SSC Selection Post 2025 29 July 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Troposphere
The Troposphere is the lowest layer of Earth's atmosphere, extending from the surface up to about 12 km (average; 8 km at poles, 16 km at equator). It contains approximately 75–80% of the atmosphere's total mass and almost all of its water vapour. All weather phenomena — clouds, rain, snow, storms, cyclones, thunderstorms — occur here. Temperature decreases with altitude at about 6.5°C per km (normal lapse rate). The upper boundary is the tropopause.
Option 1 (Stratosphere): Lies above the troposphere (12–50 km). Contains the ozone layer; temperature increases with altitude due to ozone absorbing UV. Weather phenomena do not occur here; it is very calm.
Option 2 (Mesosphere): 50–80 km altitude; temperature decreases with altitude; meteors burn up here. No significant weather.
Option 4 (Thermosphere): 80–700 km altitude; temperature rises sharply; location of auroras and the International Space Station. No weather.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Wetland ecosystem protection
The Amrit Dharohar scheme was announced in the Union Budget 2023–24 and launched in 2023 to promote the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands in India. It focuses on the 75 Ramsar wetland sites designated in India, aiming to enhance their biodiversity, carbon stock, eco-tourism potential, and livelihoods of local communities. The scheme recognises wetlands as 'Amrit Dharohar' (treasure of nectar/heritage) for their ecological services: water purification, flood control, carbon sequestration, and biodiversity support.
Option 1 (River conservation): River conservation is covered under Namami Gange Programme (Ganga) and National River Conservation Plan — not Amrit Dharohar.
Option 3 (Wildlife protection): Wildlife is protected under Project Tiger, Project Elephant, and the Wildlife Protection Act — not the Amrit Dharohar scheme.
Option 4 (Air pollution control): Air quality management is under the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) — unrelated to Amrit Dharohar.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Indian & Eurasian
The Himalayas were formed by the collision of the Indo-Australian Plate (specifically the Indian sub-plate) with the Eurasian Plate. About 50–70 million years ago, the Indian plate, drifting northward after breaking off from Gondwana, collided with the Eurasian plate. Since both are continental crust (too buoyant to subduct), the collision resulted in crustal shortening and thickening — folding and uplifting rocks into the world's highest mountain range. The Himalayas continue to rise by about 5 mm per year as this collision continues.
Option 2 (Indian & African): The African plate is separated from the Indian plate; their interaction created the Rift Valley and Red Sea — not the Himalayas.
Option 3 (Eurasian & Australian): The Australian plate's northward movement has different tectonic consequences; it is not responsible for the Himalayas.
Option 4 (Pacific & Eurasian): Collision of the Pacific and Eurasian plates is responsible for the volcanic island arcs of Japan, Philippines, and the Ring of Fire — not the Himalayas.

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Kerala
According to Census 2011, Kerala has the highest sex ratio among all Indian states at 1084 females per 1000 males. This is significantly above the national average of 943. Kerala's high sex ratio is attributed to high female literacy (92%), better healthcare, low female infanticide, matrilineal traditions in some communities, women's empowerment, and better socioeconomic status of women. The Kerala Model of development emphasises human development indices including gender equality.
Option 1 (Tamil Nadu): Sex ratio of 996 as per 2011 Census — above national average but lower than Kerala.
Option 2 (Himachal Pradesh): Sex ratio of 972 as per 2011 Census.
Option 3 (Rajasthan): Sex ratio of 928 as per 2011 Census — below national average of 943.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Brazil
Brazil hosts approximately 60% of the Amazon Rainforest — the world's largest tropical rainforest (~5.5 million km²). The Amazon basin covers 9 countries (Brazil, Peru, Colombia, Venezuela, Ecuador, Bolivia, Guyana, Suriname, French Guiana) but Brazil has the largest share. The Amazon is critical for global climate regulation (carbon sink absorbing 2 billion tonnes of CO₂/year), biodiversity (10% of all species on Earth), oxygen production, and the water cycle. Brazil is a founding BRICS member (along with Russia, India, China, South Africa).
Option 2 (Russia): World's largest country by area; known for the Taiga (boreal forest/Siberian forests) — the world's largest forest biome — but not the Amazon.
