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Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 22 December 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 41 GK / GS questions asked in Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 on 22 December 2025 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Medieval History, Geography, Biology, Current Affairs, Polity, Economics.

📚 41 questions🗓️ 22 December 2025⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Medieval History (2) · Geography (2) · Biology (2) · Current Affairs (3) · Polity (10) · Economics (8) · Static GK (13) · Chemistry (1)

Medieval History (2)

Early Medieval North India · Kashmir and other regional kingdoms

Q1. Lalitaditya Muktapida was a ruler of which kingdom in early medieval India?

  1. (a) Malwa
  2. (b) Vengi
  3. (c) Kashmir
  4. (d) Bengal
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kashmir

Lalitaditya Muktapida (reigned c. 724-761 CE) was the most powerful ruler of the Karkota dynasty of Kashmir. He conducted extensive military campaigns across India and Central Asia, making Kashmir a major power in early medieval India. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Malwa was ruled by various dynasties ( Paramaras , later Mughals) in medieval India; Lalitaditya Muktapida was not a ruler of Malwa.
Option 2 is wrong: Vengi (in present-day Andhra Pradesh) was associated with the Eastern Chalukya dynasty during the early medieval period; Lalitaditya was not its ruler.
Option 4 is wrong: Bengal was associated with the Pala dynasty during the early medieval period; Lalitaditya Muktapida ruled Kashmir, not Bengal.
Vijayanagara and Bahmani Kingdoms · Vijayanagara administration and architecture

Q2. Hampi , the capital of Vijayanagara empire, was founded in the fourteenth century and got its name from:

  1. (a) Harihar, the founder of the empire
  2. (b) Bukka, the brother of Harihar
  3. (c) Pampadevi , the local mother goddess
  4. (d) Krishna Dev Raya, the ruler of Vijayanagara
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Pampadevi , the local mother goddess

Hampi derives its name from Pampadevi (Pampa), the local mother goddess associated with the Tungabhadra River. ' Hampi ' is a Kannada corruption of 'Pampa' — the ancient name of the Tungabhadra River and of the goddess Pampadevi , who is also known as Parvati (Shiva's consort) in local tradition. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Harihar I was a co-founder of the Vijayanagara Empire (along with his brother Bukka) in 1336, but Hampi's name is derived from the goddess Pampadevi , not from Harihar.
Option 2 is wrong: Bukka I (Bukka Raya) was the co-founder and later ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire; Hampi's name is not derived from Bukka — it comes from the goddess Pampa.
Option 4 is wrong: Krishna Dev Raya (reigned 1509-1529) was the greatest ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire who patronized arts and literature, but Hampi's name derives from the ancient goddess Pampadevi, predating Krishna Dev Raya.

Geography (2)

Universe and Solar System · Eclipses, seasons, day and night

Q3. Which phenomenon occurs due to the Earth's revolution around the Sun?

  1. (a) Formation of tides
  2. (b) Change in weather patterns
  3. (c) The length of a day
  4. (d) Occurrence of seasons
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Occurrence of seasons

The Earth's revolution (orbital movement) around the Sun over one year, combined with the axial tilt of 23.5 degrees, causes the occurrence of seasons — summer, autumn, winter, and spring — as different hemispheres receive varying amounts of sunlight throughout the year. Option 4 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Formation of tides is caused by the gravitational pull of the Moon (and to a lesser extent the Sun) on Earth's oceans — this is a result of the Moon's revolution and gravity, not Earth's revolution around the Sun.
Option 2 is wrong: While seasons influence weather, the direct day-to-day change in weather patterns is caused by atmospheric factors (pressure, temperature, wind, humidity) — not directly by Earth's revolution around the Sun.
Option 3 is wrong: The length of a day (24 hours) is determined by the Earth's rotation on its own axis — not by its revolution around the Sun.
Geography Miscellaneous · Disaster management

Q4. What is a growing concern message for societies around the world?

  1. (a) Decreasing population density
  2. (b) Improving disaster prediction technology
  3. (c) Growing resistance to natural hazards
  4. (d) Increasing exposure to natural hazards
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Increasing exposure to natural hazards

Increasing exposure to natural hazards is a major growing concern for societies worldwide, driven by climate change, rapid urbanization in hazard-prone areas, deforestation, and sea-level rise. More people and assets are being placed in harm's way, increasing disaster risk globally. Option 4 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Decreasing population density is actually occurring in some rural and developed regions, but it is not identified as a major global concern message related to natural hazards and disaster risk.
Option 2 is wrong: Improving disaster prediction technology is a positive development and a goal, not a growing concern — it represents progress in reducing disaster risk.
Option 3 is wrong: Growing resistance to natural hazards would be a positive trend (meaning societies are becoming more resilient); the actual concern is INCREASING exposure, not growing resistance.

Biology (2)

Plant Physiology and Morphology · Photosynthesis - process and factors

Q5. Which gas is absorbed by plants during photosynthesis?

