SSC Selection Post 2025 31 July 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
Justice Dr. Dhananjaya Yeshwant Chandrachud was appointed as the 50th Chief Justice of India (CJI) on November 9, 2022, succeeding Justice U.U. Lalit (49th CJI). Justice Chandrachud served as CJI until November 10, 2024. He was previously a judge of the Supreme Court of India (since 2016) and Chief Justice of the Allahabad High Court. During his tenure as CJI, he presided over several landmark judgments including decisions on electoral bonds, Article 370, and same-sex marriage cases.
Option 2 (Justice U.U. Lalit): Justice Uday Umesh Lalit was the 49th CJI (August–November 2022), immediately preceding Justice Chandrachud.
Option 3 (Justice N.V. Ramana): Justice N.V. Ramana was the 48th CJI (April 2021–August 2022), two positions before this appointment.
Option 4 (Justice R. Banumath ): Not a CJI of India.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Chapter V
The Bharatiya Nyaya Samhita (BNS), 2023 — which replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860 — contains Chapter V dedicated to offences against women and children. This chapter covers sexual assault, rape, stalking, voyeurism, crimes against children (including child trafficking and POCSO-related offences), and other gender-based crimes. The BNS came into effect on July 1, 2024, as part of the three new criminal laws replacing IPC, CrPC, and Indian Evidence Act.
Option 1 (Chapter III): Deals with offences against the state — not specifically women and children.
Option 3 (Chapter VI): Covers different categories of offences.
Option 4 (Chapter IX): Not the chapter focused on crimes against women and children.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Street vendors
PM SVANidhi (PM Street Vendor's AtmaNirbhar Nidhi), launched on June 1, 2020, is a micro-credit scheme specifically designed to provide affordable working capital loans to street vendors whose livelihoods were adversely affected by the COVID-19 pandemic. Under the scheme: Initial loan of ₹10,000 → on timely repayment, enhanced credit of ₹20,000 → then ₹50,000. It also provides incentive for digital transactions and credit score building. The scheme covers street vendors operating in urban areas across India.
Option 2 (Small farmers): PM-KISAN (PM Kisan Samman Nidhi) provides income support to farmers — not PM SVANidhi .
Option 3 (Rural artisans): PM Vishwakarma scheme supports traditional artisans and craftspeople.
Option 4 (Fisherman): PM Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) supports fishermen and the fisheries sector.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Deficit
A Budget Deficit (Fiscal Deficit) occurs when a government's total expenditure exceeds its total revenue in a given financial year. Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure − Total Revenue Receipts (excluding borrowings). It indicates the amount the government needs to borrow to finance its excess spending. India's Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003 sets targets for reducing the fiscal deficit. A deficit can be financed through borrowings from RBI (monetization), market borrowings, or foreign borrowings.
Option 1 (Surplus): Budget Surplus is the opposite — when revenue exceeds expenditure.
Option 3 (Investment): Investment refers to capital formation/spending on productive assets — not the term for when spending exceeds revenue.
Option 4 (Expenditure): Expenditure is simply the amount spent — not the term for the condition when spending exceeds revenue.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Economic Cooperation
BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa) is primarily a grouping focused on economic cooperation and development. Originally coined as BRIC by Goldman Sachs economist Jim O'Neill in 2001 to describe the four fastest-growing economies, it became a formal grouping in 2006 (South Africa joined in 2010). Main objectives: economic cooperation and trade among member nations; reform of global financial institutions (IMF, World Bank) to give emerging economies more voice; New Development Bank (NDB, headquartered in Shanghai) for infrastructure financing in developing nations; technology and science cooperation. BRICS represents about 42% of the world's population and ~24% of global GDP.
Option 1 (Military Alliance): BRICS is not a military alliance — it has no collective defence treaty like NATO.
Option 3 (Space Exploration): While BRICS member nations have their own space agencies, space exploration is not the primary purpose of BRICS.
