Home › GK Questions Asked › Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 › 20 December 2025 Shift 2

Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 20 December 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 49 GK / GS questions asked in Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 on 20 December 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Static GK, Ancient History, Medieval History, Economics, Geography, Current Affairs.

📚 49 questions🗓️ 20 December 2025⏰ Shift 2
हिंदी में पढ़ें📥 Full paper PDF
Subjects: Static GK (16) · Ancient History (1) · Medieval History (1) · Economics (15) · Geography (2) · Current Affairs (5) · Polity (8) · Modern History (1)

Static GK (16)

Monuments and Heritage · Monuments - builders and locations

Q1. Fill in the blank:
_____ is the renowned Indian sculptor who has created the "Statue of Unity".

  1. (a) Ram V. Sutar
  2. (b) Nandalal Bose
  3. (c) Prem Behari Narain Raizada
  4. (d) Satish Gujral
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ram V. Sutar

Ram V. Sutar (Ram Vanji Sutar) is the renowned Indian sculptor who designed and created the Statue of Unity — the world's tallest statue (182 metres ) dedicated to Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, located in Gujarat. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Nandalal Bose was a celebrated Indian painter (not sculptor) known for his contribution to the Bengal School of Art and for illustrating the original Constitution of India.
Option 3 is wrong: Prem Behari Narain Raizada was the calligrapher who handwrote the original Constitution of India; he is associated with calligraphy, not sculpture.
Option 4 is wrong: Satish Gujral is a noted Indian artist (painter, sculptor, muralist) but he did not create the Statue of Unity; Ram V. Sutar did.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q2. The Asian Games were first held in which year?

  1. (a) 1950
  2. (b) 1951
  3. (c) 1962
  4. (d) 1970
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1951

The first Asian Games were held in New Delhi, India in 1951, organized by the Asian Games Federation (now the Olympic Council of Asia). India finished second in the medal tally at these inaugural Games. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: 1950 is not when the first Asian Games were held; they were organized in 1951. The idea for the Games was proposed in 1948 at the London Olympics.
Option 3 is wrong: 1962 was when the fourth Asian Games were held in Jakarta, Indonesia; not the first Asian Games.
Option 4 is wrong: 1970 was not when any Asian Games took place; the 1970 Games were actually cancelled, and the sixth edition was held in Bangkok in 1970 (though sometimes counted differently).
Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q3. Which Indian-American author won the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction in 2000 for Interpreter of Maladies?

  1. (a) Jhumpa Lahiri
  2. (b) Siddhartha Mukherjee
  3. (c) Arundhati Roy
  4. (d) Kiran Desai
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Jhumpa Lahiri

Jhumpa Lahiri won the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction in 2000 for her debut short story collection "Interpreter of Maladies" (1999), which explores the lives of Indian and Indian-American characters navigating cultural displacement and identity. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Siddhartha Mukherjee is an Indian-American oncologist and writer who won the 2011 Pulitzer Prize for General Non-Fiction for "The Emperor of All Maladies," not for Fiction in 2000.
Option 3 is wrong: Arundhati Roy won the Man Booker Prize (not Pulitzer) in 1997 for "The God of Small Things"; she is not Indian-American.
Option 4 is wrong: Kiran Desai won the Man Booker Prize in 2006 for "The Inheritance of Loss"; she did not win the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction in 2000.
Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q4. Which book won the International Booker Prize in 2019?

  1. (a) Flights – Olga Tokarczuk
  2. (b) The Years – Annie Ernaux
  3. (c) Celestial Bodies – Jokha Alharthi
  4. (d) Drive Your Plow Over the Bones of the Dead – Olga Tokarczuk
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Celestial Bodies – Jokha Alharthi

"Celestial Bodies" by Omani author Jokha Alharthi (translated by Marilyn Booth) won the International Booker Prize in 2019, making it the first Arabic-language novel and the first Omani novel to win this prize. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: "Flights" by Olga Tokarczuk won the International Booker Prize in 2018 (not 2019), and Tokarczuk also won the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2018.
Option 2 is wrong: "The Years" by Annie Ernaux was not the 2019 International Booker winner; Ernaux later won the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2022.
Option 4 is wrong: "Drive Your Plow Over the Bones of the Dead" by Olga Tokarczuk was shortlisted for the 2019 International Booker Prize but did not win; "Celestial Bodies" by Jokha Alharthi won.
Awards and Honours · Literary awards (Jnanpith, Sahitya Akademi)

Q5. In which year did "Iyat Ekhan Aaronya Asil" (novel) by Anuradha Sarma Pujari win the Sahitya Akademi Award for Assamese?

  1. (a) 2020
  2. (b) 2021
  3. (c) 2019
  4. (d) 2022
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2021

"Iyat Ekhan Aaronya Asil" (There Was a Forest Here) by Anuradha Sarma Pujari won the Sahitya Akademi Award 2021 for Assamese literature. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: 2020 is not the year this novel won the Sahitya Akademi Award for Assamese; the award was given in 2021.
Option 3 is wrong: 2019 is not the award year for this novel; Sahitya Akademi Award 2019 for Assamese was given to a different work.
Option 4 is wrong: 2022 is not when this novel won the Sahitya Akademi Award; it was 2021.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q6. Pulikali , a folk art form, involves performers painting themselves as which animal?

  1. (a) Tiger
  2. (b) Elephant
  3. (c) Lion
  4. (d) Peacock
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Tiger

Pulikali (literally 'tiger play') is a recreational folk art from Kerala where performers paint their entire bodies with bright colours to resemble tigers and leopards, then dance to the beat of traditional percussion instruments during the Onam festival. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Elephants are central to Kerala culture (as in Thrissur Pooram), but Pulikali specifically involves tiger body paint, not elephant.
Option 3 is wrong: Lions are associated with national symbols and some folk traditions, but Pulikali performers specifically depict tigers, not lions.
Option 4 is wrong: Peacock is India's national bird and appears in many dance forms (like Peacock Dance/ Mayilaattam ), but Pulikali performers paint themselves as tigers, not peacocks.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q7. Kalbelia is a snake-charmer folk dance from which state?

