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Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 20 December 2025 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 37 GK / GS questions asked in Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 on 20 December 2025 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Ancient History, Static GK, Polity, Economics, Current Affairs, Geography.

📚 37 questions🗓️ 20 December 2025⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Ancient History (1) · Static GK (11) · Polity (8) · Economics (13) · Current Affairs (2) · Geography (2)

Ancient History (1)

Post-Gupta Period · Harshavardhana

Q1. The Vardhana dynasty was founded by which ruler?

  1. (a) Prabhakarvardhan
  2. (b) Pushyabhuti
  3. (c) Rajyavardhan
  4. (d) Shiladitya
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Pushyabhuti

The Vardhana dynasty was founded by Pushyabhuti , the patriarch of the clan from which the dynasty takes its name. Prabhakaravardhana was an early powerful king of the dynasty, Rajyavardhan and Harshavardhana (also called Shiladitya) were later rulers. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Prabhakaravardhana was a prominent king of the Vardhana dynasty who expanded its power, but he was not its founder — Pushyabhuti established the dynasty.
Option 3 is wrong: Rajyavardhan was Prabhakaravardhana's son who briefly ruled before being assassinated; he was not the dynasty's founder.
Option 4 is wrong: Shiladitya is another name for Harshavardhana, the most celebrated ruler of the Vardhana dynasty, but he was not its founder — the dynasty was established by Pushyabhuti .

Static GK (11)

Static GK Miscellaneous · Miscellaneous facts

Q2. Fill in the blank:
The famous Kohinoor diamond was initially owned by the _____.

  1. (a) Rajputs
  2. (b) Mughals
  3. (c) Kakatiyas
  4. (d) Afghans
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kakatiyas

The Kohinoor diamond was originally found in the Kollur Mine in the Guntur region, which was under the Kakatiya dynasty of Telangana (13th century). The Kakatiyas were its earliest known owners, after which it passed to the Delhi Sultanate (under Alauddin Khilji who sacked Warangal), then the Mughals, Persians, Afghans, Sikhs, and finally the British. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: The Rajputs were not the original owners of the Kohinoor; the diamond originated in the Kakatiya kingdom's territory and was never associated with Rajput rulers.
Option 2 is wrong: The Mughals did possess the Kohinoor (Babur acquired it after the Battle of Panipat in 1526, having received it from the Lodi dynasty who got it from earlier rulers), but they were not the INITIAL owners — the Kakatiyas were.
Option 4 is wrong: The Afghans (specifically Ahmad Shah Durrani of the Durrani Empire) possessed the Kohinoor after taking it from the Mughals, but the Afghans were not the initial owners of the diamond.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q3. The Natyanjali Dance Festival celebrated in Chidambaram, Tamil Nadu is dedicated to which deity?

  1. (a) Lord Vishnu, the Protector
  2. (b) Lord Nataraja, the Cosmic Dancer
  3. (c) Lord Ganesha, the Remover of Obstacles
  4. (d) Lord Brahma, the Creator
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Lord Nataraja, the Cosmic Dancer

The Natyanjali Dance Festival is celebrated at the Nataraja Temple (Thillai Nataraja Temple) in Chidambaram, Tamil Nadu, and is dedicated to Lord Nataraja — Shiva in his manifestation as the Cosmic Dancer (lord of dance). Classical dancers from across India perform here as an offering to Nataraja. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Lord Vishnu is the Protector in the Hindu trinity, and Chidambaram's Nataraja Temple is dedicated to Shiva (as Nataraja), not Vishnu.
Option 3 is wrong: Lord Ganesha, the elephant-headed deity associated with removing obstacles, is not the deity to whom the Natyanjali Festival is dedicated.
Option 4 is wrong: Lord Brahma, the Creator in the Hindu trinity, is not associated with the Natyanjali Dance Festival at Chidambaram; it is specifically dedicated to Lord Nataraja (Shiva).
Sports · Sports terminology

Q4. "Dribbling" is a common term used in which game?

  1. (a) Basketball
  2. (b) Cricket
  3. (c) Tennis
  4. (d) Chess
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Basketball

Dribbling is the fundamental skill in basketball where a player bounces the ball continuously on the floor with one hand while moving, to advance the ball and maintain possession. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Cricket does not have dribbling as a technique; in cricket, players bat, bowl, and field — dribbling is not part of the game.
Option 3 is wrong: Tennis involves hitting a ball with a racquet over a net; there is no dribbling technique in tennis.
Option 4 is wrong: Chess is a board game involving strategic movement of pieces; it has no physical actions like dribbling.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q5. What was the rank of the Indian men's team in the Asian Games 2023 kabaddi?

