SSC Selection Post 2025 30 July 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides
Acid rain is caused primarily by sulfur dioxide (SO₂) and nitrogen oxides (NOx) emissions. When SO₂ and NOx are released into the atmosphere (from burning fossil fuels in power plants, vehicles, and industries), they react with water vapour, oxygen, and other chemicals to form sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄) and nitric acid (HNO₃). These acids fall as acid rain (pH < 5.6), acid snow, or dry acid deposition. SO₂ + H₂O → H₂SO₃; 2SO₂ + O₂ + 2H₂O → 2H₂SO₄.
Option 1 (CO and methane): Carbon monoxide contributes to photochemical smog; methane is a greenhouse gas — neither directly causes acid rain.
Option 3 (CFCs): Chlorofluorocarbons cause stratospheric ozone depletion — not acid rain.
Option 4 (Lead and mercury): These are heavy metal pollutants causing water/soil contamination; not the primary cause of acid rain.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – The POSH Act, 2013 provides protection against sexual harassment of women at the workplace
The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013 (POSH Act) was enacted to protect women from sexual harassment at the workplace and provide a redressal mechanism. Key provisions: mandates every employer with 10+ employees to constitute an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC); defines sexual harassment broadly; requires organizations to create awareness; imposes penalties on defaulting employers. It gave statutory effect to the Vishaka Guidelines (1997) laid down by the Supreme Court.
Option 1 (Child marriage): Child marriage is governed by the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 — not POSH.
Option 3 (Orphanages): Orphanage regulation falls under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 — not POSH.
Option 4 (Domestic workers): While domestic workers are covered as 'unorganized sector' workers under POSH, the Act is not exclusively focused on them; it covers all women workers across all workplaces.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – B. R. Ambedkar
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar is universally regarded as the chief architect of the Indian Constitution. He was the Chairman of the Constitution Drafting Committee (appointed August 29, 1947) and played the most central role in drafting, debating, and finalising the Constitution. His vast knowledge of law, comparative constitutional systems, and his vision for a just, equitable society shaped the Constitution's provisions on fundamental rights, constitutional remedies, reservation for SCs/STs, and the structure of government. The Constitution was adopted on November 26, 1949.
Option 1 (Mahatma Gandhi): Gandhi was the Father of the Nation; he did not directly participate in the Constituent Assembly's drafting process and died in January 1948 before the Constitution was completed.
Option 2 (Jawaharlal Nehru): Nehru moved the Objectives Resolution and chaired the Union Powers Committee; he was India's first PM but Ambedkar was the Drafting Committee chairman and chief architect.
Option 4 (Rajendra Prasad): Rajendra Prasad was the President of the Constituent Assembly and India's first President; he presided over the Assembly sessions but Ambedkar was the chief drafter.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – When Rajya Sabha passes a resolution
Under Article 249 of the Indian Constitution, if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution (by a 2/3 majority of members present and voting) declaring that it is necessary in the national interest for Parliament to make laws on a matter in the State List, Parliament can legislate on that State List subject for up to one year (extendable). Other circumstances where Parliament can legislate on State List subjects: National Emergency (Article 250); Two or more states request Parliament to legislate (Article 252); International treaty implementation (Article 253); President's Rule in a state (Article 356).
Option 1 (Presidential ordinance): Presidential ordinances (Article 123) deal with Parliament's legislative powers during recess — not a mechanism for Parliament to legislate on State List subjects.
Option 2 (Financial Emergency): Financial Emergency (Article 360) allows the Centre to give directions to states on financial matters but does not specifically enable Parliament to legislate on State List subjects.
Option 4 (Lok Sabha dissolved): Lok Sabha dissolution has no bearing on Parliament's jurisdiction over State List subjects.

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Mahatma Gandhi
Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) is celebrated on January 9 every year to mark the return of Mahatma Gandhi from South Africa to India on January 9, 1915. Gandhi returned after 21 years in South Africa where he developed his satyagraha (non-violent resistance) philosophy while fighting against racial discrimination. PBD was instituted in 2003 to engage the Indian diaspora with their homeland and was observed annually (now biennially) with a convention bringing together the global Indian diaspora.
Option 1 (Lala Lajpat Rai): A prominent nationalist leader (Punjab Kesari); not associated with South Africa or PBD.
Option 2 (Sarojini Naidu): The Nightingale of India — poet and freedom fighter; not associated with South Africa.