  1. (a) Oxygen
  2. (b) Nitrogen
  3. (c) Carbon dioxide
  4. (d) Hydrogen
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Carbon dioxide

During photosynthesis, plants absorb Carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere through their stomata and use it — along with water and sunlight — to produce glucose and oxygen. The equation is: 6CO2 + 6H2O + light energy → C6H12O6 + 6O2. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Oxygen is released by plants during photosynthesis as a byproduct — it is not absorbed. Plants do absorb oxygen during cellular respiration (a separate process), but not during photosynthesis.
Option 2 is wrong: Nitrogen is absorbed by plants from the soil (through roots) as nitrates/ammonia, not from the atmosphere during photosynthesis; nitrogen gas cannot be directly used by most plants.
Option 4 is wrong: Hydrogen gas is not absorbed by plants during photosynthesis; hydrogen is obtained from the splitting of water molecules (photolysis) within the plant cells during photosynthesis.
Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Aerobic and anaerobic respiration

Q6. What is the first step in breaking down glucose in cells?

  1. (a) Conversion of glucose into ethanol
  2. (b) Breakdown of glucose into pyruvate
  3. (c) Release of energy from pyruvate
  4. (d) Conversion of pyruvate into lactic acid
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Breakdown of glucose into pyruvate

The first step in breaking down glucose in cells is glycolysis, which occurs in the cytoplasm. During glycolysis, one molecule of glucose (6-carbon) is broken down into two molecules of pyruvate (3-carbon each), producing 2 ATP and 2 NADH in the process. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Conversion of glucose into ethanol (fermentation) is an anaerobic process that occurs in some microorganisms (like yeast), not the universal first step in cellular glucose breakdown; glycolysis always precedes it.
Option 3 is wrong: Release of energy from pyruvate (in the Krebs cycle and electron transport chain) occurs AFTER glycolysis; it is not the first step in glucose breakdown.
Option 4 is wrong: Conversion of pyruvate into lactic acid (lactic acid fermentation) occurs in muscle cells under anaerobic conditions as an alternative to aerobic respiration; it is not the first step in glucose breakdown.

Current Affairs (3)

Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q7. Who is the 26th Chief Election Commissioner of India?

  1. (a) Shri Gyanesh Kumar
  2. (b) Shri BVR Subrahmanyam
  3. (c) Dr. Vijay Kumar Saraswat
  4. (d) Shri Suman K Dery
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Shri Gyanesh Kumar

Shri Gyanesh Kumar was appointed as the 26th Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India in March 2024, following the retirement of Rajiv Kumar. He is a 1988-batch IAS officer from the Kerala cadre and was previously an Election Commissioner. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Shri BVR Subrahmanyam is an IAS officer who served as CEO of NITI Aayog and later as Cabinet Secretary; he was not appointed as the CEC.
Option 3 is wrong: Dr. Vijay Kumar Saraswat is a Distinguished Scientist and former DRDO chief, currently a member of NITI Aayog; he is not related to the Election Commission of India.
Option 4 is wrong: Shri Suman K Bery is an economist who served as Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog; he is not the Chief Election Commissioner.
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q8. Who was sworn in as the Comptroller and Auditor General of India in November 2024?

  1. (a) Girish Chandra Murmu
  2. (b) Shashi Kant Sharma
  3. (c) K Sanjay Murthy
  4. (d) Vinod Rai
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) K Sanjay Murthy

K. Sanjay Murthy was sworn in as the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India in November 2024. He is a 1989-batch IAS officer from the Himachal Pradesh cadre and served in various senior government positions before his appointment as CAG. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Girish Chandra Murmu served as the CAG of India from August 2020 to November 2024, before K. Sanjay Murthy took over; he was not sworn in as CAG in November 2024.
Option 2 is wrong: Shashi Kant Sharma served as CAG from May 2013 to September 2017; he was not sworn in as CAG in November 2024.
Option 4 is wrong: Vinod Rai served as CAG from January 2008 to May 2013, known for the 2G spectrum and coal allocation reports; he was not sworn in as CAG in November 2024.
Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q9. Identify the Indian writer whose prize-winning work in the International Booker context represents the first major global recognition for Kannada in this award.

  1. (a) Vivek Shanbhag
  2. (b) Banu Mushtaq
  3. (c) Jayant Kaikini
  4. (d) Poornachandra Tejaswi
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Banu Mushtaq

Banu Mushtaq's short-story collection "Heart Lamp" (translated from Kannada to English by Deepa Bhasthi) won the International Booker Prize 2025, making it the first Kannada work to win the prize — representing the first major global recognition for Kannada literature in this award. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Vivek Shanbhag's novel " Ghachar Ghochar " (translated to English by Srinath Perur) was the first Kannada work to receive significant International Booker attention (longlisted/discussed), but it did not win the prize. The first to actually WIN was Banu Mushtaq.
Option 3 is wrong: Jayant Kaikini is a celebrated Kannada and Marathi writer; his English-translated works have received attention but he has not won the International Booker Prize.
Option 4 is wrong: Poornachandra Tejaswi was a renowned Kannada author known for nature writing and fiction; none of his works won the International Booker Prize.

Polity (10)

Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Union Territories administration

Q10. Who is the first Lieutenant Governor of the newly created Union Territory of Ladakh?