  1. (a) Punjab
  2. (b) Assam
  3. (c) Rajasthan
  4. (d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Rajasthan

Kalbelia is a traditional folk dance of the Kalbelia community (snake charmers) of Rajasthan. It was inscribed on UNESCO's Intangible Cultural Heritage list in 2010. The dance mimics the movements of a serpent and is performed by women in swirling black skirts. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Punjab is associated with Bhangra and Giddha folk dances; Kalbelia is not from Punjab.
Option 2 is wrong: Assam is associated with Bihu dance and Sattriya classical dance; Kalbelia originates in Rajasthan, not Assam.
Option 4 is wrong: Uttar Pradesh has its own folk dance traditions like Nautanki and Ramlila; Kalbelia specifically belongs to the Kalbelia community of Rajasthan.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q8. The ' Dhol ' is an essential instrument in which Indian folk dance?

  1. (a) Ghoomar
  2. (b) Bhangra
  3. (c) Garba
  4. (d) Rouf
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Bhangra

The Dhol (a large double-headed barrel drum) is the central and essential musical instrument in Bhangra, the exuberant folk dance of Punjab. The dhol's rhythmic beats drive the energetic movements of Bhangra performers. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Ghoomar is a graceful folk dance of Rajasthan traditionally performed to the accompaniment of dholak, been, and other instruments; the dhol is not its defining instrument.
Option 3 is wrong: Garba is a folk dance of Gujarat typically performed to the accompaniment of tabla , harmonium, and Garba songs — the dhol is not its defining instrument.
Option 4 is wrong: Rouf is a traditional folk dance of Kashmir performed by women during festivals; it uses specific Kashmiri folk music instruments, not the Punjabi dhol .
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q9. India finished second in the overall medal tally at the First Asian Games with how many total medals?

  1. (a) 49
  2. (b) 50
  3. (c) 51
  4. (d) 53
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 51

At the first Asian Games (1951, New Delhi), India finished second in the overall medal tally with 51 total medals (15 gold, 16 silver, 20 bronze), behind Japan which topped the tally. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: 49 medals is not India's total at the 1951 Asian Games; the correct figure is 51 medals.
Option 2 is wrong: 50 medals is not the correct total; India won 51 medals (15+16+20) at the inaugural Asian Games.
Option 4 is wrong: 53 medals overstates India's total at the 1951 Asian Games; the correct count is 51 medals.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q10. Which Indian athlete won the nation's first-ever Asian Games gold medal?

  1. (a) K.D. Jadhav
  2. (b) Milkha Singh
  3. (c) Parimal Roy
  4. (d) Sachin Nag
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Sachin Nag

Sachin Nag won India's first-ever gold medal at the Asian Games at the inaugural 1951 New Delhi Asian Games in the 100m freestyle swimming event, making him the first Indian to win an Asian Games gold. Option 4 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: K.D. Jadhav won India's first individual Olympic medal (bronze in wrestling) at the 1952 Helsinki Olympics; he is not associated with the first Asian Games gold medal.
Option 2 is wrong: Milkha Singh (the Flying Sikh) won multiple Asian Games gold medals in sprinting in 1958 and 1962, but was not the first-ever Asian Games gold medalist for India.
Option 3 is wrong: Parimal Roy was an Indian golfer at the early Asian Games; he is not credited with India's first-ever Asian Games gold medal.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q11. How many total medals did India win at the Asian Games 2023?

  1. (a) 100
  2. (b) 107
  3. (c) 112
  4. (d) 121
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 107

India won 107 total medals at the 2023 Asian Games held in Hangzhou, China (19th Asian Games): 28 gold, 38 silver, and 41 bronze medals — India's best-ever performance at the Asian Games. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: 100 medals is below India's actual total of 107 at the 2023 Asian Games.
Option 3 is wrong: 112 medals overstates India's actual total; India won 107 medals at the 2023 Asian Games.
Option 4 is wrong: 121 medals significantly overstates India's performance; the correct figure is 107 total medals.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q12. How many medals did India win at the 1990 Auckland Commonwealth Games?

  1. (a) 24
  2. (b) 25
  3. (c) 30
  4. (d) 32
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 32

India won 32 total medals at the 1990 Auckland Commonwealth Games, finishing among the top nations in the medal tally. Option 4 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: 24 medals is lower than India's actual medal count of 32 at the 1990 Auckland Commonwealth Games.
Option 2 is wrong: 25 medals understates India's performance; the correct total is 32 medals.
Option 3 is wrong: 30 medals is close but still lower than India's actual total of 32 medals at the 1990 Auckland Commonwealth Games.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q13. Who authored "Waiting for the Mahatma", a novel examining Gandhian influence through fictional narrative?

  1. (a) Khushwant Singh
  2. (b) R. K. Narayan
  3. (c) K. S. Venkataramani
  4. (d) Rajmohan Gandhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) R. K. Narayan

"Waiting for the Mahatma" (1955) was written by R. K. Narayan, the celebrated Indian novelist known for his Malgudi series. The novel follows a young man named Sriram who falls in love with a girl from Gandhi's ashram and becomes involved in the independence movement. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Khushwant Singh authored works like "Train to Pakistan" (1956) and "A History of the Sikhs"; he did not write "Waiting for the Mahatma."
Option 3 is wrong: K. S. Venkataramani was an early Tamil writer in English; he is not the author of "Waiting for the Mahatma."
Option 4 is wrong: Rajmohan Gandhi is a biographer and grandson of Mahatma Gandhi, known for non-fiction works on Gandhi; he did not write this fictional novel.
Sports · Olympic Games

Q14. Which Indian woman became the first to win a medal at the Paralympics?