  1. (a) 1st
  2. (b) 2nd
  3. (c) 3rd
  4. (d) 4th
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1st

The Indian men's kabaddi team won the Gold Medal at the 2023 Asian Games held in Hangzhou, China, finishing 1st. India has historically dominated men's kabaddi at the Asian Games, winning gold in every edition since the sport was introduced. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: India did not finish 2nd (silver) in men's kabaddi at the 2023 Asian Games; India won gold (1st place).
Option 3 is wrong: India did not finish 3rd (bronze) in men's kabaddi at the 2023 Asian Games; India won the gold medal.
Option 4 is wrong: India did not finish 4th in men's kabaddi at the 2023 Asian Games; India won the gold medal, as it has done in every Asian Games since kabaddi's inclusion.
Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q6. In the International Booker Prize list, which novel by Olga Tokarczuk was the winner in 2018?

  1. (a) Flights
  2. (b) The Books of Jacob
  3. (c) Drive Your Plow Over the Bones of the Dead
  4. (d) The Ministry of Utmost Happiness
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Flights

"Flights" (Polish: Bieguni ) by Polish author Olga Tokarczuk, translated into English by Jennifer Croft, won the International Booker Prize in 2018. The novel explores themes of movement, travel, and the human body through interconnected vignettes. Tokarczuk also won the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2018. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: "The Books of Jacob" is another acclaimed novel by Olga Tokarczuk that won the International Booker Prize in 2022 (translated by Jennifer Croft), not in 2018.
Option 3 is wrong: "Drive Your Plow Over the Bones of the Dead" by Olga Tokarczuk was shortlisted for the 2019 International Booker Prize but did not win; "Celestial Bodies" by Jokha Alharthi won in 2019.
Option 4 is wrong: "The Ministry of Utmost Happiness" is a novel by Arundhati Roy (not Olga Tokarczuk), published in 2017; it was not the 2018 International Booker winner.
Awards and Honours · Literary awards (Jnanpith, Sahitya Akademi)

Q7. Who authored the 2022 award-winning Kannada work " Bahutvada Bhaarata mattu Bouddha Taatvikate "?

  1. (a) Mudnakudu Chinnaswamy
  2. (b) G.H. Nayak
  3. (c) H.S. Shiva Prakash
  4. (d) Boluwaru Mohammad Kunhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mudnakudu Chinnaswamy

Mudnakudu Chinnaswamy won the Sahitya Akademi Award 2022 for his Kannada work " Bahutvada Bharata mattu Bouddha Taatvikate " (Plural India and Buddhist Philosophy), a critical study. He is a noted Dalit poet and thinker from Karnataka. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: G.H. Nayak is a distinguished Kannada critic and literary scholar; he did not author " Bahutvada Bharata mattu Bouddha Taatvikate " which won the 2022 Sahitya Akademi Award.
Option 3 is wrong: H.S. Shiva Prakash is a prominent Kannada playwright and poet; he is not the author of the 2022 Sahitya Akademi-winning Kannada work.
Option 4 is wrong: Boluwaru Mohammad Kunhi is a distinguished Tulu and Kannada writer known for his contributions to Tulu literature; he is not the author of the 2022 Sahitya Akademi Award-winning work " Bahutvada Bharata mattu Bouddha Taatvikate ."
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q8. Which ancient text serves as the primary theoretical foundation for Indian classical dance forms?

  1. (a) Natyashastra
  2. (b) Arthashastra
  3. (c) Sangeet Ratnakar
  4. (d) Rigveda
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Natyashastra

The Natyashastra, attributed to the sage Bharata Muni (compiled between 200 BCE and 200 CE), is the foundational treatise on performing arts in India. It provides the theoretical basis for classical dance, drama, and music, covering aspects like rasa (emotions), abhinaya (expression), tala (rhythm), and mudras (hand gestures). Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: The Arthashastra , attributed to Kautilya (Chanakya), is a treatise on statecraft, economic policy, and military strategy — not on dance or performing arts.
Option 3 is wrong: The Sangeet Ratnakar (13th century, by Sharngadeva ) is an important medieval text on music theory, but it is not the PRIMARY foundational text for Indian classical dance forms — that is the Natyashastra.
Option 4 is wrong: The Rigveda is the oldest of the four Vedas, primarily containing hymns to deities; it is not the theoretical foundation for Indian classical dance forms.
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q9. The " Gotipua " tradition is a precursor to which classical dance form?

