SSC Selection Post 2025 29 July 2025 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Worsening conditions for women and societal unrest
Afghanistan ranked last (143rd/last) in the World Happiness Report 2025. The primary driver of its extremely low score is the worsening conditions for women and girls since the Taliban takeover in August 2021 — banning girls from education beyond primary school, restricting women's employment, movement, and public life. Combined with deep societal unrest, political repression, food insecurity, and lack of basic freedoms, these factors directly devastate the happiness metrics (social support, freedom to make life choices, positive affect). The WHR specifically noted Afghanistan's female happiness score as uniquely low.
Option 1 (Economic instability): While Afghanistan faces severe economic crisis, the WHR's methodology specifically measures subjective well-being; the Taliban's suppression of women and freedoms is the primary cited reason for its last-place ranking.
Option 2 (Corruption and poor governance): A contributing factor, but not identified as the primary reason in WHR 2025's analysis of Afghanistan.
Option 4 (Environmental degradation): Not identified as a primary driver of Afghanistan's lowest WHR ranking.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Narendra Modi
The Grameen Bharat Mahotsav was inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. The Grameen Bharat Mahotsav is a mega festival organised to showcase rural development achievements, promote rural enterprises, artisans, and self-help groups, and celebrate India's rural economy and culture. PM Modi's inauguration of this event aligns with the government's focus on rural empowerment and the Atmanirbhar Bharat vision.
Option 1 (Nirmala Sitharaman): Union Finance Minister; has inaugurated many financial sector events but not this specific festival.
Option 3 ( Droupadi Murmu): President of India; while she attends many national events, the Grameen Bharat Mahotsav was inaugurated by PM Modi.
Option 4 (Shivraj Singh Chouhan): Union Agriculture Minister (post-2024); involved in agricultural events but not the inaugural of Grameen Bharat Mahotsav.

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Savings money
Reserve money (also called the Monetary Base) is the total liability of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and consists of: currency in circulation + bankers' deposits with RBI + other deposits with RBI. It is the foundation of money supply. Reserve money is known by three equivalent terms:
Option 1 (Central bank money): Reserve money is money created/issued by the central bank — it IS central bank money.
Option 2 (Base money): Reserve money IS base money — the monetary base on which commercial banks create broad money through credit multiplication.
Option 3 (High powered money): Reserve money IS high-powered money (HPM) — because each rupee of reserve money can support multiple rupees of deposits through the money multiplier effect.
Option 4 (Savings money): 'Savings money' is NOT a term for reserve money. Savings money refers to money deposited in savings accounts with commercial banks — it is part of broad money (M2, M3) but not reserve money/monetary base. This is the correct answer.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Fourth
The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act was enacted in 1969, which falls during the Fourth Five-Year Plan period (1969–1974). The MRTP Act was based on the recommendations of the Monopolies Inquiry Commission (MIC, 1964) chaired by Justice K.C. Das Gupta, and the Industrial Licensing Policy Inquiry Committee (Dutt Committee, 1969). The Act aimed to prevent concentration of economic power in private hands (monopolies and oligopolies), prohibit restrictive trade practices (cartels, price-fixing), and control mergers and acquisitions that reduce competition. It was later replaced by the Competition Act, 2002.
Option 1 (First): First Five-Year Plan (1951–56) focused on agriculture and rehabilitation; MRTP Act did not exist then.
Option 2 (Third): Third Five-Year Plan (1961–66) focused on heavy industries; the Monopolies Inquiry Commission was set up in 1964 but the Act was passed in 1969.
Option 4 (Seventh): Seventh Five-Year Plan (1985–90) was the era of liberalisation beginnings; MRTP Act had been in force since 1969.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Invest in India financial markets
Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) — now officially termed Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) since SEBI's 2014 regulations — invest in India's financial markets, primarily: equity markets (stock exchanges — NSE, BSE), debt markets (government bonds, corporate bonds), and money market instruments. FIIs/FPIs bring foreign capital into Indian capital markets, providing liquidity, improving price discovery, and enabling companies to raise funds. FII investments have been an important component of India's economic liberalisation since 1992 when they were first permitted.