Option 4 (Maritime security): Maritime security is not the primary mandate of BRICS, though it may be discussed in meetings.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Observe solar activity
Aditya-L1 is India's first space-based solar observatory, launched by ISRO on September 2, 2023, using PSLV-C57. It was placed in a halo orbit around the Sun-Earth Lagrangian Point 1 (L1) — approximately 1.5 million km from Earth — in January 2024. The primary objective is to observe and study the Sun's outermost layer (corona), solar wind, solar flares, coronal mass ejections (CMEs), and the solar magnetic field. It carries seven payloads including VELC (Visible Emission Line Coronagraph), SUIT, and others. Studying solar activity helps understand space weather and its impact on Earth.
Option 1 (Study Earth's atmosphere): Earth's atmosphere is studied by other ISRO missions like EOS/ Resourcesat ; Aditya-L1 focuses on the Sun.
Option 2 (Explore Moon's surface): Chandrayaan missions are India's lunar exploration missions — not Aditya-L1.
Option 4 (Map Mars' surface): Mars Orbiter Mission (Mangalyaan) studied Mars — not Aditya-L1.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Tansen
Raga Miya Malhar (or Miyan ki Malhar) is traditionally attributed to Tansen (c. 1506–1589), the legendary Dhrupad vocalist and one of the Navaratnas (nine gems) in Emperor Akbar's court. According to legend, Tansen could invoke rain by singing Raga Malhar. The prefix 'Miya' (meaning 'master/respected one') before Malhar honours Tansen's contribution to this raag. Miya Malhar is a monsoon raga and is considered one of the most evocative ragas in Hindustani classical music, associated with the rains.
Option 2 ( Swaragdeo Rudra Singha): Not historically associated with Miya Malhar.
Option 3 (Ravi Shankar): The legendary sitar maestro of the 20th century; not the creator of Miya Malhar.
Option 4 (Amir Khusro): Another legendary musician (Sufi composer, Khyal /Qawwali pioneer) associated with several innovations in Indian classical music, but Miya Malhar is specifically attributed to Tansen.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Vishnu Sharma
The Panchatantra is an ancient Indian collection of interrelated animal fables in Sanskrit, attributed to the scholar Vishnu Sharma (estimated 3rd century BCE). It was composed to educate three princes of the Amarasakti kingdom in niti (worldly wisdom, statecraft, and practical ethics) through engaging stories. Divided into five tantras (books): Mitra- bheda (Loss of Friends), Mitra- samprapti (Gaining Friends), Kakolukiyam (Crows and Owls), Labdhapranasam (Loss of Gains), and Aparikshitakaraka (Hasty Action). The Panchatantra has been translated into over 50 languages and influenced Aesop's Fables and Arabian Nights.
Option 2 ( Bhasa ): A classical Sanskrit playwright (c. 3rd century CE) known for dramas like Svapnavasavadatta — not the Panchatantra.
Option 3 (Kalidasa): The greatest Sanskrit poet and playwright — author of Abhijnanasakuntalam, Meghaduta , Raghuvamsa — not the Panchatantra.
Option 4 (Dandin): A 7th-century Sanskrit scholar known for Dasakumaracharita and Kavyadarsha — not the Panchatantra.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Salman Rushdie
Midnight's Children (1981) was written by Salman Rushdie, a British-Indian novelist. The novel won the Booker Prize (1981) and later the Booker of Bookers (1993 and 2008) — voted the best Booker Prize winner of all time in two separate polls. The novel is a magical realist work about Saleem Sinai, born at the exact moment of India's independence (midnight, August 15, 1947), and his supernatural connection with other 'midnight's children' born in that same hour. It interweaves the history of post-independence India with Saleem's personal saga.
Option 1 (Vikram Seth): Author of A Suitable Boy (1993) and The Golden Gate — not Midnight's Children.
Option 3 (Jhumpa Lahiri): Pulitzer Prize-winning author of The Namesake and Interpreter of Maladies — not Midnight's Children.
Option 4 (Amitav Ghosh): Author of The Shadow Lines, Sea of Poppies (Ibis Trilogy) — not Midnight's Children.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – 2008
The Indian Premier League (IPL), organized by the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI), held its inaugural edition in 2008. The first IPL season ran from April 18 to June 1, 2008. Eight franchise teams participated. The inaugural match was between Kolkata Knight Riders and Royal Challengers Bangalore at Eden Gardens, Kolkata. The first IPL champion was Rajasthan Royals, who defeated Chennai Super Kings in the final. Shane Warne (Rajasthan Royals captain) and Brendon McCullum (KKR, scored 158* in the opening match) were among the first season's iconic moments.