  1. (a) B.D. Mishra
  2. (b) R.K. Mathur
  3. (c) Ghulam Ali Khatana
  4. (d) Satnam Singh Sandhu
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) R.K. Mathur

R.K. Mathur (Radha Krishna Mathur) was appointed as the first Lieutenant Governor of Ladakh when it was bifurcated from Jammu & Kashmir and constituted as a Union Territory on October 31, 2019. He is a retired IAS officer from the Andaman & Nicobar cadre. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: B.D. Mishra (Brigadier B.D. Mishra, retd.) served as the Lieutenant Governor of Arunachal Pradesh and later as the second Lieutenant Governor of Ladakh (from March 2022); he was not the first LG of Ladakh.
Option 3 is wrong: Ghulam Ali Khatana is a political figure from Jammu & Kashmir; he was not appointed as the Lieutenant Governor of Ladakh.
Option 4 is wrong: Satnam Singh Sandhu is a politician and former Rajya Sabha MP; he was not appointed as the Lieutenant Governor of Ladakh.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q11. Which law modernizes criminal procedures and investigations?

  1. (a) Hindu Succession Act
  2. (b) Right to Information Act
  3. (c) Companies Act
  4. (d) Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita

The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, which replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) 1973, modernizes criminal procedures and investigations in India by introducing provisions like mandatory videography of crime scenes, time-bound trials, recognition of electronic evidence, and zero FIR. Option 4 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 (amended 2005), deals with rules for inheritance and succession of property among Hindus; it does not modernize criminal procedures.
Option 2 is wrong: The Right to Information Act, 2005 (RTI Act) enables citizens to request information from public authorities; it deals with transparency in governance, not criminal procedures.
Option 3 is wrong: The Companies Act, 2013 regulates company incorporation, governance, and corporate law; it deals with business entities and does not modernize criminal procedures.
Polity Miscellaneous · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q12. Which law was replaced by the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?

  1. (a) Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
  2. (b) Indian Penal Code, 1860
  3. (c) Police Act, 1861
  4. (d) Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973

The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973 — the law that governed criminal procedure in India. The three criminal laws replaced simultaneously were: IPC by BNS, CrPC by BNSS, and Indian Evidence Act by Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: The Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, was replaced by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 — not by BNSS. The BNSS specifically replaced the CrPC.
Option 3 is wrong: The Police Act, 1861, has not been replaced by BNSS; it is a separate legislation governing the organization and functioning of police forces in India.
Option 4 is wrong: The Indian Evidence Act, 1872, was replaced by the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 — not by BNSS. BNSS replaced the CrPC.
Constitutional Development and Making · Constituent Assembly - formation and members

Q13. Who among the following was NOT a member of the Constituent Assembly?

  1. (a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
  2. (b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
  3. (c) Mahatma Gandhi
  4. (d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Mahatma Gandhi

Mahatma Gandhi was NOT a member of the Constituent Assembly of India. Gandhi was the guiding spirit of the independence movement and Father of the Nation, but he deliberately stayed away from the Constituent Assembly, believing his role was more that of a moral guide than a constitution-drafter. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar WAS a member of the Constituent Assembly and served as the Chairman of the Drafting Committee — he is considered the principal architect of the Indian Constitution.
Option 2 is wrong: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel WAS a prominent member of the Constituent Assembly and played a key role in integrating princely states and shaping the Constitution's federal structure.
Option 4 is wrong: Jawaharlal Nehru WAS a leading member of the Constituent Assembly. He moved the Objectives Resolution in December 1946, which formed the philosophical basis of the Indian Constitution.
Constitutional Development and Making · Objectives Resolution, adoption and enactment dates

Q14. On what date was the Constitution of India put into force?

  1. (a) 15 August 1947
  2. (b) 26 January 1950
  3. (c) 26 November 1949
  4. (d) 30 January 1950
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 26 January 1950

The Constitution of India was put into force (came into effect) on 26 January 1950, which is celebrated as Republic Day. Although the Constitution was adopted and signed on 26 November 1949 (celebrated as Constitution Day/ Samvidhan Divas), it formally came into force on 26 January 1950. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: 15 August 1947 is India's Independence Day — the date India became independent from British rule; the Constitution had not yet been drafted on this date.
Option 3 is wrong: 26 November 1949 is when the Constituent Assembly adopted and signed the Constitution (Constitution Day); however, most of its provisions came into force on 26 January 1950, not 26 November 1949.
Option 4 is wrong: 30 January 1950 has no constitutional significance; the Constitution came into force on 26 January 1950, not 30 January.
Union, Territory and Citizenship · Union and its territory (Articles 1-4)

Q15. Under which article is India described as a "Union of States"?

  1. (a) Article 1
  2. (b) Article 352
  3. (c) Article 368
  4. (d) Article 3
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 1

Article 1 of the Indian Constitution states: 'India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.' This establishes India's name, its nature as a Union (not a federation, reflecting the indestructible nature of the Union), and that territories consist of States, Union Territories, and such other territories as may be acquired. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Article 352 deals with the National Emergency (Proclamation of Emergency) in case of armed rebellion or external aggression; it does not describe India as a 'Union of States.'
Option 3 is wrong: Article 368 deals with the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and the procedure for amendment; it does not describe India as a Union of States.
Option 4 is wrong: Article 3 deals with the formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries, and names of existing states — Parliament's power to reorganise states; it does not describe India's nature as a Union.
Constitutional Development and Making · Borrowed features - sources of the Constitution

Q16. From which country was the concept of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) borrowed?