  1. (a) Kathak
  2. (b) Odissi
  3. (c) Sattriya
  4. (d) Kuchipudi
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Odissi

The Gotipua tradition is an ancient folk tradition of Odisha where young boys, dressed in women's costumes, perform acrobatic and devotional dances. It is considered the precursor to Odissi classical dance, which developed from Gotipua as well as Mahari (temple devadasi) and Nartaka (court dance) traditions. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Kathak is a classical dance form of North India that evolved from storytelling traditions ( Kathakas ) in temple and later Mughal court settings; Gotipua is not its precursor.
Option 3 is wrong: Sattriya is a classical dance form originating in the Vaishnavite monasteries ( Sattras ) of Assam, introduced by Srimanta Sankardev; Gotipua is an Odisha tradition unrelated to Sattriya .
Option 4 is wrong: Kuchipudi is a classical dance form from the Krishna district of Andhra Pradesh that evolved from Bhagavata Mela theatre tradition; Gotipua from Odisha is not its precursor.
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q10. Which of the following classical dances originated in a Vaishnavite monastic tradition of Assam?

  1. (a) Sattriya
  2. (b) Kathak
  3. (c) Manipuri
  4. (d) Mohiniyattam
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sattriya

Sattriya is a classical dance form created by the 15th-century Assamese saint-scholar Srimanta Sankardev as a means of propagating the Vaishnavite faith. It originated in and is associated with the Vaishnav Sattras (monasteries) of Assam. It was recognized as the eighth classical dance form of India by the Sangeet Natak Akademi in 2000. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Kathak originated in North India (Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan) from the temple storytelling traditions of the Kathakas , later refined in Mughal court settings; it has no Assamese Vaishnavite monastic origins.
Option 3 is wrong: Manipuri is a classical dance form from Manipur that has Vaishnava influences (Ras Lila themes), but it originated in Manipur's indigenous tribal traditions and Gaudiya Vaishnavism, not specifically in Assam's Sattras .
Option 4 is wrong: Mohiniyattam is a classical dance form from Kerala that evolved from the Devadasi tradition and regional performance arts of Kerala; it has no connection to Assam's Vaishnavite monastic tradition.
Sports · Sports terminology

Q11. In archery, the term "Robin Hood" refers to _________.

  1. (a) perfect bullseye
  2. (b) splitting an arrow already in the target
  3. (c) best score in a round
  4. (d) triple-arrow shot
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) splitting an arrow already in the target

In archery, a "Robin Hood" is when an archer shoots an arrow that splits or embeds into the nock (back end) of an arrow already in the target — named after the legendary English archer Robin Hood who reportedly did this in competition. It is considered an amazing but costly shot (as it destroys the original arrow). Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: A perfect bullseye means hitting the exact center of the target; in archery terminology, this is simply called a bullseye or gold — not a 'Robin Hood.'
Option 3 is wrong: The best score in a round or highest-scoring arrow is not called a 'Robin Hood'; in Olympic archery, the gold (innermost) zone scores 10 points.
Option 4 is wrong: A triple-arrow shot is not a recognized archery term for a specific shot type; 'Robin Hood' specifically refers to an arrow splitting a previously shot arrow in the target.
Sports · Olympic Games

Q12. Which Indian athlete's medal ended a 100-year wait for India's first Olympic athletics podium finish?

  1. (a) Anju Bobby George
  2. (b) Neeraj Chopra
  3. (c) Milkha Singh
  4. (d) Gurbachan Singh Randhawa
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Neeraj Chopra

Neeraj Chopra won India's first-ever Olympic Gold medal in athletics (track and field) at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics (held in August 2021) in the men's javelin throw event, with a throw of 87.58 metres . India had been waiting approximately 100 years since gaining its place on the world stage to win an Olympic athletics medal. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Anju Bobby George won a bronze medal at the 2003 World Athletics Championships (long jump), making her the first Indian to win a World Athletics medal — but she did not win an Olympic athletics medal.
Option 3 is wrong: Milkha Singh ('The Flying Sikh') came 4th in the 400m at the 1960 Rome Olympics, narrowly missing a bronze medal — he was close but did not win an Olympic athletics medal.
Option 4 is wrong: Gurbachan Singh Randhawa came 5th in the 110m hurdles at the 1964 Tokyo Olympics — a commendable performance but not a medal. He did not end any 100-year Olympic athletics wait.

Polity (8)

DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Important DPSP articles (39A, 40, 44, 45, 48A, 50, 51)

Q13. Which Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP) promotes equal justice and free legal aid?

