SSC Selection Post 2025 29 July 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Potti Sriramulu
Potti Sriramulu (1901–1952) was a Telugu freedom fighter and social activist who undertook a fast-unto-death demanding a separate Telugu-speaking state carved out of Madras State. He died on December 15, 1952 after 58 days of fasting. His death triggered widespread violent protests across Andhra region, forcing Prime Minister Nehru to announce the creation of Andhra State on October 1, 1953 — making it India's first state formed on linguistic basis. This also led to the States Reorganisation Commission (1953) and the States Reorganisation Act (1956) which reorganised all Indian states on linguistic lines.
Option 2 (Pingali Venkayya): Designed the Indian National Flag (with the Ashoka Chakra concept); not associated with Andhra's linguistic statehood movement.
Option 3 (R.K. Shanmugam Chetty): India's first Finance Minister (1947–49); not associated with the Andhra statehood movement.
Option 4 (Jagjivan Ram): Veteran Dalit leader and Union minister; not associated with the creation of Andhra Pradesh.

The correct answer is clearly Option B –Transpiration.Transpiration is the process by which water is absorbed by plant roots, transported through the plant, and released as water vapour through stomata (pores) on leaves and other aerial parts .

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Trigonometric and logarithmic functions are valid only when applied to quantities that are dimensionless
In dimensional analysis, mathematical functions like trigonometric (sin, cos, tan), logarithmic (log, ln), exponential ( e^x ), and other transcendental functions are only mathematically valid when their arguments are dimensionless (pure numbers). This is because these functions are defined by infinite series (e.g., sin x = x − x³/3! + …) — adding terms with different dimensions would be meaningless. Therefore, quantities inside sin, log, e^x must always be dimensionless.
Option 1 (Dimensionally consistent = always physically correct): FALSE. A dimensionally correct equation may still be physically wrong. For example, it could have wrong numerical constants or missing terms. Dimensional consistency is necessary but not sufficient for physical correctness.
Option 2 (Verifies magnitude and physical validity): FALSE. Dimensional analysis cannot determine numerical constants (like 1/2 in KE = ½mv²) or verify physical validity — it only checks dimensional consistency.
Option 4 (Refractive index has dimensions): FALSE. Refractive index (n = c/v) is a ratio of two speeds — it is dimensionless. All pure ratios of like quantities are dimensionless.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Marginal utility declines with each additional unit consumed
The Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility (Gossen's First Law) states that as a consumer consumes more units of a commodity, the additional satisfaction (marginal utility) derived from each successive unit decreases, keeping all other factors constant. For example: the first glass of water when thirsty gives high satisfaction, the second less, the third even less. Total utility keeps rising (but at decreasing rate) until MU reaches zero (satiation point). Beyond that, MU becomes negative (disutility).
Option 1 (Utility increases at an increasing rate): Describes increasing marginal utility — the opposite of the law of diminishing marginal utility.
Option 2 (Total utility decreases with more consumption): Incorrect. Total utility generally increases with consumption (at a decreasing rate) until the satiation point. It is MARGINAL utility that decreases, not total utility (initially).
Option 4 (Marginal Utility increases with Total Utility): Incorrect. MU and TU have an inverse relationship — as TU rises at a decreasing rate, MU falls. When TU is maximum, MU = 0.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Only Statement I is correct
Statement I (TRUE): In a centrally planned economy (command economy), the government (central planning authority) takes all major decisions — what to produce, how much to produce, how to distribute, and for whom. Resources are state-owned. Examples: USSR, China (historically), North Korea. The government controls production, pricing, and distribution instead of market forces.
Statement II (FALSE): A market economy is defined by the price mechanism and voluntary exchange between buyers and sellers — it is NOT restricted to physical marketplaces. Modern market economies include e-commerce, online trading, virtual transactions, financial markets, and digital platforms where buyers and sellers interact remotely and electronically. A market economy simply requires that prices be determined by supply and demand, regardless of whether transactions are physical or digital.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Trust in relationships
The World Happiness Report (published by the UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network) ranks countries by happiness based on six key variables: GDP per capita, Social support (having someone to count on — closely related to 'trust in relationships'), Healthy life expectancy, Freedom to make life choices, Generosity, and Perceptions of corruption (absence of). 'Trust in relationships' (social support/social capital) is a key social factor in the happiness index. Finland has topped the WHR rankings consecutively.