  1. (a) Canada
  2. (b) United States of America
  3. (c) United Kingdom
  4. (d) Ireland
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ireland

The concept of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) was borrowed from the Irish Constitution of 1937 ( Bunreacht na hEireann ), which itself drew from the Spanish Constitution of 1931. The DPSPs are contained in Part IV (Articles 36-51) of the Indian Constitution and represent socio-economic goals that the state should strive to achieve. Option 4 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: From Canada, India borrowed the concept of a strong central government, residual powers vested in the Centre, and the appointment of Governors by the Centre — not the DPSPs.
Option 2 is wrong: From the United States, India borrowed the concept of fundamental rights, independent judiciary, judicial review, and the Preamble's 'We the People' opening — not the DPSPs.
Option 3 is wrong: From the United Kingdom, India borrowed the parliamentary form of government, the concept of the rule of law, single citizenship, and the legislative procedure — not the DPSPs.
Union Executive · Council of Ministers and Cabinet

Q17. The Constitution prescribes that Union Ministers are collectively responsible to:

  1. (a) President
  2. (b) Parliament
  3. (c) Lok Sabha
  4. (d) Prime Minister
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Lok Sabha

Article 75(3) of the Indian Constitution explicitly states: 'The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha).' This means the Cabinet must maintain the confidence of the Lok Sabha — if it loses a vote of confidence, the entire Cabinet must resign. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: While the President appoints the Prime Minister and other ministers on the PM's advice, the Constitution does not prescribe collective responsibility to the President — it is to the Lok Sabha.
Option 2 is wrong: The Council of Ministers is not collectively responsible to Parliament as a whole (both Houses); the specific constitutional provision under Article 75(3) states responsibility is to the Lok Sabha only.
Option 4 is wrong: Individual ministers are responsible to the Prime Minister for their portfolio performance, but the constitutional collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers is to the Lok Sabha, not to the Prime Minister.
Union Executive · Council of Ministers and Cabinet

Q18. Under Article 77 of the Constitution, the executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of:

  1. (a) Cabinet Secretary
  2. (b) President
  3. (c) Council of Ministers
  4. (d) Prime Minister
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) President

Article 77(1) of the Indian Constitution states: 'All executive action of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President.' This does not mean the President personally takes all decisions; it means all official government actions are formally issued in the President's name. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: The Cabinet Secretary is the senior-most civil servant of the Government of India and heads the Cabinet Secretariat; government executive actions are not expressed in the Cabinet Secretary's name.
Option 3 is wrong: While the Council of Ministers actually exercises executive power, Article 77 specifically states that executive actions shall be expressed in the name of the President — not the Council of Ministers.
Option 4 is wrong: The Prime Minister is the head of government and chairs the Cabinet; however, Article 77 designates that executive actions of the Government of India are formally expressed in the President's name.
Fundamental Rights · Fundamental Rights - general (Articles 12, 13)

Q19. The "Golden Triangle" in Indian constitutional jurisprudence refers to —

  1. (a) Articles 14, 19, and 21
  2. (b) Articles 368, 371, and 372
  3. (c) Articles 32, 136, and 226
  4. (d) Articles 280, 281, and 282
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Articles 14, 19, and 21

The 'Golden Triangle' in Indian constitutional jurisprudence refers to Articles 14 (right to equality), 19 (right to freedom/six freedoms), and 21 (right to life and personal liberty) — the three most fundamental and interconnected rights. Any law that violates any one of these must be tested against the other two as well. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Articles 368, 371, and 372 deal with constitutional amendments, special provisions for certain states, and continuance of existing laws respectively — they are not known as the 'Golden Triangle.'
Option 3 is wrong: Articles 32, 136, and 226 relate to judicial remedies (Supreme Court's jurisdiction, special leave petitions, and High Court writs) — not the 'Golden Triangle' of fundamental rights.
Option 4 is wrong: Articles 280, 281, and 282 deal with Finance Commission, recommendations of Finance Commission, and expenditure from Consolidated Fund — they are related to fiscal federalism, not the 'Golden Triangle.'

Economics (8)

Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q20. What was the main focus of the Third Five-Year Plan (1961-1966) in India?

  1. (a) Poverty alleviation
  2. (b) Growth of heavy industries
  3. (c) Improvement of agriculture
  4. (d) Foreign trade expansion
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Improvement of agriculture

The Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66) had the primary focus on achieving self-sufficiency in food grains and improvement of agriculture, as India had faced food shortages and foreign exchange crises during the Second Plan. The Third Plan aimed for a self-sustaining economy with agriculture at the center. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Poverty alleviation became the explicit focus only from the Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79) under Indira Gandhi's ' Garibi Hatao' slogan; it was not the primary focus of the Third Plan.
Option 2 is wrong: Growth of heavy industries was the primary focus of the Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61) under the Mahalanobis model; the Third Plan balanced industry with greater emphasis on agriculture.
Option 4 is wrong: Foreign trade expansion was not a primary focus of the Third Five-Year Plan; India's trade policy remained largely inward-looking during this period.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Financial inclusion schemes (PMJDY, PMJJBY, PMSBY, APY)

Q21. The Atal Pension Yojana primarily targets which section of the population?