  1. (a) Article 39A
  2. (b) Article 41
  3. (c) Article 43
  4. (d) Article 47
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 39A

Article 39A, inserted into the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment (1976), directs the state to ensure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on the basis of equal opportunity, and shall provide free legal aid to ensure equal access to justice for all. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Article 41 directs the state to make provision for the right to work, education, and public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disability — not for equal justice or free legal aid.
Option 3 is wrong: Article 43 directs the state to endeavour to secure to workers a living wage and conditions of work ensuring a decent standard of life — it relates to labour welfare, not legal aid.
Option 4 is wrong: Article 47 directs the state to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of its people and to improve public health — it does not relate to equal justice or free legal aid.
Union Executive · President - impeachment and succession

Q14. The president submits resignation to:

  1. (a) Prime Minister
  2. (b) Vice President
  3. (c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
  4. (d) Chief Justice of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Vice President

Under Article 56(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution, the President of India may resign from office by writing under their hand addressed to the Vice President. The Vice President then communicates the resignation to the Speaker of Lok Sabha. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: The Prime Minister heads the Cabinet and advises the President, but the President does not submit resignation to the Prime Minister — it goes to the Vice President.
Option 3 is wrong: The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over the lower house of Parliament; the President's resignation is addressed to the Vice President, not the Speaker.
Option 4 is wrong: The Chief Justice of India heads the Supreme Court and administers the oath of office to the President, but is not the recipient of the President's resignation letter.
Polity Miscellaneous · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q15. How many sections does the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, contain?

  1. (a) 511
  2. (b) 358
  3. (c) 300
  4. (d) 400
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 358

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, which replaces the Indian Penal Code (IPC) of 1860, contains 358 sections. It came into effect on July 1, 2024. The original IPC had 511 sections. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: 511 is the number of sections in the old Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, which the BNS replaced. The BNS itself has 358 sections.
Option 3 is wrong: 300 is not the number of sections in the BNS 2023; the correct figure is 358 sections.
Option 4 is wrong: 400 is not the number of sections in the BNS 2023; it has 358 sections, reflecting consolidation and modernization of criminal law provisions.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q16. Under Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), the accused must be informed of the grounds of arrest:

  1. (a) After trial
  2. (b) Immediately upon arrest
  3. (c) Before arrest
  4. (d) Only if they ask
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Immediately upon arrest

Under Section 47 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, the police officer making an arrest is obligated to inform the person being arrested of the full particulars of the offence for which they are being arrested immediately upon arrest. This is also a constitutional right under Article 22(1). Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Informing the accused after trial would be far too late and would violate their fundamental rights under Article 22(1); the law requires immediate disclosure of arrest grounds.
Option 3 is wrong: Informing the accused before arrest is not a legal requirement; the grounds of arrest must be communicated at the time of (immediately upon) arrest, not before it.
Option 4 is wrong: The right to be informed of grounds of arrest is unconditional — it does not depend on the accused asking for it; the arresting officer must proactively inform them immediately upon arrest.
Local Government · PESA Act, State Finance and State Election Commissions

Q17. The State Election Commissioner is appointed by:

  1. (a) Governor
  2. (b) Union Home Minister
  3. (c) President
  4. (d) Chief Minister
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Governor

Under Article 243K(1) of the Indian Constitution (inserted by the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments, 1992), the State Election Commission is superintended by the State Election Commissioner, who is appointed by the Governor of the state. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: The Union Home Minister heads the Ministry of Home Affairs and oversees Central law enforcement and security matters; the Union Home Minister does not appoint the State Election Commissioner.
Option 3 is wrong: The President appoints constitutional authorities at the central level including the Chief Election Commissioner and Governors; the State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor, not the President.
Option 4 is wrong: The Chief Minister heads the state government; the State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor (not the elected Chief Minister) to maintain independence of the election process.
State Government · Governor - appointment and powers

Q18. A State Bill reserved for the President under Article 200 becomes law only when:

  1. (a) Governor approves
  2. (b) Chief Minister recommends
  3. (c) President assents
  4. (d) Speaker certifies
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) President assents

Under Article 201 of the Indian Constitution, when a State Bill is reserved by the Governor for the President's consideration under Article 200, the Bill becomes law only when the President gives assent to it. The President may return the Bill for reconsideration or withhold assent. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: If the Governor has already reserved the Bill for the President, the Governor's approval is no longer relevant at this stage — it requires the President's assent to become law.
Option 2 is wrong: The Chief Minister leads the State Cabinet and can request reconsideration of a bill, but a State Bill reserved for the President becomes law only upon the President's assent, not the Chief Minister's recommendation.
Option 4 is wrong: The Speaker of the State Legislature certifies money bills and presides over Assembly proceedings; the Speaker's certification is not the requirement for a Presidential-reserved bill to become law.
Fundamental Rights · Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22)

Q19. The right to privacy was recognized in —

  1. (a) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
  2. (b) K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
  3. (c) ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla
  4. (d) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India