Option 1 (Agriculture subsidies): Agriculture subsidies are provided by the central and state governments through budget allocations; FIIs have no role in agriculture subsidies.
Option 2 (Invest in government salaries): Government salaries are funded through tax revenues and budget; FIIs do not fund government wages.
Option 4 (Subsidize rural infrastructure): Rural infrastructure is funded by government schemes (PMGSY, PMAY-G, etc.); FIIs do not subsidize rural infrastructure.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – RLV-LEX
ISRO's Reusable Launch Vehicle Landing Experiment (RLV-LEX) demonstrated autonomous runway landing of a winged reusable vehicle, making India one of the very few countries (alongside the USA and Russia) with this technology. RLV-LEX-02 was successfully conducted on April 2, 2023 at Aeronautical Test Range (ATR), Chitradurga , Karnataka. The RLV (Pushpak) autonomously landed on a runway after being released from a helicopter at altitude — validating critical guidance, navigation, and control technologies for future reusable space launch vehicles.
Option 2 (SPOT-7): A French commercial Earth observation satellite; not an Indian reusable launch vehicle mission.
Option 3 (PSLV-C58): A standard expendable Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle mission (carried XPoSat, X-ray Polarimeter Satellite, in January 2024); not a reusable launch vehicle experiment.
Option 4 (RISAT-2): Radar Imaging Satellite — an Earth observation/surveillance satellite launched in 2009; not related to reusable launch vehicle technology.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Bison Horn Maria
Bison Horn Maria (also called Gond Maria dance) is a traditional tribal dance of the Maria Gond tribe of Bastar, Chhattisgarh. The dancers wear elaborate headdresses made from the horns of the Indian bison (gaur), hence the name. This ritualistic dance is performed during festivals, marriages, and community gatherings. It is one of the most distinctive folk dance traditions of Central India.
Option 2 (Gaddi Nati): Nati is the traditional folk dance of Himachal Pradesh, particularly the Kullu and Shimla regions; Gaddi Nati is performed by the Gaddi pastoral community of HP — not Chhattisgarh.
Option 3 (Baiga Pardhoni ): While the Baiga tribe is found in parts of Chhattisgarh and MP, 'Baiga Pardhoni ' specifically refers to a wedding-related folk dance. However, SSC's answer key identifies Bison Horn Maria as the primary Chhattisgarh dance in this question.
Option 4 ( Bagurumba ): A traditional folk dance of the Bodo tribe of Assam — not Chhattisgarh.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – 1 and 2 only
Statement 1 (TRUE): Bibi ka Maqbara was built by Mughal prince Azam Shah (son of Aurangzeb) in memory of his mother Dilras Banu Begum (Rabia- ud -Daurani), who was Aurangzeb's wife. It was commissioned by Aurangzeb and constructed between 1651–1661 CE. So it was effectively commissioned by/associated with Aurangzeb in memory of his wife.
Statement 2 (TRUE): Bibi ka Maqbara is located in Aurangabad (now renamed Chhatrapati Sambhaji Nagar), Maharashtra. It is popularly called the 'Taj Mahal of the Deccan' due to its architectural resemblance to the Taj Mahal in Agra, as it was inspired by it.
Statement 3 (FALSE): Bibi ka Maqbara was constructed in the 17th century (1651–1661 CE), during the reign of Aurangzeb — NOT in the early 1500s during Babur's reign. Babur ruled from 1526–1530 CE, more than a century earlier.
Only Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
A. Ippon (2 – Immediate victory by throw, hold, or submission): Ippon is the highest score in Judo — awarded for a perfectly executed technique resulting in immediate victory. Achieved by: throwing opponent cleanly on their back with force/speed, holding opponent on their back for 20 seconds ( osae-komi ), or submission via joint lock ( kansetsu-waza ) or choke ( shime-waza ).