  1. (a) Government employees
  2. (b) Housewives
  3. (c) Unorganized sector workers
  4. (d) School students
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Unorganized sector workers

The Atal Pension Yojana (APY), launched on June 1, 2015 by the Government of India, primarily targets workers in the unorganized sector who have no access to formal pension schemes. It provides a guaranteed minimum pension of Rs. 1,000 to Rs. 5,000 per month after the age of 60, depending on contributions. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Government employees are covered by the National Pension System (NPS) or the Government Employees Pension Scheme; APY is designed for unorganized sector workers who lack formal pension coverage.
Option 2 is wrong: While housewives can join APY if they have a savings bank account and meet eligibility criteria, they are not the primary target group — unorganized sector workers are.
Option 4 is wrong: School students are not the target population for APY; the scheme is for adults (18-40 years) in the unorganized workforce who lack pension security.
Agriculture and Food Security · Public Distribution System and FCI

Q22. The One Nation One Ration Card scheme aims to benefit which group the most?

  1. (a) Retired government employees
  2. (b) Urban businessmen
  3. (c) Migrant workers
  4. (d) Foreign tourists
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Migrant workers

The One Nation One Ration Card (ONORC) scheme, implemented from 2019 onwards, aims to benefit migrant workers most by allowing them to access their entitled subsidized food grains from any Fair Price Shop (PDS outlet) anywhere in India, using their existing ration card and Aadhaar number — removing the location-based restriction. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Retired government employees receive pension and other benefits from their respective departments; they are not the primary target group for the ONORC scheme, which targets food-insecure migrant populations.
Option 2 is wrong: Urban businessmen are typically not beneficiaries of the Public Distribution System (PDS); the ONORC scheme targets economically vulnerable migrant workers who rely on subsidized food grains.
Option 4 is wrong: Foreign tourists are not eligible for PDS benefits in India; the ONORC scheme is exclusively for Indian citizens with ration cards, particularly internal migrant workers.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Economic groupings (BRICS, G20, ASEAN)

Q23. In which city did the first meeting of BRIC Foreign Ministers take place in 2006?

  1. (a) Moscow
  2. (b) New Delhi
  3. (c) New York
  4. (d) Beijing
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) New York

The first BRIC Foreign Ministers' meeting took place in New York in September 2006, on the sidelines of the United Nations General Assembly. This meeting laid the groundwork for the subsequent BRIC Summits, with the first full BRIC Summit held in Yekaterinburg, Russia in 2009. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Moscow is Russia's capital and has hosted various diplomatic meetings, but the first BRIC Foreign Ministers' meeting in 2006 was held in New York, not Moscow.
Option 2 is wrong: New Delhi, India's capital, has hosted various BRICS meetings and summits, but the first BRIC Foreign Ministers' meeting in 2006 was held in New York.
Option 4 is wrong: Beijing, China's capital, has hosted BRICS events, but the inaugural BRIC Foreign Ministers' meeting in 2006 was convened in New York on the sidelines of the UN General Assembly.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Indirect taxes and GST

Q24. Why was VAT (2005) introduced by states?

  1. (a) Enhance custom duties
  2. (b) Increase central revenue
  3. (c) Remove cascading effects of sales tax
  4. (d) Promote imports
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Remove cascading effects of sales tax

Value Added Tax (VAT) was introduced by Indian states from April 1, 2005, to replace the complex and fragmented state sales tax systems. The primary purpose was to remove the cascading effect of taxes (tax being levied on previously taxed amounts) by allowing input tax credit — businesses pay tax only on the value they add. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Custom duties are levied at the central (Union) level on imports and exports; VAT is a state-level tax on domestic transactions and has no connection to custom duties.
Option 2 is wrong: VAT was a state-level tax that increased state revenues (not central revenue) by broadening the tax base and improving compliance; it was not introduced to increase central government revenue.
Option 4 is wrong: Promoting imports was not the objective of VAT; VAT applied to domestic trade within India. Import promotion would be addressed through trade policy, tariff reductions, or customs duty changes.
Industry and Infrastructure · MSME sector

Q25. What is meant by "Reservation for Small-Scale Sector" in the context of industrial policy before 1990?

  1. (a) Only small firms could participate in foreign trade
  2. (b) Small enterprises received tax-free status permanently
  3. (c) Certain products could only be produced by small enterprises
  4. (d) All raw materials were subsidized for small enterprises
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Certain products could only be produced by small enterprises

In India's pre-1991 industrial policy, 'Reservation for Small-Scale Sector' meant that a list of specified products (which grew to over 800 items by the 1980s) was exclusively reserved for production by small-scale industries (SSIs). Large firms were prohibited from manufacturing these items, protecting small producers from large-scale competition. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: 'Reservation' did not mean only small firms could participate in foreign trade; it specifically referred to production rights — only small enterprises could manufacture certain reserved products for the domestic market.
Option 2 is wrong: The SSI reservation policy did not grant permanent tax-free status to small enterprises; while SSIs received some tax benefits and concessions, tax exemption was not the meaning of 'reservation' in industrial policy.
Option 4 is wrong: Subsidization of raw materials was a separate policy instrument; 'Reservation for Small-Scale Sector' specifically meant the exclusive right to produce certain categories of products — not raw material subsidies.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q26. What was the major reason for India's severe foreign exchange crisis in 1957-58?