In K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017), a nine-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court of India unanimously held that the right to privacy is a fundamental right protected under Article 21 (right to life and personal liberty) read with other fundamental rights. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980) struck down parts of the 42nd Amendment that curtailed judicial review and gave Parliament unlimited power to amend the Constitution; it did not deal with the right to privacy.
Option 3 is wrong: ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla (1976) (the Habeas Corpus case) controversially held that fundamental rights could be suspended during an Emergency — the Puttaswamy judgment overruled this. It did not recognize the right to privacy.
Option 4 is wrong: Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) held that 'procedure established by law' under Article 21 must be fair, just, and reasonable, expanding due process protections — but the formal recognition of privacy as a fundamental right was in Puttaswamy (2017).
Fundamental Rights · Right to Property and Article 300A

Q20. Which of the following constitutional amendments removed the right to property from Part III?

  1. (a) 42nd Amendment
  2. (b) 44th Amendment
  3. (c) 52nd Amendment
  4. (d) 59th Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 44th Amendment

The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, enacted during the Janata Government under PM Morarji Desai, removed the Right to Property (Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31) from Part III (Fundamental Rights) and re-placed it as a mere legal right under Article 300A. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: The 42nd Amendment (1976), passed during the Emergency under Indira Gandhi, made sweeping changes to the Constitution (adding 'socialist' and 'secular' to the Preamble, expanding Parliament's powers) but did NOT remove the right to property from Part III.
Option 3 is wrong: The 52nd Amendment (1985) added the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law) to the Constitution; it had nothing to do with removing the right to property.
Option 4 is wrong: The 59th Amendment (1988) made provisions related to Punjab and the imposition of President's Rule; it is unrelated to the removal of the right to property from fundamental rights.

Economics (13)

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q21. The Ease of Doing Business ( EoDB ) Index, discontinued in 2021, was originally published by which institution?

  1. (a) World Bank
  2. (b) Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)
  3. (c) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
  4. (d) World Trade Organization (WTO)
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) World Bank

The Ease of Doing Business ( EoDB ) Index was published annually by the World Bank from 2002 until it was discontinued in September 2021, following an independent review that found data irregularities in the rankings of certain countries (including China and India) in previous editions. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: The OECD publishes various economic reports and indices, but the EoDB Index was published by the World Bank, not the OECD.
Option 3 is wrong: The IMF publishes reports on global economic stability, financial systems, and monetary issues, but the EoDB Index was a World Bank publication.
Option 4 is wrong: The WTO focuses on international trade rules and dispute resolution; the EoDB Index was not a WTO publication — it was the World Bank's.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q22. Which of the following is involved in publishing the World Happiness Report?

  1. (a) United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network
  2. (b) World Bank
  3. (c) International Labour Organization
  4. (d) World Economic Forum
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network

The World Happiness Report is published by the United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network (UNSDSN). The report ranks countries by their levels of happiness based on surveys of life evaluations ( Cantril Ladder), GDP per capita, social support, life expectancy, freedom, generosity, and perceptions of corruption. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: The World Bank publishes reports on development, poverty, and economy, but the World Happiness Report is published by the UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network, not the World Bank.
Option 3 is wrong: The International Labour Organization publishes reports on labour standards, employment, and social protection, not the World Happiness Report.
Option 4 is wrong: The World Economic Forum publishes reports such as the Global Competitiveness Report and Global Gender Gap Report, but not the World Happiness Report.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Economic groupings (BRICS, G20, ASEAN)

Q23. Where was the first BRIC Summit held in 2009?

  1. (a) St. Petersburg, USA
  2. (b) Beijing, China
  3. (c) New Delhi, India
  4. (d) Yekaterinburg, Russia
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Yekaterinburg, Russia

The first BRIC Summit was held in Yekaterinburg, Russia in June 2009, bringing together the leaders of Brazil, Russia, India, and China (before South Africa joined in 2010 to form BRICS). Option 4 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: St. Petersburg is a city in Russia, not the USA. The first BRIC Summit was held in Yekaterinburg, Russia — not St. Petersburg.
Option 2 is wrong: Beijing, China has hosted various BRICS summits, but the first BRIC Summit in 2009 was held in Yekaterinburg, Russia.
Option 3 is wrong: New Delhi, India has hosted BRICS Summits, but the inaugural BRIC Summit in 2009 was held in Yekaterinburg, Russia — not India.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q24. Which sector was the primary focus of the Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961)?