  1. (a) Deepa Malik
  2. (b) Avani Lekhara
  3. (c) Bhavana Bhokanal
  4. (d) Rubina Francis
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Deepa Malik

Deepa Malik became the first Indian woman to win a Paralympic medal when she won a silver medal in the Shot Put (F53 category) at the 2016 Rio Paralympic Games. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Avani Lekhara won gold and bronze medals in shooting at the 2020 Tokyo Paralympics (2021) — a remarkable achievement but four years after Deepa Malik's historic medal in 2016.
Option 3 is wrong: Bhavana Bhokanal is a Paralympic archer from India; she is not credited with the first Indian woman's Paralympic medal.
Option 4 is wrong: Rubina Francis is a Paralympic shooting athlete from India; she did not win India's first woman's Paralympic medal.
Sports · Sports terminology

Q15. Which of the following is TRUE about the "Lobby" area in Kabaddi?

  1. (a) It is active only when the raider crosses the midline.
  2. (b) It becomes active only after a defender-raider contact occurs.
  3. (c) It is always active for bonus attempts.
  4. (d) It is used only for substitution.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It becomes active only after a defender-raider contact occurs.

In Kabaddi, the Lobby is the area between the baulk line and the end line on each half of the court. The Lobby becomes active (i.e., counts as in-court area) only AFTER a defender makes contact (touch) with the raider. Before any contact, the Lobby is out of bounds for the raider. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: The Lobby does not become active simply when the raider crosses the midline; it requires actual physical contact between a defender and the raider for the Lobby to become active.
Option 3 is wrong: The Lobby is not always active for bonus attempts; the bonus line (baulk line) rules are separate from the Lobby activation rules which require defender-raider contact.
Option 4 is wrong: The Lobby is not a substitution zone; player substitutions in Kabaddi occur from the designated seating area on the benches, not from the Lobby.
Space, Defence and Technology · Science and technology missions and schemes

Q16. Under the Vigyan Dhara initiative, the INSPIRE-MANAK component is primarily designed to achieve which of the following objectives?

  1. (a) Train students for engineering entrance exams
  2. (b) Attract young students toward science and research
  3. (c) Prepare students exclusively for international science fairs
  4. (d) Promote sports and physical education
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Attract young students toward science and research

INSPIRE-MANAK (Million Minds Augmenting National Aspiration and Knowledge), under the Vigyan Dhara initiative (formerly INSPIRE scheme by DST), is primarily designed to attract and retain young talent among students of Classes 6-10 towards science and research, encouraging them to identify innovative solutions to societal problems. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Training students for engineering entrance exams (JEE, etc.) is the purpose of coaching institutes and specific training programs; INSPIRE-MANAK focuses on nurturing scientific curiosity and innovation, not entrance exam preparation.
Option 3 is wrong: While INSPIRE-MANAK winners may represent India at international fairs, the programme is not designed exclusively for international science fair preparation; its broader goal is attracting students to science and research.
Option 4 is wrong: Promoting sports and physical education is the mandate of the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports and schemes like Khelo India; the Vigyan Dhara/INSPIRE-MANAK initiative is focused exclusively on science, technology, and innovation.

Ancient History (1)

Mauryan Empire · Mauryan administration and economy

Q17. What was the primary function of the " Kantakasodhana " courts during the Mauryan Empire?

  1. (a) To deal with military offenses and war crimes
  2. (b) To enforce religious reforms and moral conduct
  3. (c) To address criminal offenses and violations of state laws
  4. (d) To resolve land disputes and property issues
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To address criminal offenses and violations of state laws

In Kautilya's Arthashastra , ' Kantakasodhana ' literally means 'removal of thorns' — these special courts dealt with criminal offenses, malpractices, exploitation, and violations of state laws by merchants, officials, and anti-social elements regarded as 'thorns' in society. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Military offenses and war crimes were handled by separate military courts and councils in the Mauryan Empire, not by Kantakasodhana courts.
Option 2 is wrong: Enforcing religious reforms and moral conduct was a function of the Dharmamahamatta (officers of religious and social welfare), not the Kantakasodhana courts.
Option 4 is wrong: Land disputes and property issues were handled by civil courts ( Dharmasthiya ), a separate judicial institution, not the Kantakasodhana courts.

Medieval History (1)

Mughal Empire · Aurangzeb

Q18. Who was the last powerful Mughal emperor before the empire's decline?

  1. (a) Shah Jahan
  2. (b) Jahangir
  3. (c) Aurangzeb
  4. (d) Bahadur Shah Zafar
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Aurangzeb

Aurangzeb (reigned 1658-1707) was the last powerful Mughal emperor. After his death in 1707, the Mughal Empire rapidly declined due to wars of succession, weak successors, Maratha expansion, and administrative collapse. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Shah Jahan (reigned 1628-1658) was a powerful emperor known for the Taj Mahal, but he was not the last powerful ruler — Aurangzeb succeeded him and expanded the empire further.
Option 2 is wrong: Jahangir (reigned 1605-1627) was an earlier powerful emperor, known for art patronage and administrative consolidation, but Aurangzeb came after him.
Option 4 is wrong: Bahadur Shah Zafar (1837-1857) was the last Mughal emperor but was politically powerless — a nominal ruler under British control, eventually exiled after the 1857 uprising.

Economics (15)

External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Economic groupings (BRICS, G20, ASEAN)

Q19. Which Southeast Asian country became a full BRICS member in January 2025?