Option 3 (India): Known for tropical forests in the Western Ghats, Northeast India, and the Andamans; not the Amazon.
Option 4 (South Africa): Characterised by savannah, bushveld, and the Karoo desert; the Amazon is in South America, not Africa.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Electronic evidence is treated as equal to documentary evidence
The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 (replacing the Indian Evidence Act, 1872) explicitly recognises electronic records and digital evidence as equivalent to documentary evidence. Section 2(1)(d) of BSA defines 'document' to include electronic records. Electronic records — emails, digital files, electronic contracts, SMS, social media records, CCTV footage stored digitally — are admissible as primary evidence. This is a landmark modernisation: electronic evidence no longer requires supplementary paper documentation to be valid.
Option 1 (Oral > Documentary): Under BSA, documentary evidence (including electronic records) generally holds higher evidentiary value than oral testimony since documents are more reliable and permanent. Oral evidence is not superior.
Option 2 (Digital needs paper backup): BSA specifically removes this requirement. Electronic records are self-sufficient as primary evidence under Section 57 of BSA.
Option 4 (Hearsay always admissible): Hearsay evidence is generally NOT admissible. BSA maintains the rule against hearsay with specific exceptions (dying declarations, admissions by parties, etc.).

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Article 168
Article 168 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Constitution of Legislatures in States. It provides for the establishment of the State Legislature for each state, comprising the Governor and one or two Houses (Vidhan Sabha and Vidhan Parishad where bicameral). The State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) is specifically the lower/sole house of the State Legislature. Article 168 defines the framework: every state shall have a Legislature of the Governor and the House/s of the Legislature.
Option 2 (Article 170): Deals with the Composition of the Legislative Assemblies — specifying the number of seats in each Vidhan Sabha (not exceeding 500 and not less than 60 members).
Option 3 (Article 172): Deals with the Duration of State Legislatures — the Vidhan Sabha continues for 5 years from the date of its first sitting (unless dissolved earlier).
Option 4 (Article 174): Deals with Sessions of the State Legislature, prorogation and dissolution — the Governor summons, prorogues, or dissolves the State Legislature under this article.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Shukrayaan-1
Shukrayaan-1 is India's planned orbiter mission to Venus (Shukra = Venus in Sanskrit). ISRO's Shukrayaan-1 aims to study Venus's surface geology, volcanic activity, atmospheric chemistry, cloud structure, solar wind interaction, and the thick CO₂-SO₂ atmosphere. The mission, planned for launch around 2028, will complement ESA's EnVision and NASA's DAVINCI+/VERITAS missions to Venus.
Option 2 (Mangalyaan-2): India's second Mars mission (Mars Orbiter Mission 2), planned for the future; targets Mars, not Venus.
Option 3 (Gaganyaan): India's first crewed spaceflight programme — aims to send Indian astronauts (Gaganauts) to low Earth orbit. Not a planetary science mission.
Option 4 (Chandrayaan-4): India's planned lunar sample return mission; targets the Moon, not Venus.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – National Green Hydrogen Mission
The National Green Hydrogen Mission was approved by the Union Cabinet on January 4, 2023 with an outlay of ₹19,744 crore. It aims to make India a global hub for production, usage, and export of Green Hydrogen and Green Ammonia. Green Hydrogen is produced by electrolyzing water using renewable energy (solar/wind), making it a clean fuel with zero carbon emissions. The mission targets 5 million metric tonnes (MMT) of Green Hydrogen production per annum by 2030 and ₹8 lakh crore of investment.
Option 1 (National Solar Mission): Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission (JNNSM) focuses on solar power generation and installation of solar panels; not specifically hydrogen.
Option 3 (National Green Energy Project): Not a specific official mission name; a distractor.
Option 4 (National Wind Energy Mission): Wind energy is under the National Wind-Solar Hybrid Policy; there is no separate 'National Wind Energy Mission' — and it does not specifically target hydrogen fuel.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Flute
Sushira Vadya (also called Sushir or Shushir) refers to wind instruments — instruments that produce sound by blowing air into or across an aperture. The Flute (Bansuri) is the classic example of a Sushira Vadya. Air is blown across the embouchure hole; vibrating air columns inside the bamboo tube produce sound. Pannalal Ghosh and Hariprasad Chaurasia are legendary masters of the classical Bansuri.