Option 3 (Bal Gangadhar Tilak): The Father of Indian Unrest; known for 'Swaraj is my birthright'; not associated with South Africa.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – A is true, but R is false
Assertion (A) is TRUE: India launched the South Asian Satellite (GSAT-9) on May 5, 2017 from Sriharikota using GSLV-F09 as a 'gift' from India to its South Asian neighbours. The satellite provides communication and disaster management services to SAARC member nations (though Pakistan declined participation).
Reason (R) is FALSE: While the SAS was indeed launched from Sriharikota (this part is correct), the terminals were NOT installed in ALL SAARC countries. Pakistan declined India's offer and was not a beneficiary. The satellite serves Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Maldives, Nepal, and Sri Lanka — six of the eight SAARC members. Since R contains an incorrect claim (terminals in ALL SAARC countries), R is false as stated.
Therefore: A is true, R is false = Option C.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – 6
At the Birmingham 2022 Commonwealth Games, India won 6 gold medals in wrestling. Indian wrestling gold medal winners at CWG 2022: Bajrang Punia (Freestyle 65 kg), Sakshi Malik (Freestyle 62 kg), Deepak Punia (Freestyle 86 kg), Vinesh Phogat (Freestyle 53 kg), Ravi Kumar Dahiya (Freestyle 57 kg), and Anshu Malik (Freestyle 57 kg — she won silver, correction: Naveen (Freestyle 74 kg)). Wrestling was one of India's strongest disciplines at CWG 2022, contributing significantly to India's total of 61 medals.
Option 1 (4): Incorrect — India won 6 gold medals in wrestling at CWG 2022.
Option 3 (8): Incorrect — the count was 6 gold medals.
Option 4 (5): Incorrect — the correct number is 6.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Reduced transportation time and lower logistics costs
The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC), announced at the G20 New Delhi Summit (September 2023), benefits Indian exporters primarily by reducing transportation time and lowering logistics costs. The corridor creates a multi-modal connectivity route (ship-to-rail) from India through the UAE, Saudi Arabia, Jordan, Israel to Greece and onward to Europe — projected to cut shipping time by ~40% and logistics costs by ~30% compared to existing Suez Canal routes. This makes Indian goods more competitive in European and Middle Eastern markets.
Option 2 (Increased import duties on European goods): IMEC is a connectivity corridor, not a trade agreement imposing duties — it does not raise import duties.
Option 3 (Limited access to Middle Eastern markets): The opposite — IMEC enhances access to Middle Eastern and European markets for Indian exporters.
Option 4 (Higher tariffs on Indian exports): IMEC aims to reduce trade barriers and costs, not impose higher tariffs on Indian exports.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Colors
Holi is popularly known as the 'Festival of Colors' (and also the 'Festival of Love' and 'Festival of Spring'). Celebrated on the full moon day of the Hindu month Phalguna (February/March), Holi involves playing with colored powders (gulal) and water, bonfires (Holika Dahan on the night before), sweets, and community celebrations. It celebrates the victory of good over evil (legend of Prahlad and Holika), the arrival of spring, and the story of Radha and Krishna.
Option 1 (Lights): Diwali is the Festival of Lights — not Holi.
Option 3 (Harvest): While Holi coincides with the spring harvest of Rabi crops, it is not primarily called a harvest festival. Baisakhi (Punjab), Pongal (Tamil Nadu), and Ugadi are the prominent harvest festivals.
Option 4 (Rain): No major Indian festival is specifically called the Festival of Rain.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Gitanjali
Gitanjali (Song Offerings) is a celebrated collection of poems by Rabindranath Tagore, originally written in Bengali (1910) and translated into English prose poems by Tagore himself (1912). It won Tagore the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1913 — making him the first non-European Nobel laureate in Literature. W.B. Yeats wrote the introduction to the English edition. The collection's themes of devotion, spiritual quest, nature, and the relationship between the human and the divine made it universally acclaimed.
Option 1 (Discovery of India): Written by Jawaharlal Nehru (1946) while imprisoned at Ahmednagar Fort — a survey of Indian history, culture, and civilization.
Option 3 (Train to Pakistan): Written by Khushwant Singh (1956) — a novel about the Partition of India.
Option 4 (A Suitable Boy): Written by Vikram Seth (1993) — a novel set in post-independence India.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Mutual induction
A transformer works on the principle of mutual induction (electromagnetic induction between two coils). When alternating current flows through the primary coil, it creates a changing magnetic flux in the iron core. This changing flux links with the secondary coil and induces an alternating EMF in it (Faraday's Law). The ratio of voltages equals the ratio of turns: V₁/V₂ = N₁/N₂. The frequency remains unchanged (same AC frequency from primary to secondary) while voltage magnitude changes. Step-up transformers increase voltage; step-down transformers decrease voltage.
