SSC Selection Post 2025 30 July 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Governor of the State
Under Article 164 of the Indian Constitution, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor. Conventionally, the Governor appoints the leader of the majority party/alliance in the State Legislative Assembly as the Chief Minister. The Governor's role is largely ceremonial in clear majority situations but becomes discretionary in a hung assembly (no single party has majority). The Governor administers the oath of office to the Chief Minister.
Option 1 (President of India): The President appoints the Prime Minister (Article 75) — not the Chief Minister of a state.
Option 2 (Prime Minister): The PM has no constitutional role in appointing state CMs; the Governor is the constitutional authority.
Option 3 (Chief Justice of India): The CJI administers the oath to the President and has no role in CM appointments.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Reviewing legal safeguards for women and recommending remedial measures
The National Commission for Women (NCW) was established under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990. Its mandate includes: reviewing constitutional and legal safeguards for women; recommending remedial legislative measures; redressing complaints related to women's rights; advising the government on policies affecting women; conducting studies/research on women's issues; and inspecting jails/remand homes where women are detained. Vijaya Kishore Rahatkar was appointed as the 9th NCW Chairperson in 2024.
Option 1 (Fiscal and tax policies): Tax and fiscal policy design is the domain of the Ministry of Finance and CBDT — not the NCW.
Option 2 (Monetary policies): Monetary policy is the exclusive domain of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) — not the NCW.
Option 4 (National elections/voter lists): Elections are conducted by the Election Commission of India (ECI) — entirely unrelated to the NCW's mandate.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Evidence laws
The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 — thus modernising India's evidence laws. The BSA incorporates significant technology-based updates: recognition of electronic records and digital evidence as primary evidence (equivalent to documentary evidence), electronic signatures, e-mails, server logs, digital images, voice messages, and other electronic evidence are explicitly addressed. The BSA also updates provisions on secondary evidence for electronic records.
Option 1 (Civil laws): Civil laws (civil procedure) are governed by the Civil Procedure Code (CPC) — not replaced by BSA.
Option 3 (Consumer laws): Consumer protection is governed by the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 — unrelated to BSA.
Option 4 (Tax laws): Tax laws are governed by Income Tax Act, GST Acts, Customs Act, etc. — not the domain of BSA.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – National defense and foreign affairs
The Union List (List I of the Seventh Schedule, Article 246) contains 97 subjects on which only Parliament can legislate. National defence and foreign affairs are core Union List subjects: Entry 1 ( Defence of India), Entry 10 (Foreign Affairs), Entry 11 (Diplomatic and consular representation), Entry 13 (Participation in international conferences), Entry 14 (Treaties and agreements with foreign countries), etc. These subjects are exclusively under Central Government jurisdiction.
Option 1 (Police and public order): Police (Entry 2) and Public order (Entry 1) are in the State List (List II) — states have exclusive jurisdiction.
Option 3 (Education and local government): Education was moved to the Concurrent List (List III, Entry 25) by the 42nd Amendment (1976). Local government is in the State List.
Option 4 (Agriculture and rural development): Agriculture (Entry 14) and land (Entry 18) are in the State List — states have jurisdiction over these.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – 24
The Earth takes approximately 24 hours (specifically 23 hours, 56 minutes, and 4 seconds for a sidereal day — rotation relative to distant stars; 24 hours for a solar day — rotation relative to the Sun) to complete one rotation on its own axis with respect to the Sun. This period is called the Solar Day or Earth Day. The slight difference between sidereal and solar day arises because Earth is also moving in its orbit around the Sun simultaneously.
Option 1 (21 hours): Incorrect — the Earth's rotation period is approximately 24 hours, not 21.
Option 3 (25 hours): Incorrect — 25 hours is not the Earth's rotation period.
Option 4 (22 hours): Incorrect — the rotation period is approximately 24 hours.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Light pre-monsoon showers that help in the early ripening of mangoes
Mango showers are light pre-monsoon convective showers (local thunderstorm-related rainfall) that occur in Kerala, Karnataka, and parts of coastal South India during March–May, just before the Southwest Monsoon arrives. They are caused by local convective activity as the land heats up. These showers help in the early (pre-season) ripening of mangoes — hence the colloquial name 'mango showers.' They also benefit the coffee flowering in Karnataka and are called 'coffee blossoms' in that context.