  1. (a) Agriculture
  2. (b) Export promotion
  3. (c) Industrialization (Heavy Industries)
  4. (d) Services
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Industrialization (Heavy Industries)

The Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961), based on the Mahalanobis model (P.C. Mahalanobis ), gave primary focus to heavy industrialization — building steel plants ( Bhilai , Durgapur, Rourkela), heavy machinery, and capital goods industries as the engine of long-run growth. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Agriculture was the primary focus of the First Five-Year Plan (1951-56) due to post-Partition food security needs; the Second Plan shifted emphasis to heavy industries.
Option 2 is wrong: Export promotion was not a priority of the Second Five-Year Plan; India followed an inward-looking import substitution strategy, not export-led growth, during this period.
Option 4 is wrong: The services sector was not a planned focus of the Second Five-Year Plan; services development occurred organically and became prominent only in later decades.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Social welfare schemes

Q25. Which scheme aims to provide Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) connections to women from Below Poverty Line households?

  1. (a) Saubhagya
  2. (b) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana
  3. (c) Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi
  4. (d) Ujjwala Yojana
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ujjwala Yojana

The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY), launched in May 2016, aims to provide free LPG connections to women from Below Poverty Line (BPL) households, replacing traditional biomass cooking fuels to reduce indoor pollution and improve health. Option 4 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Saubhagya (Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana) was launched in 2017 to provide electricity connections to all un-electrified households; it is not related to LPG connections.
Option 2 is wrong: Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) provides affordable housing for the urban and rural poor; it is a housing scheme, not an LPG connection scheme.
Option 3 is wrong: Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) provides income support of Rs. 6,000 per year directly to farmers' bank accounts; it is an agricultural income support scheme, not an LPG scheme.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Social welfare schemes

Q26. What is the main purpose of the NIRBHAYA Fund?

  1. (a) Ensuring women's safety and empowerment
  2. (b) Developing rural banking infrastructure
  3. (c) Providing scholarships for students
  4. (d) Supporting clean energy projects
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ensuring women's safety and empowerment

The Nirbhaya Fund was established in 2013 (following the December 2012 Delhi gang rape case) by the Government of India with a corpus of Rs. 1,000 crore . Its main purpose is to fund projects and initiatives aimed at ensuring women's safety and empowerment across India. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Developing rural banking infrastructure is the focus of schemes like PMJDY (Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana) and RBI initiatives for financial inclusion; the Nirbhaya Fund specifically addresses women's safety.
Option 3 is wrong: Providing scholarships for students is addressed by schemes like National Scholarship Portal programs and PM Scholarship schemes; the Nirbhaya Fund is not a scholarship fund.
Option 4 is wrong: Supporting clean energy projects is the mandate of schemes like KUSUM Yojana and the National Solar Mission; the Nirbhaya Fund focuses exclusively on women's safety and empowerment.
Industry and Infrastructure · Infrastructure sectors

Q27. What is the primary objective of PM Gati Shakti?

  1. (a) Facilitating integrated infrastructure planning
  2. (b) Expanding healthcare services
  3. (c) Supporting digital education
  4. (d) Promoting rural employment
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Facilitating integrated infrastructure planning

PM Gati Shakti — National Master Plan for Multi-modal Connectivity, launched in October 2021 — is a digital platform that brings 16 Ministries together for integrated and holistic infrastructure planning. Its primary objective is facilitating seamless multi-modal connectivity across rail, road, port, air, and waterway infrastructure. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Expanding healthcare services is the mandate of schemes like Ayushman Bharat and the National Health Mission; PM Gati Shakti focuses on infrastructure and logistics connectivity.
Option 3 is wrong: Supporting digital education is addressed by National Education Policy initiatives and schemes like DIKSHA and PM e-VIDYA; PM Gati Shakti addresses physical infrastructure planning.
Option 4 is wrong: Promoting rural employment is the purpose of MGNREGA (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act); PM Gati Shakti aims at integrated infrastructure development for economic growth.
Financial Markets and Institutions · SEBI and stock exchanges

Q28. Why were Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) reforms introduced in 1992?

  1. (a) Strengthen capital market regulation
  2. (b) Regulate foreign banks
  3. (c) Control fiscal deficit
  4. (d) Promote public sector monopoly
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Strengthen capital market regulation

The SEBI Act, 1992 gave SEBI statutory powers primarily to strengthen capital market regulation — protecting investor interests, ensuring fair and transparent market practices, regulating stockbrokers and intermediaries, and developing the securities market. SEBI was set up to address malpractices and restore investor confidence after the Harshad Mehta stock scam. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Regulating foreign banks is the mandate of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) under the Banking Regulation Act; SEBI does not regulate banks.
Option 3 is wrong: Controlling fiscal deficit is a function of the Finance Ministry through budget management and fiscal responsibility legislation; SEBI's role is limited to capital markets.
Option 4 is wrong: Promoting public sector monopoly was the opposite of the 1991-1992 reform spirit; the 1991 LPG reforms and the formation of SEBI were aimed at liberalizing and opening markets, not creating monopolies.
Money and Banking · NPAs and banking reforms (Narasimham, SARFAESI, IBC)

Q29. Which committee directly influenced the reduction of Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) and Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) in the 1990s?