Option 1 (Self-induction): Self-induction is when a changing current in a coil induces an EMF in the SAME coil — not between two separate coils. Relevant to inductors, not transformers.
Option 2 (Electromagnetic radiation): Refers to radiated EM waves (light, radio waves) propagating through space — not the near-field inductive coupling principle of transformers.
Option 4 (Capacitive coupling): Uses electric field between capacitor plates to transfer energy — a different mechanism, not used in standard transformers.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Only Statement I is correct
Statement I (TRUE): Market equilibrium is defined as the condition where quantity supplied equals quantity demanded — i.e., the quantity all firms (suppliers) wish to sell equals the quantity all consumers want to buy at the equilibrium price. This is the fundamental definition of market equilibrium, where there is no tendency for price or quantity to change.
Statement II (FALSE): Excess supply (surplus) occurs when quantity supplied is GREATER than quantity demanded — not the other way around. The statement has it reversed. Excess demand (shortage) occurs when market demand is greater than market supply. Statement II confuses excess supply with excess demand.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Both statements I and II are correct
Statement I (TRUE): Intermediate goods are goods (raw materials, semi-finished products, components) used as inputs in the production of other goods. They are consumed in the production process (transformed or used up). Examples: steel used in car manufacturing, flour used in bread baking, cotton used in textile production. Intermediate goods are NOT counted separately in GDP (to avoid double counting — only value added is counted).
Statement II (TRUE): Capital goods (also called investment goods or producer durables) are durable goods used in the production of other goods or services, and they are NOT transformed into the final product. They are used repeatedly over time. Examples: machinery, factory buildings, tools, equipment, computers used in production. Capital goods maintain their physical form and contribute to productive capacity over multiple production cycles.
Both statements correctly define intermediate goods and capital goods respectively.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Unorganized sector workers
Atal Pension Yojana (APY) was launched on May 9, 2015, replacing the Swavalamban Scheme (NPS-Lite). It is targeted at workers in the unorganized sector (informal economy) — daily wage labourers, small traders, self-employed individuals — who lack access to formal pension systems. Subscribers aged 18–40 can join; they receive a guaranteed minimum pension of ₹1,000–₹5,000 per month at age 60, depending on contributions. The government co-contributed 50% (or ₹1,000/year, whichever is lower) for eligible subscribers from 2015–2020.
Option 1 (Government employees): Government employees have their own pension systems (Old Pension Scheme/NPS for central government). APY is specifically for unorganized sector workers without formal employment.
Option 2 (Senior citizens only): APY is for working-age adults (18–40 years) who build up a pension corpus for their old age — not exclusively for current senior citizens.
Option 4 (Students): Students are not the target beneficiaries of APY.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Subjective well-being
The World Happiness Report's Happiness Index primarily measures subjective well-being — how people themselves evaluate their own lives. The main measure used is the Cantril Ladder (life evaluation question): respondents rate their current life on a scale from 0 (worst possible life) to 10 (best possible life). This self-reported, subjective life satisfaction score forms the core of the happiness ranking. Additional factors (GDP, social support, health, freedom, generosity, perceptions of corruption) help explain the variation in happiness scores across countries.
Option 1 (National income): GDP per capita is ONE explanatory variable in the WHR model — but the primary measure is subjective well-being (life satisfaction), not income itself.
Option 2 (Industrial growth): Industrial/economic growth metrics are not the primary measurement of the Happiness Index.
Option 4 (Population density): Population density has no role in the Happiness Index methodology.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – The ratio of elderly (65+) to the working-age population
The Elderly Dependency Ratio (also called Old-Age Dependency Ratio) measures the number of elderly people (typically aged 65 and above) as a proportion of the working-age population (typically aged 15–64). Formula: Elderly Dependency Ratio = (Population 65+) / (Population 15–64) × 100. A higher ratio indicates more elderly dependents per working-age person, signalling greater pressure on social security, pension systems, and healthcare. Ageing populations in developed countries (Japan, Germany) have very high elderly dependency ratios.
Option 1 (Children to working-age): This is the Child Dependency Ratio — a different measure of how many children (0–14) depend on the working-age population.
Option 3 (Elderly to children): This is not a standard demographic ratio; the dependency ratio always uses working-age population as the denominator.