Option 1 (Heavy monsoon rainfall): Mango showers are light, localised pre-monsoon rains — not heavy monsoon rainfall.
Option 3 (Tropical storm): Mango showers are convective thundershowers, not tropical cyclones or storms.
Option 4 (Winter showers): Mango showers occur in the hot pre-monsoon months (March–May), not winter. Mango flowering actually occurs in winter (Dec–Jan); the ripening aided by mango showers is in the pre-monsoon summer.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Lakshadweep
As per Census 2011, Lakshadweep has the lowest population of any Union Territory (and of any state/UT) in India — with just 64,473 people. It is an archipelago of coral islands in the Arabian Sea. Note: Ladakh was not a separate UT in 2011 (it was part of Jammu & Kashmir state); it became a UT only on October 31, 2019.
Option 2 (Andaman & Nicobar): Population of 3,80,581 as per Census 2011 — significantly more than Lakshadweep.
Option 3 (Ladakh): Was part of J&K in 2011 Census; became a separate UT in 2019. Its population as a UT would be approximately 2.74 lakh — but this was not separately counted in 2011.
Option 4 (Puducherry): Population of 12,47,953 as per Census 2011 — much higher than Lakshadweep.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Nagaland
Nagaland is the only Indian state that recorded a negative decadal population growth rate in Census 2011 — a decline of -0.58% from 2001 to 2011 (population decreased from 19.88 lakh to 19.79 lakh). This was attributed to out-migration (people leaving for better opportunities), revision of inflated 2001 Census figures (it is believed that the 2001 Census over-counted Nagaland's population for political reasons related to inner-line permits and state-funded benefits), and demographic factors.
Option 2 (Kerala): Kerala had a positive but low decadal growth rate of 4.86% — the lowest among states with positive growth; not negative.
Option 3 (Goa): Goa had a decadal growth rate of 8.23% — positive.
Option 4 (Assam): Assam had a decadal growth rate of 16.93% — positive and above national average.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Brazil
Brazil hosts approximately 60% of the Amazon Rainforest — the world's largest tropical rainforest covering about 5.5 million km² across South America. Brazil is a founding BRICS member. The Amazon is critical for global climate regulation, biodiversity (10% of all Earth's species), and the water cycle. Brazil's Amazon has faced significant deforestation pressure, making its conservation a major global environmental concern.
Option 1 (China): China's major forest biomes include temperate and subtropical forests; China does not host the Amazon.
Option 3 (Russia): Russia has the Taiga (boreal/Siberian forest) — the world's largest forest biome by area — but not the Amazon Rainforest.
Option 4 (India): India has tropical forests in the Western Ghats, Northeast India, and Andaman Islands; not the Amazon.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Chilika Lake
Chilika Lake (Odisha) is India's first and largest Ramsar wetland site, designated in 1981. It is Asia's largest coastal lagoon (approximately 1,100 km²), situated on the coast of Odisha. Chilika is a critical habitat for migratory birds (over 160 migratory species from Central Asia, China, Iran), supports the endangered Irrawaddy dolphins, and provides livelihood to fishing communities. India has over 85 Ramsar sites (as of 2024 — the most of any country).
Option 2 ( Chandubi Lake): A seasonal lake in Kamrup district, Assam; not a Ramsar site.
Option 3 (Sukhna Lake): A man-made reservoir in Chandigarh; a popular recreational lake but not a Ramsar site.
Option 4 ( Silsako Lake): A wetland in Guwahati, Assam; not an official Ramsar designated site.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Aditya-L1
Aditya-L1 is India's first solar observatory mission, launched by ISRO on September 2, 2023 using PSLV-C57. It was placed in a halo orbit around the Sun-Earth Lagrange Point 1 (L1) — approximately 1.5 million km from Earth. From this vantage point, Aditya-L1 can continuously observe the Sun without any occultation/eclipse. Its seven payloads study the solar corona, solar wind, solar flares, coronal mass ejections (CMEs), and space weather. India became the 5th country to reach L1.
Option 2 (Chandrayaan-4): India's planned lunar sample return mission — targets the Moon, not L1.
Option 3 (Mangalyaan-2): India's planned second Mars mission — targets Mars, not the Sun-Earth L1.