  1. (a) Vietnam
  2. (b) Malaysia
  3. (c) Indonesia
  4. (d) Thailand
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Indonesia

Indonesia officially became a full member of BRICS in January 2025, joining the grouping that already included Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa, and the new members admitted in 2024 (Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, UAE). Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Vietnam has expressed interest in BRICS but did not become a full member in January 2025.
Option 2 is wrong: Malaysia applied for BRICS membership but did not become a full member in January 2025.
Option 4 is wrong: Thailand has engaged with BRICS but did not attain full member status in January 2025.
Money and Banking · NPAs and banking reforms (Narasimham, SARFAESI, IBC)

Q20. The Narasimham Committee-I (1991) primarily recommended:

  1. (a) Liberalization of interest rates, lowering of SLR-CRR, and strengthening of prudential norms like capital adequacy
  2. (b) Full privatization of all public sector banks
  3. (c) Maintaining a fixed and pegged exchange-rate regime
  4. (d) Expansion and nationalization of Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Liberalization of interest rates, lowering of SLR-CRR, and strengthening of prudential norms like capital adequacy

The Narasimham Committee on Financial System (1991) primarily recommended: liberalization of interest rates, reduction of Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) and Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), strengthening of prudential norms (capital adequacy, asset classification, provisioning), and deregulation of the banking sector. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: The Committee did NOT recommend full privatization of public sector banks; it recommended reducing government shareholding to 51% and allowing more competition, but not outright privatization.
Option 3 is wrong: Maintaining a fixed exchange-rate regime was the opposite of what was recommended; the 1991 reforms included moving toward a market-determined exchange rate.
Option 4 is wrong: Expansion and nationalization of RRBs was not recommended; the Committee focused on deregulation and reducing government dominance in banking, not more nationalization.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q21. What was the primary objective of the 1991 economic reforms in India?

  1. (a) To increase public sector dominance
  2. (b) To nationalize banks
  3. (c) To liberalize, privatize, and globalize the economy
  4. (d) To implement an import substitution strategy
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To liberalize, privatize, and globalize the economy

The 1991 economic reforms (LPG reforms), introduced under Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh and Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao, aimed to liberalize, privatize, and globalize the Indian economy — dismantling the License Raj, opening markets to foreign investment, and integrating India into the global economy. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Increasing public sector dominance was the pre-1991 policy; the 1991 reforms actually sought to reduce the public sector's role and encourage private enterprise.
Option 2 is wrong: Bank nationalization had already occurred in 1969 and 1980; the 1991 reforms moved in the opposite direction by introducing competition in banking.
Option 4 is wrong: Import substitution was the strategy followed before 1991 (building domestic industries behind protectionist barriers); the 1991 reforms replaced this with an outward-looking, export-promotion approach.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · FDI, FPI and FEMA

Q22. Which act replaced FERA (Foreign Exchange Regulation Act) in 1999 to facilitate external trade and payments?

  1. (a) Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act
  2. (b) Securities and Exchange Board of India Act
  3. (c) Foreign Exchange Management Act
  4. (d) Banking Regulation Act
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Foreign Exchange Management Act

The Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999, replaced the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA), 1973. FEMA shifted the approach from penal/criminal enforcement (under FERA) to a civil and management-based framework to facilitate external trade, payments, and development of the foreign exchange market. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act, 1969, governed anti-competitive practices and monopolies; it was not related to foreign exchange regulation.
Option 2 is wrong: The SEBI Act, 1992, established the Securities and Exchange Board of India to regulate the securities market; it was not a replacement for FERA.
Option 4 is wrong: The Banking Regulation Act, 1949, governs the banking sector; it was not enacted to replace FERA.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Foreign exchange reserves and exchange rates

Q23. Which of the following was not recommended by the Tarapore Committee (1997)?

  1. (a) Strengthening the financial sector
  2. (b) Reduction in gross fiscal deficit
  3. (c) Inflation control
  4. (d) Basel III adoption
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Basel III adoption

The Tarapore Committee on Capital Account Convertibility (1997) recommended preconditions for full convertibility including: reducing gross fiscal deficit, controlling inflation (below 3-5%), strengthening the financial sector, and building forex reserves. Basel III was NOT recommended because it did not exist in 1997 — the Basel III framework was developed by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision only in 2010-11. Option 4 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Strengthening the financial sector WAS recommended by the Tarapore Committee as a precondition for Capital Account Convertibility.
Option 2 is wrong: Reduction in gross fiscal deficit WAS recommended — the Committee specified that the gross fiscal deficit should be reduced to 3.5% of GDP.
Option 3 is wrong: Inflation control WAS recommended — the Committee set a target of maintaining CPI inflation in the 3-5% range as a precondition.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Foreign trade policy and EXIM

Q24. Which of the following was not part of India's trade policy in 1947-1990?

  1. (a) Encouragement of foreign multinational corporations
  2. (b) Quantitative restrictions on imports
  3. (c) Export promotion councils
  4. (d) Tariffs and duties to protect domestic industries
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Encouragement of foreign multinational corporations

During 1947-1990, India followed an inward-looking, protectionist trade policy (import substitution industrialization). Encouragement of foreign multinational corporations was NOT part of this policy — FDI was severely restricted and MNCs were discouraged. This changed only after the 1991 LPG reforms. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Quantitative restrictions (QRs) on imports WERE a central feature of India's trade policy 1947-1990, administered through the Import Control Order and licensing system.
Option 3 is wrong: Export promotion councils WERE established (e.g., the Clothing Export Promotion Council, FIEO) to help exporters — export promotion was part of India's trade policy even before 1990.
Option 4 is wrong: High tariffs and duties to protect domestic industries WERE central to India's pre-1991 trade policy, creating an effective system of protection for infant industries.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q25. To which state-sponsored program did the First Five-Year Plan allocate the largest share of its resources?

  1. (a) Irrigation and power
  2. (b) Consumer goods industries
  3. (c) Transport infrastructure
  4. (d) Steel development
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Irrigation and power

The First Five-Year Plan (1951-56), drafted by P.C. Mahalanobis under PM Nehru, allocated the largest share of resources (about 31%) to Agriculture and Irrigation (including power projects like the Bhakra-Nangal Dam). This was driven by the need for food security after Partition and Bengal famine. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Consumer goods industries received a much smaller share of resources in the First Plan; consumer goods production was left largely to the private sector.
Option 3 is wrong: Transport infrastructure received significant but not the largest share; it was a priority but secondary to agriculture and irrigation.
Option 4 is wrong: Steel development (heavy industries) became the focus of the Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61) under the Mahalanobis model; the First Plan emphasized agriculture and irrigation.
Industry and Infrastructure · Industrial Policy Resolutions (1948, 1956, 1991)

Q26. Which industries was explicitly reserved for the public sector by the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956?

