
Option 1: Roles are reversed — Neighbourhood First covers South Asia (not ASEAN security); Act East covers Southeast Asia.
Option 3: Both policies cover far more than infrastructure; neither is limited to BIMSTEC and QUAD alone.
Option 4: The descriptions are inverted and factually inaccurate.
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q10. Consider the following statements regarding recent India-Maldives bilateral developments:
1. India announced a financial assistance package of USD 1.4 billion to Maldives during President Solih's 2018 visit.
2. The 6th Joint Commission Meeting (JCM) in 2019 included signing MoUs between the Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs) of both countries.
3. In 2020, India and Maldives signed an agreement for mutual support in climate risk insurance for island territories.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1 and 3
  2. (b) Only 1 and 2
  3. (c) Only 2 and 3
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3 All are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 1 and 2

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Only 1 and 2
Statement 1 (TRUE): During Maldivian President Ibrahim Mohamed Solih's state visit to India in December 2018, India announced a USD 1.4 billion financial assistance package — including grants, currency swap, and lines of credit — the largest-ever Indian package to Maldives.
Statement 2 (TRUE): The 6th India-Maldives Joint Commission Meeting in 2019 included signing MoUs in multiple areas, including cooperation between the Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs) of both countries for anti-money laundering and countering terrorism financing.
Statement 3 (FALSE): No official record exists of India and Maldives signing a 'climate risk insurance for island territories' agreement in 2020. This specific bilateral agreement is not verifiable in the official record of India-Maldives relations.
Only Statements 1 and 2 are correct — Option 2.
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q11. Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options:
Assertion (A): India: A Million Mutinies Now presents a vivid account of the diverse social and political upheavals across India during the late 20th century.
Reason (R): The book won the Booker Prize for its literary excellence and incisive analysis of postcolonial Indian society.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – A is true, but R is false
Assertion (A) is TRUE: 'India: A Million Mutinies Now' (1990) by V.S. Naipaul is a nonfiction travel narrative presenting vivid accounts of diverse social, religious, political, and cultural upheavals across India during the late 20th century through personal interviews.
Reason (R) is FALSE: The book did NOT win the Booker Prize. V.S. Naipaul won the Booker Prize for 'In a Free State' (1971) — a completely different work. 'India: A Million Mutinies Now' is also a work of nonfiction and travel writing, which is ineligible for the Booker Prize (which is for fiction). Naipaul won the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2001 — not for this specific book.
Since A is true but R is false, the correct answer is Option 3 (C).

Physics (2)

Force and Laws of Motion · Conservation of momentum and recoil

Q12. Which of the following scenarios best illustrates the principle of conservation of momentum?

  1. (a) A ball rolling down a frictionless incline increases its speed.
  2. (b) A car comes to a stop when the brakes are applied due to friction.
  3. (c) When a bullet is fired from a gun, the gun recoils in the opposite direction.
  4. (d) A satellite maintains a stable orbit around the Earth due to gravity.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) When a bullet is fired from a gun, the gun recoils in the opposite direction.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – When a bullet is fired from a gun, the gun recoils in the opposite direction
Conservation of momentum: In the absence of external forces, total momentum of a system remains constant. Initial momentum of gun+bullet system = 0. After firing: bullet gains forward momentum (mv) and gun recoils backward with equal and opposite momentum (-MV), so total momentum remains zero. This is the classic application of Newton's Third Law and conservation of momentum.
Option 1 (Ball on incline): Illustrates conservation of energy (PE → KE) and Newton's Second Law; not momentum conservation.
Option 2 (Car braking): Friction is an external force acting on the car; the presence of external forces means this does NOT illustrate conservation of momentum.
Option 4 (Satellite orbit): Centripetal gravitational force keeps the satellite in orbit; illustrates circular motion dynamics, not conservation of momentum.
Physics Miscellaneous · Scientific instruments and their uses

Q13. Match the atmospheric phenomenon with its primary measurement instrument:
1. Wind Speed
2. Humidity
3. Atmospheric Pressure