Classification of Indian musical instruments (Chaturvidha Vadya):
Tata Vadya (chordophones/string instruments): Sitar, Sarod, Veena, Tanpura — sound from vibrating strings.
Vitata Vadya (membranophones/percussion with skin): Tabla, Mridangam, Dhol — sound from vibrating membranes.
Sushira Vadya (aerophones/wind instruments): Flute, Shehnai, Nadaswaram, Been — sound from vibrating air.
Ghana Vadya (idiophones/solid percussion): Manjira, Kartal, Jalatarang — sound from solid material vibration.
Option 1 (Sitar): Tata Vadya (plucked string instrument).
Option 3 (Tabla): Vitata Vadya (percussion/membranophone).
Option 4 (Veena): Tata Vadya (plucked string instrument).

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Abdul Kalam
'Wings of Fire: An Autobiography' (1999) is the autobiography of Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam (Avul Pakir Jainulabdeen Abdul Kalam), India's 11th President (2002–2007) and a renowned aerospace scientist. Written with Arun Tiwari, it chronicles Kalam's journey from humble origins in Rameswaram, Tamil Nadu, to becoming a missile scientist at DRDO and ISRO (known as the 'Missile Man of India' for spearheading the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme — Agni, Prithvi, Akash, Trishul, Nag). It has sold millions of copies and been translated into 13 languages.
Option 1 (Vikram Seth): Famous novelist known for 'A Suitable Boy' and 'The Golden Gate'; his autobiography is not titled 'Wings of Fire'.
Option 3 (R. K. Laxman): The legendary cartoonist of 'The Common Man'; his autobiography is 'The Tunnel of Time'.
Option 4 (C. V. Raman): Nobel laureate physicist (Raman Effect, 1930); did not write an autobiography titled 'Wings of Fire'.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Khushwant Singh
'Train to Pakistan' (1956) is a seminal novel by Khushwant Singh set in the fictional border village of Mano Majra (based on Hadali, his birthplace in pre-partition Punjab, now Pakistan) during the Partition of India in 1947. The novel depicts the communal harmony shattered by Partition, the mass migrations and killings, and the moral courage of Juggut Singh, a Sikh criminal, who sacrifices his life to prevent a trainload of Muslim refugees from being massacred. It is considered one of the finest works of Partition literature.
Option 1 (Mulk Raj Anand): Pioneer of Indian writing in English; known for 'Untouchable' (1935) and 'Coolie' (1936) — social realism about caste and poverty; not 'Train to Pakistan'.
Option 3 (Ruskin Bond): Beloved Anglo-Indian author from Mussoorie known for 'The Room on the Roof', 'A Flight of Pigeons'; not associated with Partition fiction.
Option 4 (Amitav Ghosh): Contemporary Indian author known for 'The Shadow Lines', 'The Glass Palace', 'Sea of Poppies'; his Partition-related work is 'The Shadow Lines', not 'Train to Pakistan'.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Hockey
Field Hockey has contributed the most Olympic gold medals to India — 8 gold medals in total. India's Olympic gold medals in Hockey: 1928 (Amsterdam), 1932 (Los Angeles), 1936 (Berlin), 1948 (London), 1952 (Helsinki), 1956 (Melbourne), 1964 (Tokyo), 1980 (Moscow). India also won silver in 1960 (Rome) and bronze in 1968 (Mexico City), 1972 (Munich), and 2020 Tokyo (bronze). Hockey was India's dominant sport for decades under legends like Dhyan Chand.
Option 2 (Badminton): Saina Nehwal (Bronze, 2012), P.V. Sindhu (Silver 2016, Bronze 2020) — no gold medals yet in Olympic Badminton for India.
Option 3 (Boxing): Vijender Singh (Bronze, 2008) — no Olympic gold medal in Boxing for India.