Option 4 (Astrosat-2): Astrosat (not Astrosat-2) was India's first dedicated multi-wavelength space observatory launched in 2015 in low Earth orbit — not positioned at L1 and not a solar mission.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – West Bengal
The Baul music tradition is a syncretic devotional folk music tradition originating in Bengal — primarily West Bengal (India) and Bangladesh. Bauls are mystic minstrels who blend elements of Vaishnavism (bhakti), Sufism, and Tantrism in their music and philosophy. They travel as wandering performers, singing their compositions ( baul songs) while playing the ektara (one-stringed instrument), dotara , and dhol . Rabindranath Tagore was deeply influenced by Baul music. The Baul tradition was inscribed on UNESCO's Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity list in 2008.
Option 1 (Rajasthan): Rajasthan has its own rich folk music traditions — Maand , Manganiyar , Langas, Kalbeliya ; Baul is not from Rajasthan.
Option 3 (Gujarat): Gujarat's folk music includes Garba songs, Bhavai ; Baul is not from Gujarat.
Option 4 (Tamil Nadu): Tamil Nadu has Carnatic classical music and Tamil folk traditions; Baul is not from Tamil Nadu.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Ramchandra Guha
'Makers of Modern India' (2010) is a book by Ramchandra Guha, the renowned Indian historian and biographer. The book is an anthology of writings by 19 Indian thinkers who shaped modern India, including Rammohan Roy, Jyotirao Phule, Gokhale, Tilak, Gandhi, Nehru, Ambedkar, Periyar, Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay, and others. Guha selected their key writings and provided biographical introductions. Ramchandra Guha is also known for 'India After Gandhi' (2007), 'Gandhi Before India' (2013), 'Gandhi: The Years That Changed the World' (2018), and 'Environmentalism: A Global History' (2000).
Option 2 (Harishankar Parsai ): A celebrated Hindi satirist and humorist; known for works like ' Ratnon ka Haar', 'Tanka, Bhonda aur Mot'; did not write 'Makers of Modern India'.
Option 3 (Patricia Lockwood): An American poet and memoirist (' Priestdaddy '); not related to Indian history.
Option 4 (Sandhya Menon): A contemporary Indian-American romance novelist; not related to modern Indian history.

Correct Answer: Option 4 – R.K. Narayan
R.K. Narayan (Rasipuram Krishnaswami Iyer Narayanaswami, 1906–2001), the beloved author of the Malgudi Days series and novels like 'The Guide', 'Swami and Friends', 'The Bachelor of Arts', wrote primarily in English. The Jnanpith Award is given for outstanding contribution to Indian literature written in languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution — R.K. Narayan wrote in English, which is not in the Eighth Schedule. Thus he was not a Jnanpith recipient (though he received Padma Bhushan and Padma Vibhushan).
Option 1 (Gulzar): Received the 58th Jnanpith Award (2023) for his contributions to Urdu literature. He is a legendary lyricist, poet, and filmmaker.
Option 2 (Jagadguru Rambhadracharya ): Received the 57th Jnanpith Award (2023) for Sanskrit literature — a noted Sanskrit scholar and spiritual leader.
Option 3 (Vinod Kumar Shukla): Received the 59th Jnanpith Award (2024) for his contributions to Hindi literature — renowned for novels like ' Naukar ki Kameez' and ' Deewar Mein Ek Khidki Rehti Thi '.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – 1927
The Indian Olympic Association (IOA) was founded in 1927 by Sir Dorabji Tata (its first President) and Harry Buck. The IOA is the National Olympic Committee (NOC) of India, affiliated to the International Olympic Committee (IOC). It is responsible for selecting and sending Indian athletes to the Olympic Games, Commonwealth Games, and Asian Games. India first participated in the Olympics in 1900 (Norman Pritchard, silver medals in 200m sprint and 200m hurdles) but the IOA was formally constituted in 1927.
Option 2 (1920): India participated in the 1920 Antwerp Olympics but the IOA was not yet formed; India was represented informally.
Option 3 (1930): The IOA was already established by 1927; 1930 is incorrect.