  1. (a) Rakesh Mohan Committee
  2. (b) Kelkar Committee
  3. (c) Narasimham Committee
  4. (d) Chelliah Committee
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Narasimham Committee

The Narasimham Committee on Financial System ( Narasimham Committee-I, 1991) directly recommended significant reduction in SLR (from 38.5% to 25%) and CRR (from ~15% to lower levels) as key banking sector reforms to release more funds for productive lending. These reductions were implemented in the 1990s. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: The Rakesh Mohan Committee focused on road infrastructure development and urban transport; it was not related to SLR-CRR reforms in banking.
Option 2 is wrong: The Kelkar Committee (2002-03) focused on direct and indirect tax reforms; it was not the committee that recommended SLR-CRR reductions in the 1990s.
Option 4 is wrong: The Chelliah Committee (Raja Chellaiah Tax Reform Committee, 1991-93) focused on tax reforms including rationalisation of direct and indirect taxes; it did not directly influence SLR-CRR reductions.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Planning terms

Q30. The concept "incremental capital output ratio" (ICOR) was central to:

  1. (a) Harrod-Domar growth model used in Plan formulation
  2. (b) Heckscher-Ohlin model
  3. (c) Keynesian consumption theory
  4. (d) Stolper-Samuelson trade theory
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Harrod-Domar growth model used in Plan formulation

The Incremental Capital-Output Ratio (ICOR) — the ratio of investment to the resulting increase in output — was the central concept in the Harrod-Domar growth model. In Indian Five-Year Plan formulation, ICOR was used to estimate the investment (capital) required to achieve a target growth rate: Growth Rate = Investment Rate / ICOR. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: The Heckscher-Ohlin model is a theory of international trade explaining comparative advantage based on factor endowments ( labour vs. capital); it does not involve ICOR.
Option 3 is wrong: The Keynesian consumption theory relates consumption to income through the marginal propensity to consume; it does not use ICOR as a central concept.
Option 4 is wrong: The Stolper-Samuelson theorem explains how changes in commodity prices affect factor prices (wages and returns to capital) in trade theory; ICOR is not a concept in this model.
National Income · Keynesian income determination and multiplier

Q31. What is the concept of the "Paradox of Thrift"?

  1. (a) Savings and investment are always equal
  2. (b) Savings reduce consumption but increase Gross Domestic Product
  3. (c) High savings always lead to high investment
  4. (d) Increased savings during a recession deepens the recession
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Increased savings during a recession deepens the recession

The Paradox of Thrift (formulated by John Maynard Keynes) states that when all individuals in an economy try to save more during a recession (a rational individual response), aggregate demand falls because spending drops. This leads to lower income, higher unemployment, and a deeper recession — making the economy as a whole worse off even though each person was trying to be prudent. Option 4 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: While savings equal investment in a closed economy at equilibrium (in national income accounting), 'savings and investment are always equal' is not the definition of the Paradox of Thrift.
Option 2 is wrong: This is the opposite of what the Paradox of Thrift states; increased savings REDUCE consumption, which REDUCES GDP (not increases it), especially during a recession.
Option 3 is wrong: The Paradox of Thrift specifically challenges this view — higher savings do not automatically lead to higher investment. During a recession, increased savings can depress demand and actually reduce investment by reducing the incentive to produce.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Balance of payments and current account

Q32. Which is not included in India's capital account?

  1. (a) Portfolio investment
  2. (b) Remittances from abroad
  3. (c) Foreign Direct Investment inflows
  4. (d) External commercial borrowings
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Remittances from abroad

Remittances from abroad (money sent by Indian workers overseas to their families in India) are classified as a transfer payment and recorded in the Current Account of the Balance of Payments — NOT the capital account. The capital account includes FDI, FPI/Portfolio investment, external commercial borrowings, and banking capital flows. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Portfolio investment (Foreign Portfolio Investment/FII/FPI flows into equity and debt markets) IS included in India's capital account as a short-term financial flow.
Option 3 is wrong: Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) inflows ARE included in India's capital account as long-term investment flows into companies, infrastructure, and assets.
Option 4 is wrong: External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs) — loans raised by Indian companies from foreign sources — ARE included in India's capital account as debt-creating financial flows.
Money and Banking · Monetary policy tools (repo, reverse repo, CRR, SLR, MSF, bank rate)

Q33. What will be the effect of the rise in the repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India?