Option 1 (Currency value): Exchange rates or currency strength are not among the six indicators used in the WHR happiness score.
Option 3 (Living Standard): While GDP per capita captures economic aspects of living standards, 'living standard' per se is not listed as a separate social factor in the WHR framework.
Option 4 (Tax collection rate): Tax rates or government revenue are not factors in the WHR happiness methodology.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Promote free trade between two countries
A bilateral trade agreement (BTA) is a trade pact between exactly two countries (or trading blocs) aimed at promoting free trade by reducing or eliminating tariffs, quotas, and other trade barriers between them. Examples: India-UAE CEPA (Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement, 2022), India-Australia ECTA (Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement, 2022), India-Mauritius CECPA (2021). BTAs typically cover goods, services, investment, and intellectual property.
Option 1 (Increase trade barriers): The opposite of a trade agreement's purpose. Trade agreements reduce barriers.
Option 3 (Reduce foreign investment): Trade agreements generally encourage FDI by creating predictable, open economic environments. Reducing investment is contrary to trade agreement objectives.
Option 4 (Nationalize industries): Nationalization is a domestic policy decision unrelated to bilateral trade agreements.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Progressive taxation
Progressive taxation is the system most commonly used for income tax worldwide. In a progressive tax system, the tax rate increases as the taxable income increases — higher income earners pay a higher percentage of their income as tax. This is based on the principle of ability to pay. Examples: India's income tax slabs (5%, 20%, 30% for different income brackets), US federal income tax, UK income tax. The rationale: higher-income individuals can afford to pay a larger share, and progressive taxation reduces income inequality.
Option 1 (Regressive taxation): A regressive tax takes a higher percentage from lower-income earners (e.g., indirect taxes like GST/VAT are regressive since everyone pays the same rate regardless of income). Not used for income tax.
Option 3 (Proportional taxation): A flat tax where everyone pays the same percentage regardless of income (e.g., 10% for all). Some countries use this but it is less common for income tax globally.
Option 4 (No taxation system): Every country with a functioning government has some taxation system; income with no taxation system is not a realistic option.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Assertion (A) is TRUE: The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC), announced at the G20 New Delhi Summit (September 2023), is designed to significantly reduce logistics costs and transport times between India, the Gulf, and Europe. The corridor aims to cut shipping time between India and Europe by about 40% and logistics costs substantially compared to current sea routes via Suez Canal.
Reason (R) is TRUE: IMEC is a multi-modal connectivity initiative integrating ship-to-rail networks, along with energy pipelines (clean hydrogen, electricity), and undersea cables for telecommunications — creating a comprehensive corridor across India, UAE, Saudi Arabia, Jordan, Israel, Greece, and onward to Europe.
R correctly explains A: IMEC reduces logistics costs and time precisely because it integrates multiple transport modes (rail, sea, road) with energy and digital infrastructure, creating a more efficient corridor than existing routes. R is thus the correct explanation of A.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Assertion (A) is TRUE: IMEC is projected to reduce logistics costs by up to 30% and transportation time by approximately 40% compared to existing routes (primarily the Suez Canal sea route). These are official projections associated with the corridor announced at G20 2023.
Reason (R) is TRUE: IMEC's efficiency gains are achieved through its integrated multi-modal infrastructure: digital infrastructure (undersea telecom cables, smart logistics), clean energy pipelines (green hydrogen, electricity cables), and combined rail-road-sea connectivity spanning India to Europe via the Gulf states.
R correctly explains A: The multi-modal integration described in R is precisely the mechanism through which IMEC achieves the cost and time reductions cited in A. R is the correct causal explanation of A.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – 107
At the 19th Asian Games held in Hangzhou, China (September 23 – October 8, 2023), India had its best-ever performance with a total of 107 medals: 28 Gold, 38 Silver, and 41 Bronze medals. India finished 4th in the overall medal tally. This surpassed India's previous best of 70 medals at the 2018 Asian Games in Jakarta-Palembang. Neeraj Chopra (Javelin), the Indian hockey team, shooting contingent, and athletics team contributed significantly.