Option 4 (1947): India's independence year; the IOA predates independence, having been formed in 1927.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – 30 seconds
In Kabaddi, a raider (the player who crosses into the opponent's half) has 30 seconds to touch as many defenders as possible and return to their own half — all while chanting 'kabaddi, kabaddi' continuously (in traditional rules) without taking a breath. If the raider fails to return within 30 seconds or is tackled by defenders, they are declared out. The 30-second time limit is standard in Pro Kabaddi League (PKL) and international Kabaddi (under Amateur Kabaddi Federation of India rules).
Option 1 (20 sec): Incorrect — the standard raid time is 30 seconds in official Kabaddi rules.
Option 3 (40 sec): Incorrect — 40 seconds exceeds the standard time limit.
Option 4 (1 min): Incorrect — 1 minute would be too long for a single raid in competitive Kabaddi.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – China
Hambantota Port in southern Sri Lanka was developed primarily with loans from China (China Exim Bank) and constructed by China Harbour Engineering Company. When Sri Lanka was unable to service its debt, it leased Hambantota Port to China Merchants Port Holdings Company on a 99-year lease in 2017 — a development widely discussed as an example of China's 'debt-trap diplomacy.' Hambantota is strategically located near major Indian Ocean shipping lanes.
Option 1 (India): India has development assistance projects in Sri Lanka (power plants, housing) but did not finance Hambantota Port.
Option 3 (USA): The US has no significant role in Hambantota Port's development.
Option 4 (Japan): Japan is a major development lender in South and Southeast Asia but did not finance Hambantota Port.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Health ID
The National Digital Health Mission (NDHM), now called Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM), was launched on September 27, 2021 by PM Modi. Its primary objective is to create a unique Health ID (ABHA — Ayushman Bharat Health Account) for every Indian citizen. The Health ID is a 14-digit unique number that stores all medical records (consultations, diagnoses, prescriptions, lab reports, hospitalisation ) digitally, enabling seamless sharing of health data between providers with patient consent. The mission also creates Health Professional Registry and Health Facility Registry.
Option 1 (Vaccine ID): CoWIN provided vaccine certificates during COVID-19; NDHM/ABDM's primary creation is the Health ID, not a vaccine-specific ID.
Option 3 (Aadhaar ID): Aadhaar is a biometric identity document issued by UIDAI — a separate system. While Aadhaar can be linked to Health ID, the NDHM's own creation is the Health ID.
Option 4 (Disease Registry): Disease registries are maintained by ICMR for specific diseases (cancer, TB); NDHM creates a personal Health ID, not a disease registry.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Newton's Third Law of Motion
Newton's Third Law of Motion states: 'For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.' In rocket propulsion: the rocket engine burns fuel and expels hot exhaust gases backward at high velocity (action); the rocket is propelled forward by an equal and opposite force (reaction). This thrust force equals the rate of change of momentum of ejected gases (F = dp /dt). Rockets work even in vacuum because they carry their own propellant and oxidizer, relying only on Newton's Third Law — not air resistance or external support.
Option 1 (Newton's First Law): The Law of Inertia — objects continue in their state of rest/uniform motion unless acted upon by a net force. Explains why the rocket keeps moving once in space but not the propulsion mechanism.
Option 2 (Law of Conservation of Mass): Concerns that mass is neither created nor destroyed; not the principle explaining rocket propulsion direction.
Option 4 (Law of Gravitation): Newton's Universal Law of Gravitation explains gravitational attraction between masses — not rocket propulsion by ejected fuel.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Budget
The Union Budget (Annual Financial Statement) is the annual financial statement of the Government of India, presented under Article 112 of the Constitution. It sets out the government's estimated receipts (revenue and capital) and expenditures for the coming financial year (April 1 – March 31). The Budget is presented by the Finance Minister in Parliament, typically on February 1. It includes the Revenue Budget (current income/expenditure) and Capital Budget (long-term assets/liabilities). The Budget also incorporates Finance Bill and Appropriation Bill.
Option 2 (Economic Survey): The Economic Survey is a companion document to the Budget, prepared by the Ministry of Finance's Chief Economic Advisor — it reviews the economy's performance and outlook. It is presented the day before the Budget but is NOT the annual financial statement itself.
Option 3 (Balance Sheet): A balance sheet is a corporate accounting statement showing assets, liabilities, and equity at a point in time — not the government's annual financial statement.