  1. (a) Cotton textiles
  2. (b) Cement manufacturing
  3. (c) Defense and atomic energy
  4. (d) Sugar refining
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Defense and atomic energy

The Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR) 1956 divided industries into Schedule A (exclusively reserved for the public sector), Schedule B (mixed), and Schedule C (private sector). Schedule A included defense industries, atomic energy, railway transport, air transport, iron and steel, coal, oil, and electricity generation. Defense and atomic energy were exclusively for the public sector. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Cotton textiles was placed in Schedule C (private sector) under IPR 1956, as it was an established consumer goods industry suitable for private enterprise.
Option 2 is wrong: Cement manufacturing was included in Schedule C (private sector) under IPR 1956, left to private enterprise with government oversight.
Option 4 is wrong: Sugar refining was a private sector activity under IPR 1956; it was not reserved for the public sector.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q27. What was the main cause for India's foreign exchange crisis of 1957-58?

  1. (a) Sharp rise in imports due to heavy-industry strategy
  2. (b) Decline in workers' remittances
  3. (c) Collapse of global commodity prices
  4. (d) Oil price shock
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sharp rise in imports due to heavy-industry strategy

The 1957-58 foreign exchange crisis was caused primarily by a sharp rise in imports of capital goods, machinery, and raw materials required for the heavy-industry-focused Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61) under the Mahalanobis model. This depleted India's foreign exchange reserves rapidly. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Decline in workers' remittances was not a significant factor in the 1957-58 crisis; India's remittance inflows were minimal at that time compared to imports.
Option 3 is wrong: Collapse of global commodity prices was not the main cause; India's exports of traditional commodities (jute, cotton, tea) faced some challenges but the crisis was fundamentally import-driven.
Option 4 is wrong: The global oil price shock occurred in 1973 (OPEC crisis), not in 1957-58; oil was cheap in the 1950s and was not the cause of the 1957-58 forex crisis.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Economic laws and terms (Gresham's, Say's, Engel's, etc.)

Q28. Choose the correct statement regarding public goods.

  1. (a) They are non-excludable and non-rival.
  2. (b) They are excludable and rival.
  3. (c) They are excludable but non-rival.
  4. (d) They are non-excludable but rival.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) They are non-excludable and non-rival.

Public goods have two defining characteristics: (1) Non-excludability — once provided, no one can be excluded from using them; (2) Non-rivalry — one person's use does not reduce availability for others. Examples include national defense, lighthouses, and street lighting. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Goods that are both excludable and rival are private goods (e.g., food, clothing); these are the opposite of public goods.
Option 3 is wrong: Goods that are excludable but non-rival are club goods or toll goods (e.g., cable TV, toll roads with spare capacity) — a category distinct from pure public goods.
Option 4 is wrong: Goods that are non-excludable but rival are common pool resources (e.g., fish in the ocean, public pastures) — subject to the 'tragedy of the commons,' not pure public goods.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Deficits (fiscal, revenue, primary)

Q29. When does crowding out occur?

  1. (a) Fiscal expansion lowers interest rates.
  2. (b) Government borrowing raises interest rates and reduces private investment.
  3. (c) Tax cuts decrease public spending.
  4. (d) Government spending reduces private consumption directly.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Government borrowing raises interest rates and reduces private investment.

Crowding out occurs when increased government borrowing (to finance fiscal deficits) raises interest rates in financial markets, making borrowing more expensive for private firms and households, thereby reducing private investment. This is the classic definition of crowding out. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Fiscal expansion typically raises (not lowers) interest rates due to increased government borrowing, which is precisely how crowding out works.
Option 3 is wrong: Tax cuts generally increase disposable income and private spending; they don't describe the crowding out mechanism, which relates to government borrowing and interest rates.
Option 4 is wrong: While government spending can reduce private consumption through taxation, the crowding out effect specifically refers to the interest rate channel reducing private investment — not a direct reduction of private consumption.
Money and Banking · Monetary policy tools (repo, reverse repo, CRR, SLR, MSF, bank rate)

Q30. What happens when there is a rise in the repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India?

  1. (a) Increase investment and consumption.
  2. (b) Increase inflation immediately.
  3. (c) Reduce money supply and investment.
  4. (d) Have no effect on the economy
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Reduce money supply and investment.

When the RBI raises the repo rate (the rate at which commercial banks borrow from RBI), borrowing becomes more expensive for banks, which pass on higher interest rates to borrowers. This reduces the money supply, discourages borrowing, and contracts investment and consumption — the primary tool to control inflation. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: A rise in repo rate does the opposite — it reduces investment and consumption by making credit more expensive, not increases them.
Option 2 is wrong: A rise in repo rate is intended to control (reduce) inflation, not increase it; the contractionary monetary policy reduces demand and cools inflation.
Option 4 is wrong: The repo rate is one of the most powerful monetary policy tools; changes in repo rate have significant effects on borrowing costs, money supply, investment, and overall economic activity.
National Income · Keynesian income determination and multiplier

Q31. As per the Keynesian framework, unemployment can exist due to:

  1. (a) Insufficient aggregate demand
  2. (b) Rigid prices
  3. (c) Flexible wages
  4. (d) Excessive supply of labour
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Insufficient aggregate demand

According to Keynes, unemployment (especially involuntary unemployment) exists primarily because of insufficient aggregate demand in the economy. When businesses face low demand for goods and services, they reduce production and employment, causing unemployment. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Rigid prices are not the Keynesian explanation for unemployment; in fact, Keynes acknowledged wage and price rigidities, but the root cause is demand deficiency, not price rigidity per se.
Option 3 is wrong: Flexible wages are associated with classical economics, which argued that flexible wage adjustments would eliminate unemployment; Keynes criticized this view by arguing that even with wage flexibility, demand deficiency causes unemployment.
Option 4 is wrong: Excessive supply of labour (structural oversupply) is a supply-side explanation; Keynesian economics focuses on the demand side — insufficient aggregate demand is the central cause of unemployment in the Keynesian framework.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Housing, sanitation and rural development schemes

Q32. Mission Amrit Sarovar, launched in April 2022, originally aimed to construct or rejuvenate how many Amrit Sarovars across the country?