Option 1 (111): Incorrect medal count — India won 107, not 111.
Option 3 (70): India's medal tally at the 2018 Asian Games (Jakarta) — not 2023.
Option 4 (98): Incorrect figure; not India's 2023 Asian Games medal count.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Assertion (A) is TRUE: The 37th National Games were held in Goa (October 26 – November 9, 2023), and all 28 States and 8 Union Territories participated — making it one of the most inclusive editions.
Reason (R) is TRUE: The 37th National Games saw participation from over 10,000 athletes, coaches, and officials across 43 sports disciplines.
R does NOT explain A: The fact that over 10,000 participants joined is a consequence of all states/UTs participating — it describes the scale of participation, not the reason why all states/UTs participated. A (all states/UTs participated) is an organisational fact about the event's coverage; R (10,000+ participants) is a quantitative outcome of that broad participation. R does not causally explain why all states/UTs participated — it is a separate factual statement about numbers.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Dhaka, Bangladesh
The BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) Secretariat is located in Dhaka, Bangladesh. BIMSTEC was established on June 6, 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration. It has 7 member states: Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Nepal, and Bhutan. The permanent Secretariat was established in Dhaka in 2014. BIMSTEC focuses on trade, technology, energy, transport, tourism, fisheries, agriculture, and cultural cooperation among Bay of Bengal littoral and adjacent states.
Option 1 (New Delhi, India): India is the largest BIMSTEC member but does not host the Secretariat.
Option 3 (Bangkok, Thailand): Bangkok was the location of BIMSTEC's founding and its initial phase; the permanent Secretariat was later established in Dhaka.
Option 4 (Colombo, Sri Lanka): Sri Lanka is a BIMSTEC member but does not host the Secretariat.

The harvest festival celebrated in Punjab during January isLohri. Observed every year on January 13, it marks the end of the winter solstice and the harvesting of the Rabi crops (like sugarcane and wheat).
Key Details of the Festival:
Date:January 13.
Celebrations:People gather around a large holy bonfire after sunset to celebrate the warmth and welcome longer days.
Traditions:Traditional offerings such astil(sesame seeds),gajak,gur(jaggery), popcorn, and rewri are tossed into the fire as a token of gratitude for an abundant harvest.
Festive Foods:Families enjoy traditional Punjabi meals featuringsarson da saag,makki di roti, and sweets made of sesame and jaggery.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Khushwant Singh
'Train to Pakistan' (1956) is a landmark novel by Khushwant Singh set in the fictional border village of Mano Majra during the 1947 Partition. The novel depicts communal harmony shattered by Partition, mass migrations, and the moral courage of Juggut Singh who sacrifices his life to save Muslim refugees. It is considered one of the finest works of Partition literature in English.
Option 1 (Vikram Seth): Known for 'A Suitable Boy' (1993); did not write 'Train to Pakistan'.
Option 2 (Amrita Pritam): The legendary Punjabi poet who wrote ' Pinjar ' (The Skeleton, 1950) — another masterpiece of Partition literature — in Punjabi; not 'Train to Pakistan'.
Option 4 (Anita Desai): Prominent Indian novelist known for 'Clear Light of Day', 'In Custody'; not associated with Partition fiction of this type.

Correct Answer: Option 4 – All of the above
Under Article 370 of the Indian Constitution (now abrogated on August 5, 2019), Jammu & Kashmir had special autonomous status that included all three powers listed:
Option A (Its own Constitution): J&K had its own separate Constitution (Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir, 1956), unlike other Indian states which are governed solely by the Indian Constitution.
Option B (Separate flag): J&K had its own state flag (a red flag with three vertical white stripes and a plough) in addition to the Indian national flag.
Option C (Decision-making except defence /foreign affairs/communications): Under Article 370, Parliament could only legislate on matters in the Instrument of Accession ( defence , foreign affairs, communications) for J&K — all other subjects required the J&K government's concurrence.
All three were features of J&K's special status under Article 370, which was revoked on August 5, 2019, and J&K was bifurcated into two Union Territories (J&K UT and Ladakh UT).