Option 4 (Fiscal Policy): Fiscal policy refers to the government's use of taxation and expenditure to influence the economy — a policy framework, not a document.

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Eight
India's National Air Quality Index (AQI), launched by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) in 2014 under the National Air Quality Monitoring Programme (NAMP), measures eight pollutants: (1) PM2.5, (2) PM10, (3) NO₂ (Nitrogen Dioxide), (4) SO₂ (Sulphur Dioxide), (5) CO (Carbon Monoxide), (6) O₃ (Ozone), (7) NH₃ (Ammonia), and (8) Pb (Lead). The AQI is calculated for each pollutant separately and the highest sub-index value is taken as the overall AQI. Scale: 0–50 Good, 51–100 Satisfactory, 101–200 Moderate, 201–300 Poor, 301–400 Very Poor, 401–500 Severe.
Option 1 (Three): Incorrect — India's AQI uses eight pollutants, not three.
Option 2 (Four): Incorrect — eight pollutants are used.
Option 3 (Five): Incorrect — the correct number is eight.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Lord Curzon
Lord Curzon (Viceroy of India, 1899–1905) carried out the Partition of Bengal on October 16, 1905. He divided the Bengal Province (which included present-day West Bengal, Bangladesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, and Odisha — the largest province of British India) into two: East Bengal and Assam (Muslim majority, capital Dhaka) and West Bengal (Hindu majority, capital Calcutta). The official justification was administrative efficiency, but the real motive was seen as divide-and-rule — dividing Hindus and Muslims. The Partition sparked the Swadeshi Movement and was revoked in 1911.
Option 2 (Lord Ripon): Viceroy 1880–1884; known for the Ilbert Bill controversy and local self-government; partitioned Bengal 21 years before Curzon.
Option 3 (Lord Lytton): Viceroy 1876–1880; known for the Vernacular Press Act, the Second Anglo-Afghan War, and the Delhi Durbar (1877); not associated with Bengal Partition.
Option 4 (Lord Dalhousie): Viceroy 1848–1856; known for Doctrine of Lapse, annexing Punjab, introduction of railways/telegraph; not associated with 1905 Bengal Partition.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Rights of Indian judges
The Ilbert Bill (1883), introduced by Law Member Sir Courtenay Ilbert under Viceroy Lord Ripon, proposed to allow Indian judges and magistrates to try cases involving European (British) defendants in Session Courts. At the time, Indians were legally barred from trying cases against Europeans — a racial privilege. The bill sparked massive protest from the European community in India (planters, merchants, officials) who argued against being tried by Indian judges. The bill was diluted by amendment: Europeans could demand a jury with at least half European members. The controversy highlighted racial inequality in British India and galvanised Indian public opinion.
Option 2 (Income tax): Income tax was introduced much earlier in India (1860 by James Wilson); not related to the 1883 Ilbert Bill.
Option 3 (Expansion of railways): Railway expansion was an ongoing British policy; not the subject of the Ilbert Bill.
Option 4 ( Indianisation of the army): Indianisation of the officer corps was a 20th-century issue; not related to the 1883 Ilbert Bill.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Gandhara
The Gandhara School of Art (1st–5th century CE, northwestern India/Pakistan — Peshawar, Taxila, Swat) was heavily influenced by Hellenistic (Greek) art traditions due to the legacy of Alexander the Great's invasion (326 BCE) and subsequent Indo-Greek kingdoms. Key Hellenistic features in Gandhara art: Buddha depicted with wavy hair (like Apollo), toga-like robe with drapery folds, realistic facial features, muscular body proportions, use of blue-grey schist stone. Gandhara art represents the first anthropomorphic depiction of the Buddha in human form.
Option 1 (Mathura): Indigenously Indian in inspiration — used local red sandstone, depicted Buddha with shaved head, thin muslin robe, prominent usnisha ; minimal foreign influence.
Option 3 (Amaravati): South Indian school (Andhra Pradesh) known for limestone marble sculptures with dynamic compositions and narrative friezes — indigenous style with no significant Hellenistic influence.
Option 4 (Nagara): This refers to the North Indian temple architectural style (curvilinear shikhara tower) — not a school of sculpture/painting, and not Hellenistic.