  1. (a) Credit to businesses will become costlier
  2. (b) Aggregate demand will increase
  3. (c) Banks will reduce lending rates
  4. (d) Money supply will expand
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Credit to businesses will become costlier

When the RBI raises the repo rate (the rate at which banks borrow from RBI overnight), banks' cost of funds increases. Banks pass this on by raising their own lending rates, making credit (loans) costlier for businesses and consumers. This is the primary transmission mechanism of monetary tightening — reducing borrowing, investment, and consumption to control inflation. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: A rise in repo rate makes borrowing more expensive and reduces spending, which DECREASES aggregate demand — it does not increase it. This is by design, to cool inflation.
Option 3 is wrong: A rise in repo rate causes banks to INCREASE (not reduce) their lending rates, because their own cost of borrowing from RBI has gone up.
Option 4 is wrong: A rise in repo rate contracts (reduces) money supply by making borrowing expensive, discouraging loans and credit creation — it does not expand the money supply.

Current Affairs (2)

Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q34. Who is the National Security Adviser of India in 2025 who has been serving since 2014?

  1. (a) Shaktikanta Das
  2. (b) Ajit Doval
  3. (c) B.V.R. Subrahmanyam
  4. (d) T.V. Somanthan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ajit Doval

Ajit Doval has been the National Security Adviser (NSA) of India since May 2014, when Narendra Modi first became Prime Minister. He is a former IPS officer and former Director of the Intelligence Bureau. He continued as NSA after Modi's re-elections. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Shaktikanta Das served as the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) from December 2018 to December 2024 — he is not and was not the National Security Adviser.
Option 3 is wrong: B.V.R. Subrahmanyam is an IAS officer who served as CEO of NITI Aayog; he is not the National Security Adviser.
Option 4 is wrong: T.V. Somanthan is an IAS officer who served as Finance Secretary and Cabinet Secretary; he is not the National Security Adviser.
Appointments and Resignations · Heads of organisations

Q35. Who was appointed as the Managing Director of the National Film Development Corporation (NFDC) in May 2025?

  1. (a) Prakash Magdum
  2. (b) Rajarajan
  3. (c) Aastha Poonia
  4. (d) Sahar Zaman
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Prakash Magdum

Prakash Magdum was appointed as the Managing Director of the National Film Development Corporation (NFDC) in May 2025. He is a veteran film professional associated with the promotion of Indian cinema and co-productions. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Rajarajan is not the person who was appointed as MD of NFDC in May 2025; Prakash Magdum was appointed to this position.
Option 3 is wrong: Aastha Poonia is not the person appointed as MD of NFDC in May 2025; Prakash Magdum was appointed to this role.
Option 4 is wrong: Sahar Zaman is not associated with the appointment as MD of NFDC in May 2025; Prakash Magdum was appointed to this position.

Geography (2)

India - Agriculture · Types of farming (shifting, terrace, etc.)

Q36. In which region of India is shifting cultivation, locally known as 'Jhum', mainly practiced?

  1. (a) Western Ghats
  2. (b) Central Plateau
  3. (c) North-Eastern states
  4. (d) Punjab plains
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) North-Eastern states

Jhum (or Jhuming ) is a form of shifting cultivation where forests are cleared by burning, cultivated for a few years, then abandoned to recover. It is mainly practiced in the hill areas of India's North-Eastern states — Nagaland, Mizoram, Manipur, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Arunachal Pradesh. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: The Western Ghats are a biodiversity hotspot with plantation agriculture and settled farming; Jhum shifting cultivation is not associated with the Western Ghats region.
Option 2 is wrong: The Central Plateau (Deccan region) practices dryland and irrigated agriculture; Jhum cultivation is not the dominant farming system here.
Option 4 is wrong: Punjab plains are known for intensive irrigated agriculture (Green Revolution belt) with wheat and rice cultivation; Jhum shifting cultivation is not practiced in the Punjab plains.
India - Drainage System · Cities on river banks

Q37. Which Indian city is located on the banks of the Musi River?

  1. (a) Hyderabad
  2. (b) Bengaluru
  3. (c) Bhopal
  4. (d) Lucknow
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Hyderabad

Hyderabad, the capital of Telangana, is located on the banks of the Musi River (a tributary of the Krishna River). The historic Charminar and Golconda Fort are situated near the Musi River. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Bengaluru (Bangalore), the capital of Karnataka, is not situated on the banks of the Musi River; it lies on the Deccan Plateau and has several lakes but no major river flowing through it.
Option 3 is wrong: Bhopal, the capital of Madhya Pradesh, is situated on the banks of Upper Lake ( Bhojtal ) and near the Betwa River — not the Musi River.
Option 4 is wrong: Lucknow, the capital of Uttar Pradesh, is situated on the banks of the Gomti River — not the Musi River.
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