  1. (a) 25,000
  2. (b) 40,000
  3. (c) 50,000
  4. (d) 75,000
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 50,000

Mission Amrit Sarovar was launched by PM Narendra Modi on April 24, 2022 (National Panchayati Raj Day), with the original aim to construct or rejuvenate 50,000 Amrit Sarovars (ponds/water bodies) across India by August 15, 2023 (India's 76th Independence Day). Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: 25,000 Amrit Sarovars is far fewer than the mission's original target of 50,000 water bodies.
Option 2 is wrong: 40,000 is less than the mission's target; the original goal was 50,000 Amrit Sarovars .
Option 4 is wrong: 75,000 exceeds the original target; some sources cite 75,000 Gram Panchayats as coverage, but the specific target for Amrit Sarovars to be constructed/rejuvenated was 50,000.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Housing, sanitation and rural development schemes

Q33. Under Mission Amrit Sarovar, who has been given priority to lay the foundation stone of an Amrit Sarovar?

  1. (a) District Collector
  2. (b) Gram Pradhan
  3. (c) A freedom fighter or their family member
  4. (d) MP/MLA of the constituency
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A freedom fighter or their family member

Under Mission Amrit Sarovar, launched during Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav (India's 75th Independence anniversary celebrations), priority was given to freedom fighters or their family members to lay the foundation stone of each Amrit Sarovar, as a tribute to their sacrifice for the nation. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: District Collectors oversee mission implementation and administration but have not been specifically prioritized for laying foundation stones in the mission's guidelines.
Option 2 is wrong: Gram Pradhans (village heads) play a key role in implementing the mission at the ground level but are not specifically given priority for laying the foundation stone as per mission guidelines.
Option 4 is wrong: MPs and MLAs may participate in inauguration events, but the specific priority for laying the foundation stone under the mission guidelines was given to freedom fighters or their family members.

Geography (2)

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Western and Eastern Ghats

Q34. The highest peak in South India is:

  1. (a) Doddabetta
  2. (b) Anaimudi
  3. (c) Nilgiri
  4. (d) Agasthyamalai
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Anaimudi

Anaimudi (2,695 m) in the Anaimalai Hills of Kerala is the highest peak in South India and also the highest peak in the Western Ghats. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Doddabetta (2,637 m) in the Nilgiri Hills of Tamil Nadu is the highest peak in the Nilgiri range but is lower than Anaimudi .
Option 3 is wrong: Nilgiri is a mountain range, not a specific peak; the highest point in the Nilgiris is Doddabetta , which is lower than Anaimudi .
Option 4 is wrong: Agasthyamalai (1,869 m) in the Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve (Kerala-Tamil Nadu border) is a notable peak but is much lower than Anaimudi .
India - Transport and Communication · Ports and shipping

Q35. According to the March 2025 update, the Sagarmala Programme is implemented as a flagship initiative under which Union Ministry?

  1. (a) Ministry of Commerce & Industry
  2. (b) Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
  3. (c) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
  4. (d) Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways

The Sagarmala Programme , launched in 2015, is a flagship initiative of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways. It aims to harness India's 7,500 km coastline, 14,500 km of navigable waterways, and strategic port locations to drive port-led development. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: The Ministry of Commerce & Industry handles trade policy, export promotion, and industrial development; the Sagarmala Programme falls under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
Option 3 is wrong: The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways oversees road development ( Bharatmala Pariyojana ); maritime and port development ( Sagarmala ) is under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
Option 4 is wrong: The Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying oversees fishing, livestock, and dairy sectors; the Sagarmala Programme is under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.

Current Affairs (5)

Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q36. Who was appointed as the Lieutenant Governor of Ladakh in 2025?

  1. (a) P. Ashok Gajapathi Raju
  2. (b) Kavinder Gupta
  3. (c) Manoj Kumar Singh
  4. (d) Ashim Kumar Ghosh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Kavinder Gupta

Kavinder Gupta was appointed as the Lieutenant Governor of Ladakh in 2025. He is a veteran BJP leader from Jammu & Kashmir who earlier served as Deputy Chief Minister of J&K. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: P. Ashok Gajapathi Raju is a Telugu Desam Party leader and former Civil Aviation Minister; he was not appointed LG of Ladakh in 2025.
Option 3 is wrong: Manoj Kumar Singh is an IAS officer who has served in UP administration; he was not appointed LG of Ladakh in 2025.
Option 4 is wrong: Ashim Kumar Ghosh is not associated with the appointment as LG of Ladakh in 2025.
Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q37. Among the Indian-language entries in the International Booker lists, which one is recognized as a "Kannada short-story collection" that achieved a prize-winning status?

  1. (a) Ghachar Ghochar
  2. (b) Heart Lamp
  3. (c) Kusumabale
  4. (d) No Presents Please
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Heart Lamp

"Heart Lamp" is a Kannada short-story collection by Banu Mushtaq, translated into English by Deepa Bhasthi, which won the International Booker Prize 2025 — making it the first Kannada work to win the prize. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: " Ghachar Ghochar" by Vivek Shanbhag (Kannada, translated by Srinath Perur) was longlisted for the International Booker Prize but did not win; it is a novella, not a short-story collection.
Option 3 is wrong: " Kusumabale " is a noted Kannada novel by Poornachandra Tejaswi but is not associated with an International Booker Prize win.
Option 4 is wrong: "No Presents Please" is a Marathi short-story collection by Jayant Kaikini (translated by Tejaswini Niranjana), not a Kannada collection.
Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Obituaries

Q38. Which former Prime Minister of India passed away shortly before the parliamentary session of early 2025?