Option 4 (Urban to rural elderly): This is a geographic distribution measure, not a dependency ratio.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
a. Ochre-coloured pottery (i – Found in association with copper hoards): The Ochre Coloured Pottery (OCP) culture (c. 2600–1200 BCE) is an Early Historic/Chalcolithic culture associated with copper hoards found in the Ganga-Yamuna Doab region. OCP vessels have been found alongside copper hoards, suggesting a cultural/economic connection.
b. Upper Gangetic basin (ii – Region with most copper hoard discoveries): The Ganga-Yamuna Doab (upper Gangetic plain) has yielded the largest concentration of copper hoard finds in India — implements like copper celts, harpoons, antennae swords, and anthropomorphs.
c. Settled agriculturists and artisans (iii – Users of copper hoards in the doab region): The OCP/copper hoard culture people were settled communities of agriculturists and artisans in the doab region who used these copper implements for agricultural and craft activities.
d. Plateau regions of Bihar and neighbouring areas (iv – Secondary site of copper hoard findings): Some copper hoards have also been found in the plateau regions of Bihar (Chota Nagpur) and adjoining areas, representing secondary distribution sites outside the main doab concentration.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Greek
The Gandhara School of Art (1st–5th century CE) was most profoundly influenced by Greek (Hellenistic) artistic traditions. Following Alexander the Great's invasion of the Indus Valley (326 BCE) and the subsequent Indo-Greek kingdoms (2nd–1st century BCE), Hellenistic artistic conventions deeply penetrated the northwestern Indian subcontinent (Gandhara region — modern Pakistan/Afghanistan). Greek artistic influences in Gandhara: realistic human proportions, Apollo-like depiction of the Buddha, wavy hair, toga-like draped robes, naturalistic facial features, acanthus leaf decorations, and use of narrative friezes.
Option 1 (Chinese): Chinese cultural influence on Gandhara art was minimal; Gandhara predates significant Sino-Indian cultural exchange.
Option 3 (Persian): Achaemenid Persian influence existed earlier (in Mauryan art — polished stone pillars, Pataliputra capital) but Gandhara's dominant foreign influence is Hellenistic/Greek.
Option 4 (Egyptian): Egyptian artistic traditions had no significant direct influence on Gandhara school of art.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Winning the gold medal at the Asian Games
Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and Chirag Shetty, India's top men's doubles badminton pair, won the gold medal at the 2023 Asian Games in Hangzhou, China — making history as the first Indian men's doubles pair to win gold at the Asian Games. This landmark achievement, combined with their consistent world-class performances (reaching world no. 1 ranking), earned them the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award (India's highest sporting honour) in 2023.
Option 1 (Silver at World Championships): Satwik-Chirag have had podium finishes at World Championships but winning gold at the Asian Games was the specific achievement cited for the Khel Ratna.
Option 3 (Bronze at CWG): Their CWG performances were strong but the Asian Games gold was the milestone recognition.
Option 4 (National Championship): A domestic title; not the reason for the Khel Ratna.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – The tilt of the Earth's axis
Seasons occur because Earth's rotational axis is tilted at approximately 23.5° relative to its orbital plane around the Sun. This axial tilt means that as Earth orbits the Sun, different hemispheres receive varying amounts of sunlight at different times of year: when the Northern Hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun (June solstice), it experiences summer (longer days, more direct sunlight); when tilted away (December solstice), it experiences winter. The Southern Hemisphere experiences the opposite seasons simultaneously.
Option 1 (Moon's gravitational pull): The Moon's gravity primarily causes ocean tides; it does not cause seasons.
Option 3 (Earth's distance from Sun): Earth's orbit is nearly circular (eccentricity ~1.7%); Earth is actually CLOSER to the Sun in January (perihelion) than July (aphelion) — yet the Northern Hemisphere has winter in January. Distance from the Sun is NOT the cause of seasons.
Option 4 (Rotation of Earth): Earth's daily rotation (24 hours) causes day and night — not seasons.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Uttar Pradesh
Uttar Pradesh is the largest producer of mangoes in India, accounting for approximately 23–25% of India's total mango production. UP's famous mango varieties include Dasheri (Malihabad, Lucknow), Langra, and Chausa. Malihabad in Lucknow district is known as the 'Mango City' and has a GI tag for Dasheri mangoes. India is the world's largest mango producer globally, and UP leads domestic production.
Option 2 (Andhra Pradesh): Andhra Pradesh is a significant mango producer (Banganapalli/Safeda mangoes have GI tag) and ranks among top producers, but is second to UP nationally.
Option 3 (Maharashtra): Maharashtra produces Alphonso (Hapus) mangoes (Ratnagiri GI tag) — among the world's finest; but Maharashtra's total production volume is lower than UP.
Option 4 (Tamil Nadu): Tamil Nadu produces Neelam and Mulgoa varieties; not the top producer nationally.