  1. (a) 1-Hygrometer, 2-Barometer, 3-Anemometer
  2. (b) 1-Barometer, 2-Anemometer, 3-Hygrometer
  3. (c) 1-Anemometer, 2-Hygrometer, 3-Barometer
  4. (d) 1-Hygrometer, 2-Anemometer, 3-Barometer
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1-Anemometer, 2-Hygrometer, 3-Barometer

Correct Answer: Option 3 – 1-Anemometer, 2-Hygrometer, 3-Barometer
Wind Speed → Anemometer: Measures wind speed (and sometimes direction). The cup anemometer (rotating cups) is most common; rotation rate gives wind speed in km/h or m/s.
Humidity → Hygrometer: Measures atmospheric water vapour content (relative humidity). Types include wet-and-dry-bulb (psychrometer), hair hygrometer, and electronic humidity sensors.
Atmospheric Pressure → Barometer: Measures atmospheric (air) pressure. Mercury barometer (Torricelli) and aneroid barometer are the two main types; used in weather forecasting.
Option 1 (Hygrometer-Barometer-Anemometer): All three instruments are assigned to wrong phenomena.
Option 2 (Barometer-Anemometer-Hygrometer): Incorrect — wind speed and humidity instruments are swapped.
Option 4 (Hygrometer-Anemometer-Barometer): Only atmospheric pressure (3-Barometer) is correct; wind speed and humidity are swapped.

Biology (1)

Control and Coordination · Plant hormones and tropic movements

Q14. The first peptide to be produced after wounding in the tomato plant is ________.

  1. (a) Systemin
  2. (b) Ricin
  3. (c) Jasmonic acid
  4. (d) Saicyclic acid
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Systemin

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Systemin
Systemin is an 18-amino acid peptide hormone discovered in tomato (Solanum lycopersicum ) by Clarence Ryan and Gregory Pearce in 1991. It is the first plant peptide hormone identified as a systemic wound signal. When herbivores wound the plant, systemin is released and travels through the phloem to activate defense genes throughout the plant, triggering production of protease inhibitors that deter further herbivory.
Option 2 (Ricin): A highly toxic protein from castor bean (Ricinus communis); not a wound-response peptide in tomatoes.
Option 3 ( Jasmonic acid): A lipid-derived plant hormone involved in wound signaling — its synthesis is triggered downstream of systemin, but jasmonic acid itself is not a peptide.
Option 4 ( Saicyclic /Salicylic acid): A plant hormone involved in systemic acquired resistance; not the first peptide produced after wounding in tomatoes.

Geography (3)

India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Textile and other industries

Q15. Which of the following products are part of the petrochemical industry in India?
1. Polymers
2. Synthetic fibres
3. Elastomers
4. Surfactant intermediates

  1. (a) 1, 2, and 3 only
  2. (b) 2, 3, and 4 only
  3. (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
  4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: Option 4 – 1, 2, 3 and 4
All four products are part of India's petrochemical industry, which uses petroleum and natural gas-derived hydrocarbons as feedstock:
1. Polymers: Plastics (PET, PP, PE) — core petrochemical products for packaging, automotive, construction.
2. Synthetic fibres : Polyester, nylon, acrylic — produced from petrochemical intermediates like ethylene glycol.
3. Elastomers: Synthetic rubbers (SBR, NBR, EPDM) — petrochemical-derived materials for tyres and industrial applications.
4. Surfactant intermediates: Linear alkylbenzene (LAB) for detergents — also derived from petroleum-based feedstock.
India's Petroleum, Chemicals and Petrochemicals Investment Region (PCPIR) policy covers all these categories. Therefore all four are part of the petrochemical industry.
Lithosphere - Earth's Interior and Landforms · Glacial landforms

Q16. Which of the following best explains the origin of eskers in glaciated landscapes?