Option 1 (2005): No IPL in 2005. The Twenty20 format at domestic level existed, but IPL hadn't started yet.
Option 2 (2007): The ICC World Twenty20 was held in 2007 (won by India). IPL started a year later in 2008.
Option 4 (2010): IPL's 3rd edition was in 2010. The first edition was 2008.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – 8
The Indian men's hockey team has won 8 Olympic gold medals — the most by any nation in Olympic field hockey history. The eight gold medals were won at: 1928 (Amsterdam), 1932 (Los Angeles), 1936 (Berlin), 1948 (London), 1952 (Helsinki), 1956 (Melbourne), 1964 (Tokyo), 1980 (Moscow). India dominated Olympic hockey for five decades (1928–1980). India also won 1 silver (1960) and 2 bronze medals (1968, 1972) in this era. The 2021 Tokyo Olympics saw India win bronze — ending a 41-year Olympic medal drought.
Option 1 (6): Incorrect — India won 8 Olympic gold medals, not 6.
Option 3 (10): Incorrect — the total is 8 gold medals.
Option 4 (12): Incorrect — India won 8 gold medals in Olympic hockey.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Iran
Chabahar Port is located on the Makran coast of Sistan-Baluchestan province in southeastern Iran, along the Gulf of Oman. It is Iran's only oceanic port. India has been developing and operating Shahid Beheshti terminal at Chabahar under a 10-year agreement signed in 2016 (later extended with a long-term deal in May 2024). Strategic significance for India: provides India direct access to Afghanistan and Central Asian Republics bypassing Pakistan; serves as India's counter to China's Gwadar Port (in Pakistan); connects to the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) linking India to Russia/Europe via Iran.
Option 1 (Pakistan): Pakistan hosts Gwadar Port (developed by China), not Chabahar.
Option 3 (UAE): The UAE has ports like Jebel Ali (Dubai) — not Chabahar.
Option 4 (India): India is the investor/developer of Chabahar, not its location. Chabahar is in Iran.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Krishna I
The Kailasa Temple (Cave 16) at Ellora, Maharashtra, is the world's largest rock-cut temple and one of the greatest achievements of ancient Indian architecture. It was commissioned by the Rashtrakuta king Krishna I (reign c. 756–773 CE) and carved out of a single basalt cliff by excavating downward from the top. The temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva and replicates the mythical Mount Kailash (Shiva's abode). About 200,000 tonnes of rock were carved out and removed. The temple features intricate sculptures including the famous Ravana Shaking Mount Kailash panel.
Option 1 (Ashoka): Mauryan Emperor Ashoka (3rd century BCE) built stupas and rock edicts but not the Kailasa Temple.
Option 3 (Rajaraja Chola): Built the Brihadeeswarar Temple (Thanjavur) — a built/constructed (not rock-cut) Dravidian temple in Tamil Nadu.
Option 4 (Chandragupta II): Gupta Emperor (4th–5th century CE) — the Gupta period saw the development of earlier Ellora caves, but the Kailasa Temple was built by Krishna I of the Rashtrakuta dynasty.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Zydus Cadila
ZyCoV -D was developed by Zydus Cadila (now Zydus Lifesciences), an Ahmedabad-based Indian pharmaceutical company, in collaboration with the Department of Biotechnology (DBT). It became the world's first DNA-based COVID-19 vaccine to receive emergency use authorisation (EUA) — granted by DCGI in August 2021. Unlike conventional vaccines, ZyCoV -D uses plasmid DNA that instructs cells to produce the spike protein of SARS-CoV-2. It is administered as a three-dose regimen using a needle-free Pharmajet injector.
Option 1 (ICMR): The Indian Council of Medical Research co-developed Covaxin (with Bharat Biotech) — an inactivated virus vaccine, not a DNA vaccine.
Option 2 (Bharat Biotech): Developed Covaxin (inactivated virus) and Covishield (in partnership with AstraZeneca/Serum Institute) — not ZyCoV -D.