Correct Answer: Option 2 – 1950
The Constitution of India came into effect (was enacted/enforced) on January 26, 1950 — celebrated as Republic Day. The Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution on November 26, 1949 (celebrated as Constitution Day/ Samvidhan Diwas), but it was formally enacted on January 26, 1950 to coincide with the anniversary of Purna Swaraj Day (January 26, 1930, when the Indian National Congress declared complete independence as its goal). Dr. Rajendra Prasad became the first President of India on the same day.
Option 1 (1947): India gained independence on August 15, 1947; the Constitution was not yet drafted or in effect.
Option 3 (1949): The Constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on November 26, 1949, but did NOT come into effect until January 26, 1950.
Option 4 (1952): India held its first General Elections in 1951–52; the Constitution was already in effect since 1950.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – The Union has overriding authority
India is described as a 'quasi-federal' or 'federal with strong unitary features' state. The Union (Central Government) has overriding authority in several key respects: (a) Article 356 (President's Rule) — Centre can dismiss state governments; (b) Residuary powers vest with the Centre (Article 248 + Entry 97 of Union List); (c) During national emergency (Article 352), Parliament can legislate on State List subjects; (d) The Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution to enable Parliament to legislate on State List matters (Article 249); (e) All-India Services (IAS, IPS) serve both Centre and States but are controlled by the Centre.
Option 1 (States can secede): India is an indestructible Union. No state has the constitutional right to secede. The Constitution (First Amendment, 1951) and Supreme Court rulings affirm India's territorial integrity.
Option 2 (Rigid division of powers): India's federal division is not rigid — the Centre can expand its powers during emergencies, and concurrent list subjects allow both to legislate.
Option 4 (States are sovereign entities): States are NOT sovereign in India. Sovereignty rests with 'We the People' as expressed through the Constitution. States are subordinate units of the Indian Union.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Dravidian
The Brihadeeswarar Temple (also called the Big Temple or Peruvudaiyar Kovil) in Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu, built by Chola emperor Raja Raja I (completed c. 1010 CE), is the finest example of Dravidian temple architecture. Features: a massive vimana (tower over the sanctum) of 66 metres — one of the tallest in India at the time, a monolithic Nandi (bull), granite construction, intricate carvings, Gopurams (gateway towers). The Brihadeeswarar Temple is a UNESCO World Heritage Site (part of the Great Living Chola Temples, inscribed 1987).
Option 1 ( Vesara ): A hybrid style combining Nagara and Dravidian features; found in Karnataka (e.g., Hoysala temples at Halebid and Belur ).
Option 3 (Nagara): North Indian style with a curvilinear shikhara (tower); examples include Kandariya Mahadeva Temple (Khajuraho), Sun Temple (Konark is Kalinga sub-style).
Option 4 (Indo-Saracenic): A colonial-era architectural style combining Indian and Islamic elements; used in British-era buildings like the Victoria Memorial (Kolkata), Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus (Mumbai).

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Pluto
Pluto was reclassified as a 'dwarf planet' by the International Astronomical Union (IAU) on August 24, 2006. According to the IAU definition, a dwarf planet: (a) orbits the Sun, (b) has sufficient mass for gravity to make it roughly spherical, but (c) has NOT cleared the neighbourhood around its orbit. Pluto orbits in the Kuiper Belt alongside many other Kuiper Belt Objects. Other dwarf planets: Eris, Haumea, Makemake, Ceres (in the asteroid belt).
Option 1 (Jupiter): The largest planet in the Solar System — a full planet (gas giant). Has cleared its orbital neighbourhood .
Option 2 (Earth): The third planet from the Sun — a full terrestrial planet. Definitively a planet.
Option 4 (Venus): Second planet from the Sun — a full terrestrial planet, often called Earth's twin.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Rajasthan
Rajasthan has the lowest population density among the options given. As per Census 2011, Rajasthan's population density is 200 persons per sq km. Rajasthan is India's largest state by area (342,239 sq km) but has a relatively small population compared to its vast land, much of which is covered by the Thar Desert (Great Indian Desert) — making it sparsely populated.
Option 2 (Kerala): Population density of 860 persons per sq km (Census 2011) — one of India's most densely populated states.
Option 3 (Bihar): Population density of 1,106 persons per sq km (Census 2011) — the most densely populated state in India.
Option 4 (Punjab): Population density of 551 persons per sq km (Census 2011) — significantly higher than Rajasthan.