  1. (a) Ridges carved by ice cutting bedrock
  2. (b) Till ridges under stagnant ice
  3. (c) Sinuous ridges from subglacial meltwater deposition
  4. (d) Hills shaped by ice pushing sediments
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sinuous ridges from subglacial meltwater deposition

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Sinuous ridges from subglacial meltwater deposition
Eskers are long, winding (sinuous) ridges of stratified sand and gravel formed by sediment deposited by meltwater streams flowing in tunnels beneath (subglacial) or within a glacier. As the glacier melted and retreated, these sediment-filled channels were left as ridges. Eskers are characteristic of formerly glaciated terrains in Canada, Finland, Sweden, and northern India (Ladakh).
Option 1 (Ice carving bedrock): Describes roches moutonnées or glacial striations — erosional features caused by ice abrasion, not depositional ridges.
Option 2 (Till ridges under stagnant ice): Till is unsorted glacial debris; deposits under stagnant ice form drumlins or ground moraine — not the sorted sand-gravel ridges of eskers.
Option 4 (Ice pushing sediments): Describes push moraines formed by advancing glaciers bulldozing sediment; eskers form from water deposition, not ice pushing.
India - Population and Census · Urbanisation and migration

Q17. Read the following two statements carefully and choose the correct option:
Statement 1: Rural-to-urban migration is a major contributor to urban growth in India.
Statement 2: Better job opportunities and education facilities in cities attract migrants.

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2 are correct

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Both 1 and 2 are correct
Statement 1 (TRUE): Rural-to-urban migration is indeed a major contributor to India's urban population growth. The 2011 Census and NSSO surveys confirm that migration (push-pull factors) accounts for a significant share of urban growth alongside natural increase.
Statement 2 (TRUE): Better employment opportunities (higher wages, diverse job markets), superior education (universities, colleges), healthcare, and improved living standards are classic 'pull factors' attracting rural migrants to cities — a foundational principle in migration theory (Todaro Model, Lewis dual-sector model).
Both statements are well-established demographic and economic facts, making Option 3 the correct answer.
Option 4 (Neither): Incorrect — both statements are factually accurate and well-documented.

Polity (2)

Elections, Parties and Representation · Anti-defection law (Tenth Schedule)

Q18. Which constitutional authority decides on the disqualification of a Member of State Legislature under the Anti-Defection Law?

  1. (a) Chief Justice of High Court
  2. (b) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
  3. (c) Election Commission
  4. (d) Governor
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
Under the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law, 52nd Constitutional Amendment 1985), the Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly is the sole deciding authority for disqualification of members on grounds of defection. Similarly, the Chairman decides for the Legislative Council. Judicial review of the Speaker's decision is available through High Courts and the Supreme Court.
Option 1 (Chief Justice of High Court): Has no role in anti-defection proceedings at the initial decision stage.
Option 3 (Election Commission): Decides on disqualifications under Articles 103/192 (at time of election) — not for defection cases under the Tenth Schedule.
Option 4 (Governor): Decides disqualification of state legislators under Article 192 on EC's advice; not for defection cases.
Amendments and Important Articles · Important articles and their subjects

Q19. Match the following Articles with their provisions:
A. Article 50 1. Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court
B. Article 131 2. Separation of Judiciary from Executive
C. Article 312 3. Creation of All India Services
D. Article 263 4. Inter-State Council

  1. (a) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
  2. (b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
  3. (c) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
  4. (d) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

Correct Answer: Option 1 – A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
Article 50 (DPSP, Part IV): Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive — directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from executive in public services. Match: A-2.
Article 131: Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court — gives SC exclusive jurisdiction in disputes between the Union and states, or between two or more states. Match: B-1.
Article 312: Creation of All India Services — empowers Rajya Sabha (by 2/3 majority resolution) to create new All India Services (IAS, IPS, IFoS ) common to Union and states. Match: C-3.
Article 263: Inter-State Council — empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council for coordinating between states and the Union. Match: D-4.
Correct: A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 = Option 1.

Medieval History (1)

Delhi Sultanate · Slave (Mamluk) dynasty

Q20. Which one of the following pairs of ruler and length of their reign, is correctly matched?