Option 4 (Shooting): Abhinav Bindra (Gold, 2008) — India's only individual Olympic gold medal in shooting (so far). One gold vs. Hockey's 8.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Saudi Arabia
The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) was announced at the G20 Summit in New Delhi on September 9, 2023. IMEC is a proposed rail and shipping corridor connecting India to Europe via the Middle East. Saudi Arabia is the central Middle Eastern country in the IMEC framework — the corridor passes through India → UAE → Saudi Arabia → Jordan → Israel → Greece → Europe. Saudi Arabia's Vision 2030 and its geographic centrality make it the key Middle Eastern hub. The US, UAE, Saudi Arabia, EU, India, Italy, France, and Germany signed the MoU for IMEC.
Option 1 (Qatar): While Qatar is a significant Middle Eastern economy (LNG exports, Al Jazeera, FIFA 2022 host), it is not a central node in the IMEC corridor route.
Option 3 (Iran): Iran is not a participant in IMEC; geopolitical sanctions and its position outside the corridor route exclude it.
Option 4 (Oman): Oman is part of Gulf cooperation and has strategic ports, but the primary IMEC route goes through Saudi Arabia, not Oman.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – India has developed its first state-wise TB burden estimation model under NTEP
Under the National TB Elimination Programme (NTEP), India developed its first-ever state-wise TB burden estimation model — a landmark achievement in TB surveillance. This allows state-specific disease burden data (incidence, mortality) rather than national aggregates, enabling targeted interventions. The model was developed in collaboration with the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) and technical partners.
Option 1 (Eliminate TB by 2030): NTEP's target is to eliminate TB by 2025 — five years ahead of the global Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) target of 2030. The SDG target is 2030, but India's national target is 2025.
Option 2 (Fewer TB cases in 2024 due to reduced screening): Reduced TB notifications due to less screening would be a negative outcome. India's TB programme has been ramping up screening, not reducing it. This statement is factually incorrect.
Option 4 (Solely vaccination): NTEP is a comprehensive programme covering detection, diagnosis, treatment, follow-up, and prevention. BCG vaccination is for newborns but NTEP's strategy is multi-pronged — it does not focus solely on vaccination.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Gross Domestic Product
GDP (Gross Domestic Product) is the total monetary value of all final goods and services produced within a country's geographic boundaries during a specific time period (usually a year or a quarter). It is the most widely used measure of an economy's size and health. GDP = C + I + G + (X–M) [Expenditure method]. India's GDP is measured by the Central Statistics Office (CSO) using 2011–12 as the base year. India is the 5th largest economy by nominal GDP.
Option 2 (Government Domestic Plan): Not a real economic term.
Option 3 (General Development Plan): Not a standard economic acronym.
Option 4 (Gross Demand Process): Not a recognized economic concept.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Ujjwala Yojana
Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) was launched on May 1, 2016 by PM Narendra Modi from Ballia, Uttar Pradesh, to provide free LPG (Liquefied Petroleum Gas) connections to women from Below Poverty Line (BPL) households. The objective is to replace traditional cooking fuels (wood, coal, dung cakes) with clean cooking gas, reducing indoor air pollution which causes respiratory diseases. Over 10 crore (100 million) LPG connections have been provided under PMUY.
Option 2 (Ayushman Bharat): PM Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY) provides health insurance coverage of ₹5 lakh per family per year for hospitalisation — a health scheme, not LPG.
Option 3 (PM-KISAN): Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi gives ₹6,000/year direct income support to farmer families — an agricultural support scheme, not LPG.
Option 4 (Stand-Up India): Provides bank loans between ₹10 lakh–₹1 crore to SC/ST and women entrepreneurs for greenfield enterprises — a financial inclusion/entrepreneurship scheme.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – 100
The Air Quality Index (AQI) scale used by India's Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and the US EPA both define AQI values above 100 as 'Unhealthy for Sensitive Groups' (US EPA category). In this range, people with respiratory diseases (asthma), cardiovascular conditions, elderly, and children may experience health effects. India's CPCB AQI scale: 0–50 (Good), 51–100 (Satisfactory/Moderate), 101–200 (Unhealthy for sensitive groups / Moderate–Poor), 201–300 (Very Poor), 301–400 (Severe), 401+ (Severe+/Hazardous). AQI above 100 marks the threshold where sensitive groups face risk.
Option 2 (50): AQI 0–50 is 'Good' — no health concerns for any group.
Option 3 (75): Not a defined threshold in standard AQI scales for sensitive group health impact.