B. Hansoku -make (1 – Major rule breach leading to disqualification): Hansoku -make is a major penalty in Judo for a serious rule infringement — it results in immediate disqualification of the offender and victory for the opponent. Minor infringements result in Shido (warning); three Shidos equal a Hansoku -make.
C. Waza-ari (3 – Partial point for lesser throw or 10-second hold): Waza-ari is a half-point score, below Ippon — awarded for a near-ippon throw (partial execution) or holding for 10–19 seconds. Two Waza-ari equal an Ippon.
D. Sixth kyu (Sixth Kyu/Senior — 4 – Beginner rank indicated by a light blue belt): In Judo's kyu (student) grading system, 6th Kyu is for beginners and is indicated by a white or light blue belt depending on the federation.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
Assertion (A) is TRUE: Jeremy Bujakowski was indeed the first Indian athlete to compete at the Winter Olympics. He participated in Alpine skiing at the 1964 Innsbruck Winter Olympics and the 1968 Grenoble Winter Olympics — representing India in alpine skiing events.
Reason (R) is TRUE: After Bujakowski's participation in 1968, India did not send any athletes to the Winter Olympics for approximately 20 years, returning in 1988 (Calgary) with a luge team. This gap of about 20 years is factually correct.
R does NOT explain A: The Reason (India's 20-year absence after Bujakowski) is a fact about what happened AFTER Bujakowski's era — it does not causally explain WHY Bujakowski was the first Indian at the Winter Olympics. A and R are independent facts; R is a consequence/sequel to A's era, not a causal explanation of A.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – India advanced the BBIN Motor Vehicle Agreement
At the 18th SAARC Summit in Kathmandu (November 2014), a SAARC Motor Vehicle Agreement (MVA) was proposed to allow seamless movement of goods and passengers across SAARC nations. Pakistan objected and blocked the agreement. As a direct response, India advanced a sub-regional alternative: the BBIN (Bangladesh-Bhutan-India-Nepal) Motor Vehicle Agreement, signed on June 15, 2015 in Thimphu, Bhutan. BBIN MVA allows commercial, passenger, and personal vehicles of member countries to ply in each other's territory, effectively bypassing Pakistan's SAARC veto.
Option 1 (Trilateral pact with China and Bhutan): India did not propose any trilateral with China as a response; China is not a SAARC member and this did not happen.
Option 2 (BIMSTEC Maritime Agreement): While India has been investing in BIMSTEC as an alternative to SAARC, no specific 'BIMSTEC Maritime Agreement' was the immediate outcome of Pakistan's 2014 SAARC MVA objection.
Option 4 (SAARC halted all projects): SAARC did not halt all connectivity projects; the sub-regional BBIN framework was specifically developed to move forward without Pakistan.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A
Assertion (A) is TRUE: 'In A Forest, A Deer' is a celebrated short story collection by Ambai (pen name of C. S. Lakshmi), a prominent Tamil feminist writer. The collection, originally written in Tamil and translated into English, indeed explores nuanced feminist themes — women's autonomy, body, desire, tradition, and identity — through deeply personal, culturally embedded narratives set in South Indian contexts.
Reason (R) is TRUE: Ambai's body of work is distinguished by its critical examination of gender roles, female identity, patriarchal social structures, and the intersection of tradition and modernity in Indian (particularly Tamil) society. Her writing is consistently recognized as feminist literary criticism in narrative form.
R correctly explains A: The reason why 'In A Forest, A Deer' explores feminist themes (A) is precisely because Ambai as a writer critically examines gender, identity, and social structures (R) — R provides the authorial context and intent that explains the thematic content of A.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – The superposition principle of waves
Interference of light is a direct consequence of the superposition principle of waves, which states that when two or more waves overlap at a point, the resultant displacement is the algebraic sum of the individual displacements. When two coherent light waves (same frequency, constant phase difference) superpose: constructive interference occurs where crests meet crests (path difference = nλ ) → bright fringes; destructive interference occurs where crests meet troughs (path difference = (2n+1)λ/2) → dark fringes. Young's Double Slit Experiment (YDSE) classically demonstrates interference.