  1. (a) Heavy imports of capital goods for Second Plan
  2. (b) Oil price shock
  3. (c) Food imports
  4. (d) Drought in India
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Heavy imports of capital goods for Second Plan

India's severe foreign exchange crisis of 1957-58 was caused primarily by heavy imports of capital goods, machinery, and equipment required for the industrialization drive of the Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61), based on the Mahalanobis heavy-industry model. This depleted foreign exchange reserves rapidly, forcing India to curtail Plan expenditure. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: The global oil price shock occurred in 1973 (OPEC embargo) — nearly 16 years after the 1957-58 forex crisis; oil was cheap in the late 1950s and was not the cause of this crisis.
Option 3 is wrong: While India imported some food during this period, the primary cause of the 1957-58 forex crisis was the massive capital goods imports for industrialization, not food imports.
Option 4 is wrong: Drought in India can reduce agricultural output and contribute to economic stress, but the specific cause of the 1957-58 foreign exchange crisis was the capital-intensive import requirements of the Second Five-Year Plan.
Industry and Infrastructure · Competition Commission of India

Q27. What was the aim of introducing the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act, 1969?

  1. (a) Liberalize Foreign Direct Investment limits
  2. (b) Encourage public-sector disinvestment
  3. (c) Promote private monopolies
  4. (d) Prevent concentration of economic power
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Prevent concentration of economic power

The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act, 1969, was enacted with the primary aim of preventing concentration of economic power to the common detriment, prohibiting monopolistic and restrictive trade practices, and ensuring that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth. Option 4 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Liberalizing Foreign Direct Investment limits was not the aim of the MRTP Act; FDI liberalization came much later with the 1991 economic reforms; the MRTP Act actually restricted large industrial houses.
Option 2 is wrong: Encouraging public-sector disinvestment is the opposite of the MRTP era philosophy; the 1969 period was one of greater state control and restriction of large private enterprises.
Option 3 is wrong: The MRTP Act was specifically designed to PREVENT private monopolies, not promote them; it imposed restrictions on large firms and required government approval for expansion by companies above a certain asset threshold.

Static GK (13)

Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q28. The Sattriya dance form originated in which Indian state?

  1. (a) Manipur
  2. (b) Assam
  3. (c) Kerala
  4. (d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Assam

Sattriya originated in Assam in the 15th century, created by the Vaishnavite saint-scholar Srimanta Sankardev as a devotional art form to propagate Vaishnavism through the Sattras (Vaishnava monasteries). It was recognized as one of the eight classical dance forms of India by the Sangeet Natak Akademi in 2000. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Manipuri is the classical dance form that originated in Manipur; Sattriya is from Assam, not Manipur.
Option 3 is wrong: Kerala has its own classical dance forms — Kathakali and Mohiniyattam ; Sattriya originated in Assam.
Option 4 is wrong: Andhra Pradesh is associated with Kuchipudi classical dance; Sattriya is specifically from Assam's Vaishnavite monastic tradition.
Dances · Classical dance exponents

Q29. The origin of Kuchipudi dance is linked to which famous saint and teacher?

  1. (a) Srimanta Sankaradeva
  2. (b) Guru Kelu Nair
  3. (c) Tirtha Narayan Yati
  4. (d) Siddhendra Yogi
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Siddhendra Yogi

Kuchipudi dance originated in the village of Kuchipudi (Andhra Pradesh) and its development as a structured dance-drama tradition is linked to Siddhendra Yogi (also written as Sidhendra Yogi), a 17th-century Vaishnava saint who is credited with institutionalizing the Kuchipudi dance-drama. Option 4 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Srimanta Sankaradeva is the Assamese Vaishnavite saint credited with founding the Sattriya dance form of Assam; he has no connection with Kuchipudi.
Option 2 is wrong: Guru Kelu Nair was a renowned exponent and Padma Vibhushan recipient in Mohiniattam and Kathakali from Kerala; he is not associated with the origin of Kuchipudi.
Option 3 is wrong: Tirtha Narayan Yati was an earlier guru of Kuchipudi tradition, but Siddhendra Yogi is specifically credited with the founding and institutionalization of the Kuchipudi dance-drama form in the 17th century.
Dances · Classical dance exponents

Q30. Which year marks the first performance of Bharatanatyam by Rukmini Devi Arundale on a public stage?

  1. (a) 1928
  2. (b) 1935
  3. (c) 1942
  4. (d) 1951
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1935

Rukmini Devi Arundale first performed Bharatanatyam on a public stage in 1935 at the Theosophical Society in Madras, marking a landmark moment in the revival and reformulation of Bharatanatyam. She later established Kalakshetra Foundation in 1936 to preserve classical Indian arts. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: 1928 is not when Rukmini Devi Arundale first performed Bharatanatyam publicly; she began learning the dance form around 1934-35 and performed publicly in 1935.
Option 3 is wrong: 1942 was several years after Rukmini Devi Arundale's first public Bharatanatyam performance in 1935 and after she founded Kalakshetra in 1936.
Option 4 is wrong: 1951 was nearly two decades after Rukmini Devi's first public performance; by this time Bharatanatyam had already been significantly revived and popularized.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q31. The Jallikattu festival is associated with which Indian state?