  1. (a) I. K. Gujral
  2. (b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
  3. (c) Dr. Manmohan Singh
  4. (d) H. D. Deve Gowda
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Dr. Manmohan Singh

Dr. Manmohan Singh, former Prime Minister of India (2004-2014) and architect of the 1991 economic reforms as Finance Minister, passed away on December 26, 2024 — shortly before the Budget Session of Parliament in early 2025. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: I. K. Gujral, former Prime Minister (1997-98), passed away on November 30, 2012 — over a decade before the 2025 parliamentary session.
Option 2 is wrong: Atal Bihari Vajpayee, former Prime Minister (1998-2004), passed away on August 16, 2018 — not shortly before the 2025 parliamentary session.
Option 4 is wrong: H. D. Deve Gowda, former Prime Minister (1996-97), was alive as of early 2025; he did not pass away before the 2025 parliamentary session.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q39. Who laid the foundation stone of the Madhav Netralaya Premium Centre in Nagpur in March 2025?

  1. (a) Amit Shah
  2. (b) Narendra Modi
  3. (c) Eknath Shinde
  4. (d) Jagdeep Dhankhar
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Narendra Modi

Prime Minister Narendra Modi laid the foundation stone of the Madhav Netralaya Premium Centre in Nagpur, Maharashtra in March 2025, as part of his efforts to promote healthcare infrastructure. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Amit Shah is the Union Home Minister ; he did not lay the foundation stone of the Madhav Netralaya Premium Centre in Nagpur in March 2025.
Option 3 is wrong: Eknath Shinde is a Maharashtra politician and former Chief Minister; he was not the dignitary who laid the foundation stone of this centre .
Option 4 is wrong: Jagdeep Dhankhar is the Vice President of India; he was not involved in laying the foundation stone of the Madhav Netralaya Premium Centre in March 2025.
International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q40. Which two leaders visited Gurdwara Rakab Ganj Sahib in New Delhi in March 2025?

  1. (a) Narendra Modi and Anthony Albanese
  2. (b) Narendra Modi and Christopher Luxon
  3. (c) Narendra Modi and Rishi Sunak
  4. (d) Narendra Modi and Justin Trudeau
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Narendra Modi and Christopher Luxon

PM Narendra Modi and New Zealand Prime Minister Christopher Luxon visited Gurdwara Rakab Ganj Sahib in New Delhi in March 2025 during Luxon's official visit to India, paying their respects at the historic Sikh shrine. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Anthony Albanese is the Prime Minister of Australia; his visit to India did not include the Gurdwara Rakab Ganj Sahib visit in March 2025.
Option 3 is wrong: Rishi Sunak served as Prime Minister of the UK until the July 2024 general election, after which Labour's Keir Starmer became PM; Sunak was not PM during March 2025.
Option 4 is wrong: Justin Trudeau resigned as PM of Canada in January 2025; Mark Carney became PM afterwards. Trudeau was not in a position to visit India as PM in March 2025.

Polity (8)

Union, Territory and Citizenship · Reorganisation of states and new states

Q41. Which of the following is not permitted under Article 3 of the Constitution?

  1. (a) Legislature's veto over state reorganisation
  2. (b) Increase in area of a state
  3. (c) Change of name of a state
  4. (d) Formation of a new state from a Union Territory
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Legislature's veto over state reorganisation

Under Article 3, Parliament has the power to reorganise states (form new states, alter areas, boundaries, names). However, Parliament is NOT required to obtain the consent of the concerned State Legislature — it only needs to refer the bill to the state for expressing views within a specified time, and Parliament is not bound by those views. Therefore, a 'Legislature's veto' (binding refusal) over state reorganisation is NOT permitted. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Increasing the area of a state IS explicitly permitted under Article 3(b) — Parliament can increase the area of any state.
Option 3 is wrong: Changing the name of a state IS explicitly permitted under Article 3(e) — Parliament can alter the name of any state.
Option 4 is wrong: Formation of a new state from a Union Territory IS permitted under Article 3(a) — Parliament can form a new state by separation of territory from any existing state or by uniting two or more states.
Elections, Parties and Representation · Anti-defection law (Tenth Schedule)

Q42. Which of the following constitutional amendments is known for introducing the "Anti-Defection Law"?

  1. (a) 44th Amendment, 1978
  2. (b) 52nd Amendment, 1985
  3. (c) 61st Amendment, 1989
  4. (d) 73rd Amendment, 1992
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 52nd Amendment, 1985

The 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985, introduced the Anti-Defection Law by adding the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution. It disqualifies legislators who defect from their party (by voluntarily giving up membership or voting against party directions). Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: The 44th Amendment (1978) restored fundamental rights curtailed during the Emergency, including restoring the right to property as a legal right; it did not introduce the Anti-Defection Law.
Option 3 is wrong: The 61st Amendment (1989) lowered the voting age from 21 to 18 years; it had nothing to do with anti-defection provisions.
Option 4 is wrong: The 73rd Amendment (1992) gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions by adding Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule; it did not deal with political defections.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Financial relations

Q43. Grants-in-aid to States in need of assistance are given under:

  1. (a) Article 270
  2. (b) Article 275
  3. (c) Article 280
  4. (d) Article 282
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 275

Article 275 of the Indian Constitution provides for grants-in-aid from the Consolidated Fund of India to States that are in need of assistance. These grants are given as per the recommendations of the Finance Commission. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Article 270 deals with the distribution of taxes between the Union and States (taxes levied and collected by the Union but distributed to states) — not grants-in-aid.
Option 3 is wrong: Article 280 establishes the Finance Commission, which recommends the distribution of financial resources; it does not directly provide grants-in-aid.
Option 4 is wrong: Article 282 allows both Union and States to make grants for any public purpose even if it is not covered under the legislative list — these are discretionary grants, not the structured grants-in-aid under Article 275.
Local Government · PESA Act, State Finance and State Election Commissions

Q44. Which of the following body supervises municipal elections?