Option 4 (DRDO): Developed 2-DG (2-Deoxy-D-Glucose), a COVID-19 treatment drug — not the ZyCoV -D vaccine.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Its combustion produces only water vapour and no greenhouse gases
Hydrogen (H₂) is considered a clean fuel because when it burns (combustion: 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O), the only by-product is water vapour — no carbon dioxide (CO₂), no carbon monoxide (CO), no particulate matter, and no greenhouse gases. This makes hydrogen a zero-emission fuel at the point of use. When produced using renewable energy (green hydrogen), it represents a completely clean energy carrier. This is why hydrogen fuel cells are being developed for electric vehicles, power generation, and industrial applications.
Option 1 (No energy loss): All energy conversion processes have some losses (thermodynamic efficiency limits). Hydrogen combustion also has energy losses.
Option 2 (Easily available in pure form): Hydrogen is NOT freely available in pure form in the atmosphere. It must be produced through electrolysis, steam methane reforming, or other processes — it is not naturally available as a free gas.
Option 4 (Lower ignition temperature): Hydrogen actually has a LOWER minimum ignition energy than many fuels, making it somewhat more flammable — this is a safety concern, not its advantage as a clean fuel.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Good
India's Air Quality Index (AQI) is calculated by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) on a scale of 0–500, divided into six categories: Good (0–50) — minimal impact; Satisfactory (51–100) — minor breathing discomfort to sensitive people; Moderate (101–200) — breathing discomfort to people with heart/lung disease; Poor (201–300) — breathing discomfort to most people; Very Poor (301–400) — respiratory illness risk; Severe (401–500) — serious health impacts, even healthy people affected. The category with AQI 0–50 is 'Good'.
Option 1 (Satisfactory): AQI 51–100 is Satisfactory — not 0-50.
Option 2 (Moderate): AQI 101–200 is Moderate.
Option 4 (Poor): AQI 201–300 is Poor.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – The river originates in the Himalayas, known as the Yarlung Tsangpo in Tibet
The Brahmaputra River originates from the Chemayungdung glacier near Mansarovar Lake in the Tibetan Himalayas (at an altitude of ~5,300 m). In Tibet, it is known as the Yarlung Tsangpo (or Tsangpo ), meaning 'the purifier'. It flows eastward across Tibet for about 1,700 km, then makes a sharp U-turn (great bend) at the Namcha Barwa peak, enters Arunachal Pradesh (India) as Dihang /Siang, and becomes the Brahmaputra in Assam before entering Bangladesh where it merges with the Ganga as the Jamuna.
Option 1 (Eastern Ghats/Narmada): The Narmada originates in the Amarkantak Plateau (Madhya Pradesh) — no relation to Brahmaputra.
Option 3 (Aravalli Range/Sindhu): The Indus (Sindhu) originates in Tibet but not from the Aravalli Range — it originates near Mansarovar . The Aravalli Range is in Rajasthan.
Option 4 (Western Ghats/Ganga): The Ganga originates at Gangotri glacier in Uttarakhand — it is not called the Ganga in Tibet.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Uttar Pradesh
According to the Census of India 2011, Uttar Pradesh (UP) is the most populous state with a population of approximately 199.8 million (nearly 20 crore), accounting for about 16.5% of India's total population. UP has consistently been the most populous state in every census since independence. The top five most populous states (Census 2011): 1. Uttar Pradesh (~20 crore); 2. Maharashtra (~11.2 crore); 3. Bihar (~10.4 crore); 4. West Bengal (~9.1 crore); 5. Andhra Pradesh (undivided).
Option 1 (Maharashtra): 2nd most populous state (~11.2 crore) — not the most populous.
Option 2 (Bihar): 3rd most populous state (~10.4 crore) — not the most populous.
Option 4 (West Bengal): 4th most populous state (~9.1 crore) — not the most populous.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – 15-59 years
According to Census 2011, the working-age population (15–59 years) constitutes the largest share of India's population at approximately 62–63% of the total. This is the 'demographic dividend' window India is experiencing — a large working-age population relative to dependents. Age group distribution (Census 2011 approx.): 0–14 years: ~29%; 15–59 years: ~63%; 60+ years: ~8%. India's median age was about 26.7 years in 2011, indicating a relatively young but predominantly working-age population.