  1. (a) Karnataka
  2. (b) Tamil Nadu
  3. (c) Maharashtra
  4. (d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Tamil Nadu

Jallikattu (also called Eruthazhuvuthal ) is a traditional bull-taming sport practiced in Tamil Nadu, especially in the Madurai, Tiruchirappalli, and Pudukkottai districts during the Pongal festival (Mattu Pongal). It involves participants attempting to grab the hump of a running bull. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Karnataka has its own cattle-related festivals and traditions like Kambala (buffalo racing in coastal Karnataka), but Jallikattu is specifically associated with Tamil Nadu.
Option 3 is wrong: Maharashtra's traditional cattle sports include Bullock Cart Racing ( Bailgada Sharyat ), but Jallikattu is not from Maharashtra — it is a Tamil Nadu tradition.
Option 4 is wrong: Andhra Pradesh has its own cultural traditions; Jallikattu is not from Andhra Pradesh — it is exclusively associated with Tamil Nadu's Pongal festival celebrations.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q32. Which harvest festival of Odisha is celebrated with " Nabanna "?

  1. (a) Bihu
  2. (b) Nuakhai
  3. (c) Makar Sankranti
  4. (d) Pongal
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Nuakhai

Nuakhai is the harvest festival of Odisha (especially western Odisha) where ' Nabanna ' (new food/new grain) is ritually offered to the deity before being consumed. 'Nu' means new and 'Khai' means food/eating — symbolizing the first consumption of freshly harvested rice. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Bihu is the harvest festival of Assam (celebrated three times a year — Rongali / Bohag , Kongali /Kati, and Bhogali /Magh Bihu); it is not from Odisha.
Option 3 is wrong: Makar Sankranti is celebrated across India (marking the sun's entry into Capricorn) with various regional names; in Odisha it is observed but is not specifically the ' Nabanna ' harvest festival.
Option 4 is wrong: Pongal is a four-day harvest festival of Tamil Nadu (and Tamil communities) celebrated in January; it is not the Odisha harvest festival celebrating Nabanna .
National Symbols, Firsts and Superlatives · National symbols of India

Q33. Who composed "Vande Mataram "?

  1. (a) Rabindranath Tagore
  2. (b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
  3. (c) Subramania Bharati
  4. (d) Kavi Pradeep
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

"Vande Mataram " was composed by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay (also written Bankimchandra Chattopadhyay) in 1875, and was originally published in his Bengali novel Anandamath (1882). It was later set to music by Rabindranath Tagore in 1896 and became an iconic song of the independence movement. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Rabindranath Tagore composed Jana Gana Mana (India's national anthem) and set Vande Mataram to music, but he did not compose Vande Mataram — that was Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay.
Option 3 is wrong: Subramania Bharati was a celebrated Tamil poet and freedom fighter who wrote patriotic songs in Tamil, but he did not compose Vande Mataram .
Option 4 is wrong: Kavi Pradeep was a Hindi film lyricist and patriotic poet known for 'Aye Mere Watan Ke Logo'; he did not compose Vande Mataram .
Sports · Olympic Games

Q34. Who was the first Indian to win an individual gold medal at the Olympic Games?

  1. (a) Sushil Kumar
  2. (b) Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore
  3. (c) Abhinav Bindra
  4. (d) Leander Paes
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Abhinav Bindra

Abhinav Bindra won India's first-ever individual Olympic gold medal in the 10m air rifle shooting event at the 2008 Beijing Olympics, with a score of 700.5 points in the final. This was a historic achievement, ending India's 108-year wait for an individual Olympic gold. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Sushil Kumar won Olympic bronze (2008) and silver (2012) medals in wrestling; he did not win India's first individual Olympic gold medal.
Option 2 is wrong: Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore won a silver medal in double trap shooting at the 2004 Athens Olympics — India's first individual Olympic silver; but Abhinav Bindra won the first individual gold four years later.
Option 4 is wrong: Leander Paes won a bronze medal in singles tennis at the 1996 Atlanta Olympics; this was an individual medal but not gold, and preceded Bindra's gold by 12 years.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q35. Which Indian athlete failed a drug test during the 2010 Commonwealth Games?

  1. (a) Dutee Chand
  2. (b) Santhi Soundarajan
  3. (c) Rani Yadav
  4. (d) P.T. Usha
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Rani Yadav

Rani Yadav, an Indian weightlifter, failed a drug test during the 2010 Commonwealth Games held in Delhi when she tested positive for a prohibited substance (anabolic steroids). She was stripped of her medal and suspended. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Dutee Chand faced a hyperandrogenism (elevated testosterone) controversy at the 2014 Commonwealth Games and 2014 Asian Games, not a drug test failure at the 2010 Commonwealth Games.
Option 2 is wrong: Santhi Soundarajan failed a gender verification test at the 2006 Doha Asian Games (not the 2010 Commonwealth Games) and was stripped of her silver medal in the 800m race.
Option 4 is wrong: P.T. Usha is a legendary Indian sprinter who retired from active competition long before 2010; she was never associated with a doping violation.
Music and Musical Instruments · Folk music and songs by state

Q36. The folk music "Lavani" is popular in which Indian state?