Option 1 (Particle nature/photons): Interference is a wave phenomenon — it was historically used by Thomas Young (1801) to establish the wave nature of light, contradicting the particle model.
Option 2 (Diffraction): Diffraction is a separate wave phenomenon (bending around obstacles); while both rely on superposition, interference specifically refers to superposition of two or more coherent wave sources, not diffraction.
Option 4 (Polarization): Polarization is a property of transverse waves (light is a transverse EM wave) showing directionality of oscillations — a separate phenomenon from interference.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – phytoestrogen
Soybean products are rich in phytoestrogens — plant-derived compounds (primarily isoflavones: genistein, daidzein, glycitein ) that are structurally and functionally similar to human estrogen (the female sex hormone). Phytoestrogens can bind to estrogen receptors in the human body and exert weak estrogen-like effects. They are found in soy foods (tofu, soy milk, edamame, miso). Research links soy phytoestrogens to potential benefits including reduced menopausal symptoms, cardiovascular protection, and bone health.
Option 2 ( manihotoxin ): A cyanogenic glycoside found in cassava (Manihot esculenta) — a toxic compound, not a hormone-like substance in soybeans.
Option 3 ( taxol ): Paclitaxel (Taxol) is an anticancer drug originally derived from the Pacific yew tree (Taxus brevifolia ); not found in soybeans.
Option 4 ( orphine ): Not a recognised chemical compound in standard biochemistry; a distractor.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – A voluntary statement by a party acknowledging a fact
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 (replacing the Indian Evidence Act, 1872), an 'admission' is defined as a statement, oral or documentary or contained in electronic form, which suggests any inference as to any fact in issue or relevant fact, and which is made by a party to the proceeding. Crucially, an admission must be voluntary — a statement made under duress or coercion is not admissible as an admission. Admissions are relevant under Section 15 of BSA and are admissible as evidence against the maker.
Option 1 (A rumour repeated in court): A rumour is hearsay with no identified original source — not an admission. Hearsay is generally inadmissible.
Option 2 (Statement by someone not involved): An admission must be made by a party to the proceeding (or their agent/predecessor in interest). Statements by uninvolved third parties are not admissions under BSA.
Option 4 (Statement under duress): A statement made under coercion, threat, or undue influence lacks voluntariness — it is not considered a valid admission under BSA.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – 500
Article 170 of the Indian Constitution specifies that the Legislative Assembly of each state shall consist of not more than 500 members and not less than 60 members, chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies. The actual number for each state is determined by the Delimitation Commission based on population. The largest State Legislative Assembly is Uttar Pradesh's Vidhan Sabha with 403 seats.
Option 1 (450): Below the constitutional maximum; not the correct figure.
Option 3 (550): The Lok Sabha has a maximum of 552 members (530 states + 20 UTs + 2 Anglo-Indian nominated, now removed by 104th Amendment); this figure is sometimes confused with state assemblies but the state limit is 500.
Option 4 (600): Exceeds the constitutional maximum of 500 for state assemblies.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – 2 only
Statement 1 (FALSE): The President CANNOT dissolve the Lok Sabha on his own discretion. Under Article 85(2)(b), the President dissolves the Lok Sabha on the advice of the Prime Minister/Council of Ministers. The President acts as a constitutional head — dissolution on personal discretion would be unconstitutional. The Bommai case (1994) and constitutional conventions make this clear.
Statement 2 (TRUE): When no single party/alliance commands a majority in a State Legislative Assembly (hung assembly), the Governor has the discretionary power to invite a leader who can prove majority support to form the government and appoints them as Chief Minister. This is one of the few genuine discretionary powers of a Governor — the Sarkaria Commission and Punchhi Commission have discussed conventions for this.
Statement 3 (FALSE): The Governor plays a direct role in Money Bills. Under Article 207, a Money Bill can only be introduced in the Legislative Assembly with the prior recommendation/permission of the Governor. Additionally, the Governor assents to Money Bills (Article 200). So the Governor has a role — Statement 3 is false.