Option 1 (0-14 years): The child/youth population (0-14) is approximately 29% — significant but less than the 15-59 age group.
Option 3 (60+ years): The elderly population (60+) is approximately 8% — a smaller share.
Option 4 (80+ years): This is an even smaller sub-group within the elderly category.

Correct Answer: Option 4 – National Mission on Sustainable Habitat
The National Mission on Sustainable Habitat (NMSH) is one of the eight missions under India's National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC, launched 2008). NMSH specifically aims to make India's cities more climate-resilient and sustainable through: promoting energy efficiency in buildings (Energy Conservation Building Code); better urban planning and management; sustainable transport systems; municipal solid waste management; and adaptation strategies for urban areas to cope with climate change impacts like floods, heat islands, and water scarcity.
Option 1 (Swachh Bharat Abhiyan): Focuses on sanitation, open defecation free India, and solid waste management — not specifically climate resilience.
Option 2 (AMRUT Mission): Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation focuses on basic urban infrastructure (water supply, sewerage, parks) — not specifically climate resilience.
Option 3 (National Solar Mission): One of the 8 NAPCC missions focused on solar energy deployment (Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission) — not urban climate resilience.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Charter Act of 1813
The Charter Act of 1813 ended the East India Company's (EIC) trade monopoly with India (though it retained monopoly over trade with China and the tea trade until 1833). The EIC had enjoyed a monopoly over trade with India since its charter in 1600. The Charter Act of 1813 threw open India's trade to all British merchants, ending the EIC's exclusive commercial privileges. It also allowed Christian missionaries to come to India and allocated ₹1 lakh annually for the education of Indians.
Option 2 (Regulating Act of 1773): The first Act of Parliament to exercise control over the EIC in India — it created the post of Governor-General (Warren Hastings) and a Supreme Court in Calcutta. It did not end the trade monopoly.
Option 3 (Indian Councils Act of 1861): Introduced a legislative council system in British India — not related to ending the EIC trade monopoly.
Option 4 (Government of India Act of 1935): The EIC had already been dissolved in 1858 after the 1857 uprising. The GoI Act 1935 established a federal structure for British India — not related to EIC monopoly.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Establishment of federal government
The Government of India Act, 1935 was a landmark piece of legislation that proposed the establishment of an All-India Federation comprising British Indian provinces and princely states. Key features: proposed a federal structure with a Federal Legislature (Council of States + Federal Assembly); established provincial autonomy (dyarchy in provinces abolished, full provincial self-government introduced); bicameral legislatures in six provinces; a Federal Court established; RBI established. Though the federal part never came into force (princely states did not accede), the provincial part was implemented in 1937 elections.
Option 1 (Abolition of Zamindari system): The Zamindari system was abolished after independence by various state land reform acts in the 1950s — not by the GoI Act 1935.
Option 3 (Separate electorates): Separate electorates were introduced by the Morley-Minto Reforms (Indian Councils Act 1909) — not the GoI Act 1935.
Option 4 (Full independence): The GoI Act 1935 did not grant independence. India gained independence on August 15, 1947 under the Indian Independence Act, 1947.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Elegant human figures
The Mathura School of Art (1st–3rd century CE), which flourished in Mathura (Uttar Pradesh) during the Kushana period, is particularly celebrated for its elegant, sensuous depiction of human figures — especially the Buddha and Bodhisattvas. Key features of Mathura art: first school to create anthropomorphic images of the Buddha (before this, the Buddha was depicted symbolically); figures show Indian physical characteristics (unlike Gandhara's Greek influence); use of local red sandstone (from Sikri quarries); the Buddha is depicted without a halo initially, then with one; thin, transparent flowing robes; shaven or curly hair. The Mathura School greatly influenced the later Gupta style.
Option 2 (Animals and nature): While animals appear in Indian art, Mathura School is specifically renowned for human figures and the Buddha image.
Option 3 (Decorative floral motifs): Floral motifs are present in many Indian art traditions but are not the defining characteristic of Mathura School.
Option 4 (Fierce expressions and dynamic postures): Dynamic postures are more associated with medieval temple sculptures or the Hoysala/ Vijayanagara styles — not Mathura's predominantly serene, elegant style.