  1. (a) Muhammad Tughluq – Ruled for 15 years
  2. (b) Raziyya – Ruled for 4 years
  3. (c) Alauddin Khalji – Ruled for 10 years
  4. (d) Ghiyasuddin Balban – Ruled for 35 years
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Raziyya – Ruled for 4 years

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Raziyya – Ruled for 4 years
Raziyya Sultan ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1236 to 1240 — approximately 4 years (3.5 years). She was the first and only woman ruler of the Delhi Sultanate, appointed by her father Iltutmish. Her brief reign ended with her defeat and death. The 4-year reign pairing is the only correctly matched option.
Option 1 (Muhammad Tughluq – 15 years): Incorrect. He ruled 1325–1351 = approximately 26 years.
Option 3 (Alauddin Khalji – 10 years): Incorrect. He ruled 1296–1316 = approximately 20 years.
Option 4 ( Ghiyasuddin Balban – 35 years): Incorrect. He ruled 1266–1287 = approximately 21 years.

Current Affairs (3)

Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q21. Which of the following statements is correct about India's performance at the Asian Athletics Championships 2025 in Gumi, South Korea?

  1. (a) India topped the medal tally with 24 medals, including nine golds.
  2. (b) Rupal Chaudhary won medals in both individual and team events, including a gold in the women's 5000m.
  3. (c) The Indian mixed relay team defended its title with only one member returning from the 2023 team.
  4. (d) Avinash Sable won silver in the 3000m steeplechase, ending a 36-year medal drought.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The Indian mixed relay team defended its title with only one member returning from the 2023 team.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – The Indian mixed relay team defended its title with only one member returning from the 2023 team
At the Asian Athletics Championships 2025 in Gumi, South Korea, India had a strong showing. The Indian mixed 4×400m relay team successfully defended its title from the 2023 edition, with remarkable squad renewal — only one returning member from the 2023 championship team, demonstrating India's depth in middle-distance relay running.
Option 1 (Topped with 24 medals): The specific medal count and India topping the tally with exactly these figures is not the accurately stated result.
Option 2 (Rupal Chaudhary gold in 5000m): Rupal Chaudhary specializes in 400m and relay events; a gold in the 5000m is inconsistent with her event profile.
Option 4 (Avinash Sable silver, 36-year drought): While Avinash Sable is India's leading steeplechase athlete, the specific claim of 'silver' ending a '36-year drought' does not accurately describe the 2025 Gumi results.
Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q22. For which field was Anil Kumar Boro awarded the Padma Shri in 2025 by the Government of India?

  1. (a) Medicine and Healthcare
  2. (b) Literature and Education
  3. (c) Social Service
  4. (d) Science and Engineering
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Literature and Education

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Literature and Education
Anil Kumar Boro, a distinguished Bodo-language writer and educationist from Assam, received the Padma Shri in 2025 in the field of Literature and Education. He has made significant contributions to Bodo language literature, authored several novels and poetry collections, and worked toward the promotion and preservation of the Bodo language, script, and culture among tribal communities in Assam.
Option 1 (Medicine and Healthcare): His contributions are in literature and education, not medical sciences.
Option 3 (Social Service): While his literary work benefits the Bodo community, his Padma Shri citation specifically covers Literature and Education.
Option 4 (Science and Engineering): Not the domain of his contribution.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Reports and their publishers

Q23. Consider the following statements regarding the State of India's Environment Report 2024:
1. Energy sector is the top contributor to India's GHG emissions.
2. India's per capita emissions are higher than the global average.
3. The report ranks India among top 10 countries in Environmental Performance Index.

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Only 3
  4. (d) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Only 1
Statement 1 (TRUE): Per the State of India's Environment Report 2024 (CSE), the energy sector is India's top contributor to GHG emissions — encompassing power generation, transport, and industrial energy use.
Statement 2 (FALSE): India's per capita GHG emissions (~2.0–2.5 tCO₂e /year) are significantly BELOW the global average (~6–7 tCO₂e ). India consistently cites this in climate negotiations as an equity argument — India is a low per-capita emitter despite being a large economy.
Statement 3 (FALSE): India ranks very poorly in the Environmental Performance Index (EPI) — India ranked 176th out of 180 countries in EPI 2022 (Yale University). India is NOT among the top 10; it consistently ranks near the bottom due to air quality, water quality, and ecosystem health scores.
Only Statement 1 is correct.
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