  1. (a) State Election Commission
  2. (b) Parliament
  3. (c) Election Commission of India
  4. (d) High Court
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) State Election Commission

The State Election Commission (SEC), established under Article 243K by the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments (1992), is responsible for superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and conduct of elections to Panchayats and Urban Local Bodies (municipalities). Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Parliament makes laws relating to elections but does not directly supervise or conduct municipal elections.
Option 3 is wrong: The Election Commission of India (ECI) oversees elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, and offices of President and Vice President — NOT municipal elections.
Option 4 is wrong: High Courts have judicial oversight and can hear election petitions, but they do not supervise or conduct municipal elections; that is the State Election Commission's role.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Commissions on Centre-State relations (Sarkaria, Punchhi)

Q45. Which of the following commissions recommended the creation of the Inter-State Council?

  1. (a) Mandal Commission
  2. (b) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
  3. (c) Sarkaria Commission
  4. (d) Punchhi Commission
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sarkaria Commission

The Sarkaria Commission (1983-88), set up to examine Centre-State relations, recommended the creation of a permanent Inter-State Council under Article 263 of the Constitution. The Inter-State Council was subsequently established by a Presidential Order in 1990. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: The Mandal Commission (1978-80) focused on identification of Other Backward Classes (OBCs) and recommendations for their reservation in government services; it did not deal with Centre-State relations.
Option 2 is wrong: The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) recommended the establishment of Panchayati Raj institutions (democratic decentralisation ); it did not recommend the Inter-State Council.
Option 4 is wrong: The Punchhi Commission (2007-10) was set up to review the Sarkaria Commission's recommendations and examined Centre-State relations, but the Inter-State Council was already established by then based on Sarkaria's recommendation.
Parliament · Joint sitting

Q46. Who presides over the joint sitting of Parliament?

  1. (a) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
  2. (b) President
  3. (c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
  4. (d) Prime Minister
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Under Article 118(4) of the Indian Constitution, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over the joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament. In their absence, the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha presides. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (i.e., the Vice President of India) presides over Rajya Sabha sessions, not joint sittings of Parliament.
Option 2 is wrong: The President of India summons the joint sitting under Article 108 when there is a deadlock between the two Houses, but does not preside over it.
Option 4 is wrong: The Prime Minister leads the government and the Cabinet but has no constitutional role in presiding over joint sittings of Parliament.
Union Executive · President - powers (executive, legislative, veto, pardon, ordinance)

Q47. Which dignitary addressed the joint session of Parliament at the beginning of 2025?

  1. (a) Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar
  2. (b) President Droupadi Murmu
  3. (c) Speaker Om Birla
  4. (d) Prime Minister Narendra Modi
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) President Droupadi Murmu

President Droupadi Murmu addressed the joint session of Parliament at the beginning of the 2025 Budget Session (January 2025), as required by Article 87 of the Constitution which mandates the President to address the joint sitting of both Houses at the commencement of the first session after each general election and at the beginning of the first session of each year. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar serves as the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha and presides over its sessions, but does not address the joint session of Parliament.
Option 3 is wrong: Speaker Om Birla presides over Lok Sabha and joint sittings of Parliament but does not address the Parliament at the beginning of the year — that is the President's constitutional role.
Option 4 is wrong: Prime Minister Narendra Modi leads the government and participates in parliamentary sessions, but the constitutional mandate for addressing the joint session belongs to the President, not the Prime Minister.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q48. In the Bharatiya Nyaya (Second) Sanhita, 2023, organised crime is recognised as an offence when the crime is committed on behalf of which of the following?

  1. (a) A trade association
  2. (b) A registered charity
  3. (c) A crime syndicate
  4. (d) A public sector company
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A crime syndicate

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) 2023, organised crime is specifically defined as a continuing unlawful activity committed by a person belonging to or acting on behalf of a crime syndicate — a group of two or more persons acting in concert for criminal gain. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: A trade association is a legitimate industry body; crimes committed on behalf of a trade association would not constitute ' organised crime' under the BNS definition.
Option 2 is wrong: A registered charity is a lawful non-profit organization; the BNS organised crime provisions apply specifically to crime syndicates, not charitable organizations.
Option 4 is wrong: A public sector company is a government-owned enterprise; the BNS organised crime provisions are not triggered by crimes committed on behalf of public sector companies.

Modern History (1)

British Administration and Policies · Civil services, police and judiciary under the British

Q49. The first Criminal Procedure Code in India was passed in 1861. Which major problem did it aim to address at that time?

  1. (a) Lack of police forces
  2. (b) Multiplicity of legal systems
  3. (c) Absence of appellate courts
  4. (d) Shortage of trained judicial officers
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Multiplicity of legal systems

The Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) 1861 was enacted by the British to address the multiplicity of legal systems — the coexistence of numerous fragmented, inconsistent, and overlapping criminal laws across different presidencies, provinces, and princely states in colonial India. The CrPC created a uniform criminal procedure across British India. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: While policing was reorganized by the Police Act of 1861 (passed the same year), the CrPC's primary purpose was not addressing a lack of police forces but establishing uniform criminal procedure.
Option 3 is wrong: Appellate courts existed in the colonial system; the CrPC 1861 addressed the lack of uniformity in criminal procedures, not the absence of appellate courts.
Option 4 is wrong: Shortage of trained judicial officers was not the specific problem the CrPC 1861 targeted; it aimed to harmonize the disparate criminal procedure laws across British India.
← 20 December 2025 Shift 1All shifts20 December 2025 Shift 3 →
📥 PDF of this paper (all subjects, English & Hindi): Delhi Police Constable (Exe) previous year papers PDF · ▶ Attempt previous year papers as free online tests · 🏆 Free live mock tests · 📰 Daily current affairs quiz