Only Statement 2 is correct.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Hematite
The Bailadila iron ore deposits in Dantewada district of Chhattisgarh contain high-grade Hematite ( Fe₂O ₃) iron ore with iron content of 64–68%. Bailadila is one of the largest high-grade iron ore deposits in Asia, spread across 14 deposits covering about 28 sq km. The ore is mined by NMDC (National Mineral Development Corporation) and exported to Japan and other countries. Bailadila ore is renowned for its exceptional purity and low phosphorus/ sulphur content.
Option 2 (Siderite): FeCO ₃ — a low-grade iron ore containing about 48% iron; found in some European deposits; not the ore mined at Bailadila .
Option 3 (Limonite): FeO (OH)· nH₂O — a low-grade hydrated iron ore; not the ore at Bailadila .
Option 4 (Magnetite): Fe₃O ₄ — highest iron content (~72%) iron ore; found at Kudremukh (Karnataka) and some other Indian deposits; Bailadila specifically has Hematite.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Only 1
Statement 1 (TRUE): The Deccan Plateau is a large triangular landmass that forms the peninsular heartland of India. It is situated to the south of the Narmada River (and Satpura Range), bounded by the Western Ghats to the west, Eastern Ghats to the east, and Vindhya- Satpura ranges to the north. Its triangular shape points southward toward Kanyakumari.
Statement 2 (FALSE): The Aravalli hills do NOT form the northern boundary of the Deccan Plateau. The northern boundary of the Deccan Plateau is formed by the Vindhya Range and Satpura Range. The Aravalli Range (running through Rajasthan and Gujarat) is located to the northwest of the Deccan Plateau and is considered one of the world's oldest mountain ranges — it is not the northern boundary of the Deccan Plateau.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Both 1 and 2 are correct
Statement 1 (TRUE): According to census and UNFPA data, adolescents constitute approximately 20–21% (nearly one-fifth) of India's total population — making India home to the world's largest adolescent population (approximately 253 million adolescents).
Statement 2 (TRUE): The World Health Organization (WHO) and Government of India define adolescents as individuals in the age group of 10 to 19 years. This is the standard internationally accepted definition. The Rashtriya Kishor Swasthya Karyakram (RKSK) — India's National Adolescent Health Programme — also covers the 10–19 age group.
Both statements are factually correct and consistent with official government and WHO definitions.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Only 1 and 2 are correct
Statement 1 (TRUE): India's updated Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC), submitted to UNFCCC in August 2022, includes a target to reduce the emissions intensity of GDP by 45% by 2030 compared to 2005 levels (upgraded from the earlier 33–35% target in the original 2015 NDC).
Statement 2 (TRUE): India's updated NDC commits to achieving about 50% cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel-based energy sources by 2030 (upgraded from 40% in the original NDC). This includes solar, wind, hydro, nuclear, and other renewable sources.
Statement 3 (FALSE): India's current NDC does NOT specify a net-zero target by 2035. India announced a net-zero target of 2070 at COP26 in Glasgow (November 2021) — PM Modi's ' Panchamrit ' commitments. The 2035 figure is incorrect; India's net-zero goal is 2070.
Only Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Only I
Statement I (TRUE): The Mughal mansabdari system, formalized by Emperor Akbar, assigned each noble ( mansabdar ) a mansab (rank) which had two components: (a) Zat — personal rank determining salary and status in the imperial hierarchy; (b) Sawar — the number of cavalry a noble was required to maintain. The mansab thus indicated rank AND salary (higher zat = higher salary/pay). This is correct.
Statement II (FALSE): Mansabdars were NOT required to personally reside in their jagir. The Mughal system actually created a deliberate policy of transferring mansabdars from one jagir to another to prevent them from building local power bases. Mansabdars often resided at court or with the army; their jagir revenues were collected by agents. Personal residence in jagirs was neither required nor encouraged — the opposite policy of frequent transfers was implemented.