  1. (a) Kerala
  2. (b) Maharashtra
  3. (c) Punjab
  4. (d) Haryana
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Maharashtra

Lavani is a traditional form of folk music and dance that is popular in Maharashtra. It combines powerful rhythm, quick tempo, and provocative lyrics, often performed by women in nine-yard saris ( nauvari saree) to the beat of the Dholki . Lavani has two types: Nirguni (philosophical) and Shringari (love-themed). Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Kerala has its own folk music traditions like Thiruvathira , Margam Kali, and Ottamthullal ; Lavani is not associated with Kerala.
Option 3 is wrong: Punjab is known for Bhangra and Giddha folk music and dance forms; Lavani originates in Maharashtra, not Punjab.
Option 4 is wrong: Haryana has its own folk traditions like Ragini and Saang ; Lavani is specifically associated with Maharashtra and not Haryana.
Music and Musical Instruments · Hindustani music (ragas, gharanas)

Q37. "Dhrupad" is a style of singing in:

  1. (a) Rabindra Sangeet
  2. (b) Hindustani classical music
  3. (c) Western classical music
  4. (d) Carnatic music
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Hindustani classical music

Dhrupad is one of the oldest and most austere styles of Hindustani classical music, originating in the medieval period. It is a form of devotional music characterized by a slow, meditative tempo, complex improvisations, and the use of Sanskrit and Braj Bhasha lyrics. It is performed with the accompaniment of the pakhawaj . Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Rabindra Sangeet is the body of songs composed by Rabindranath Tagore; Dhrupad is a separate, much older tradition of Hindustani classical music.
Option 3 is wrong: Western classical music has its own forms like symphony, sonata, and opera; Dhrupad is an Indian classical music tradition with no connection to Western music.
Option 4 is wrong: Carnatic music is the classical music tradition of South India; Dhrupad is part of the Hindustani classical music tradition of North India, not Carnatic music.
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q38. The Pulitzer Prize-winning novel "The Overstory", noted for its ecological themes, was written by:

  1. (a) Jonathan Franzen
  2. (b) Richard Powers
  3. (c) Anthony Doerr
  4. (d) Colson Whitehead
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Richard Powers

"The Overstory" (2018) was written by Richard Powers and won the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction in 2019. The novel interweaves the stories of nine Americans whose lives are connected to trees, exploring themes of ecology, environmental activism, and human relationship with the natural world. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Jonathan Franzen is an American novelist known for 'The Corrections' (2001) and 'Freedom' (2010); he did not write 'The Overstory.'
Option 3 is wrong: Anthony Doerr is an American author who won the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction in 2015 for 'All the Light We Cannot See' — not 'The Overstory.'
Option 4 is wrong: Colson Whitehead is an American author who won the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction in 2017 ('The Underground Railroad') and 2020 ('The Nickel Boys'); he did not write 'The Overstory.'
Awards and Honours · Literary awards (Jnanpith, Sahitya Akademi)

Q39. The novel " Moriahola " by Jayanta Madhab Bora won the Sahitya Akademi Award in Assamese in which year?

  1. (a) 2014
  2. (b) 2015
  3. (c) 2016
  4. (d) 2017
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 2017

" Moriahola " (The Dying River) by Jayanta Madhab Bora, a novel depicting the ecological degradation and human stories around a dying river in Assam, won the Sahitya Akademi Award for Assamese literature in 2017. Option 4 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: 2014 is not the year " Moriahola " won the Sahitya Akademi Award; the Assamese award for 2014 was given to a different work.
Option 2 is wrong: 2015 is not the year " Moriahola " won; the Sahitya Akademi Award for Assamese was given to a different work in 2015.
Option 3 is wrong: 2016 is not the correct year for " Moriahola " winning the Sahitya Akademi Award; the novel won in 2017.
Sports · Sports terminology

Q40. In fencing, which term refers to the attacking forward movement toward the opponent?

  1. (a) Parry
  2. (b) Riposte
  3. (c) Lunge
  4. (d) Feint
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Lunge

In fencing, a 'Lunge' is the primary attacking movement where the fencer extends their sword arm forward, steps forward with the front foot, and thrusts toward the opponent to score a hit. It is the most fundamental offensive technique in fencing. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: A 'Parry' is a defensive action where the fencer deflects or blocks the opponent's attacking blade; it is used to protect against an incoming attack, not to attack forward.
Option 2 is wrong: A 'Riposte' is an offensive action taken immediately after successfully parrying the opponent's attack — it is a counter-attack following defense, not the primary attacking forward movement.
Option 4 is wrong: A 'Feint' is a deceptive movement designed to make the opponent react incorrectly; it mimics an attack to draw a response before executing the real attack — it is a preparatory deceptive move, not the attacking forward movement itself.

Chemistry (1)

Environmental Chemistry · Air quality management (AQI, NAAQS, NCAP, GRAP)

Q41. What does AQI stand for?

  1. (a) Air Quality Index
  2. (b) Air Quality Indicator
  3. (c) Air Quality Information
  4. (d) Air Quality Insight
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Air Quality Index

AQI stands for Air Quality Index — a standardized scale used by government agencies to communicate how polluted the air currently is or how polluted it is forecast to become. In India, the National AQI measures six pollutants: PM2.5, PM10, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, and is measured on a scale from 0 to 500. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: 'Air Quality Indicator' is not the established full form of AQI; the correct expansion is Air Quality Index.
Option 3 is wrong: 'Air Quality Information' is not the correct full form of AQI; it is Air Quality Index.
Option 4 is wrong: 'Air Quality Insight' is not the correct full form of AQI; the universally accepted expansion is Air Quality Index.
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