Option 4 (25): Well within the 'Good' AQI range — no health concerns.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Charter Act of 1833
The Charter Act of 1833 (also called the Government of India Act 1833) made the Governor-General of Bengal the Governor-General of India — making William Bentinck the first Governor-General of India. This centralised all civil, military, and revenue powers under one authority for the entire British India. The Act also ended the East India Company's commercial activities (making it purely administrative), prohibited slavery, and for the first time talked of admitting Indians into EIC services irrespective of religion, place of birth, or colour.
Option 1 (Charter Act of 1813): Ended EIC's trade monopoly with India (except tea and trade with China); allowed Christian missionaries; did not change the Governor-General title.
Option 3 (Charter Act of 1853): Last Charter Act — separated legislative and executive functions of the Governor-General's Council; introduced open competition for ICS; did not create the title (already done in 1833).
Option 4 (Indian Council Act of 1861): Restored legislative powers to provinces (Bombay, Madras); introduced portfolio system; did not relate to the Governor-General's title change.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Kushan
The Mathura School of Art flourished primarily during the Kushan period (1st–3rd century CE), under rulers like Kanishka I. Mathura (Uttar Pradesh) was one of the most prolific centres of Buddhist, Jain, and Hindu art in ancient India. The Mathura school used local spotted red sandstone (Sikri sandstone) and created indigenous Indian representations of the Buddha — featuring shaved head, thin muslin robe (with pleats), full-fleshed body, prominent usnisha. It contrasted with the Gandhara School (influenced by Greco-Roman styles). The Mathura style was later refined in the Gupta period to create the classical Indian style.
Option 1 (Maurya): Maurya period art (3rd century BCE) is known for Ashokan pillars, stone sculptures, Pataliputra capitals; Mathura School as a distinct artistic tradition developed later under the Kushanas.
Option 2 (Gupta): Gupta period (4th–6th century CE) further developed the Mathura style into the classical Indian art form, but the Mathura School's origin and peak was under Kushanas.
Option 4 (Chola): Chola art is associated with South Indian temple architecture (Brihadeeswarar Temple) and bronze casting (Nataraja) — distinct from the Mathura school.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Kanishka
Kanishka I (Kushan King, c. 127–150 CE) was the greatest patron of Gandhara art. The Gandhara School of Art flourished in the Gandhara region (present-day northwestern Pakistan and eastern Afghanistan — Peshawar, Taxila, Swat Valley) during the Kushan empire. Gandhara art synthesised Hellenistic/Greco-Roman artistic conventions with Buddhist iconography — depicting the Buddha in realistic human form (with wavy hair, toga-like robes, Apollo-like features) for the first time. Kanishka's reign marks the golden age of Gandhara art.
Option 1 (Ashoka): Mauryan emperor (3rd century BCE) who promoted Buddhism; his art includes polished sandstone pillars, animal capitals, and rock edicts. Gandhara art developed after the Mauryan period.
Option 3 (Samudragupta): Gupta emperor (4th century CE) known as 'Indian Napoleon' for military conquests; patronised Sanskrit literature and Mathura-style Hindu temple art — not Gandhara art.
Option 4 (Harsha): 7th century CE king of Kanauj; patronised literature (Bana wrote Harshacharita for him); Gandhara art had already declined by this period.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Digital India
Digital India is a flagship programme of the Government of India launched on July 1, 2015 by PM Narendra Modi, with the vision of transforming India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy. It has three core components: digital infrastructure as a utility to every citizen, governance and services on demand, and digital empowerment of citizens. Key initiatives under Digital India: BharatNet (broadband connectivity), Common Service Centres (CSCs), DigiLocker, UMANG app, e-governance services, and promoting digital literacy.
Option 1 (Make in India): Launched September 25, 2014 to encourage manufacturing in India and create jobs; focuses on 25 economic sectors; aims to make India a global manufacturing hub — not specifically digital technology leadership.
Option 3 (Skill India): Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) — launched July 15, 2015; focuses on vocational training and skill development for youth employability; not specifically digital leadership.
Option 4 (Startup India): Launched January 16, 2016 to build a strong ecosystem for nurturing innovation and startups; includes Fund of Funds, tax exemptions, regulatory simplifications — broader than digital technology specifically.