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RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 20 February 2026 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 44 GK / GS questions asked in RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 on 20 February 2026, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Modern History, Geography, Current Affairs, Economics, Polity, Static GK.

📚 44 questions🗓️ 20 February 2026
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Subjects: Modern History (6) · Geography (8) · Current Affairs (9) · Economics (8) · Polity (5) · Static GK (6) · Biology (2)

Modern History (6)

Personalities, Newspapers, Books and Slogans · Freedom fighters and their titles

Q1. Which of the following is/are correct about C. Vijayaraghavachariar?I. He was called ‘The Hero of Salem’.II. He was known as the ‘Lion of North India’.

  1. (a) Neither I nor II
  2. (b) Both I and II
  3. (c) Only I
  4. (d) Only II
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Only I

Option 3 is correct.
C. Vijayaraghavachariar was called 'The Hero of Salem'.
He is not known as the 'Lion of North India'; this title refers to Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
Therefore, only statement I is correct.
Final answer: Option 3
British Administration and Policies · Economic impact and drain of wealth

Q2. According to Dadabhai Naoroji’s Drain of Wealth theory, what major economic issue needed to be addressed to end India’s exploitation under British rule?

  1. (a) Excessive land revenue imposed on peasants
  2. (b) Religious discrimination by colonial authorities
  3. (c) Unequal economic exchange between India and Britain
  4. (d) Limited administrative participation for Indians
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Unequal economic exchange between India and Britain

Correct option is 3.
Dadabhai Naoroji's Drain of Wealth theory focused on the economic exploitation of India.
He argued that Britain was taking away India's wealth through unequal economic exchange.
This drain was a major factor in India's poverty under British rule.
Thus, addressing this unequal economic exchange was key to ending exploitation.
The other options, though important issues, are not central to the Drain of Wealth theory.
Hence, the major issue to address is the unequal economic exchange.
Final answer: Option 3
Swadeshi, Revolutionaries and Home Rule · Early revolutionary activities

Q3. Prafulla Chaki and Khudiram Bose are known for their attempt to assassinate which British official?

  1. (a) John Morley
  2. (b) Lord Minto
  3. (c) Douglas Kingsford
  4. (d) Lord Curzon
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Douglas Kingsford

Prafulla Chaki and Khudiram Bose are famous for their attempt to assassinate Douglas Kingsford.
Douglas Kingsford was a British magistrate in Muzaffarpur, Bihar.
They tried to kill him as part of the Indian freedom struggle against British rule.
This event is a significant part of India's revolutionary history.
Hence, the correct answer is Douglas Kingsford (Option 3).
Answer ends here.
Swadeshi, Revolutionaries and Home Rule · Ghadar Party and revolutionaries abroad

Q4. What was the name of the headquarters of the Ghadar Party?

  1. (a) Azad Ashram
  2. (b) Yugantar Ashram
  3. (c) Hindustan Ashram
  4. (d) Bharat Ashram
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Yugantar Ashram

The Ghadar Party's headquarters was called Yugantar Ashram.
It was established in the United States to organise Indian immigrants for independence efforts.
Yugantar Ashram served as the central hub for planning and coordination.
Hence, the correct answer is Yugantar Ashram.
Swadeshi, Revolutionaries and Home Rule · Partition of Bengal and Swadeshi Movement

Q5. Which form of nationalist protest emerged in response to the Partition of Bengal in 1905 that integrated economic, social, and political action?

  1. (a) Boycotting British goods and promoting indigenous industries
  2. (b) Submitting petitions to the British Parliament for reversal
  3. (c) Organising armed resistance against colonial authorities
  4. (d) Pursuing constitutional agitation within legislative councils
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Boycotting British goods and promoting indigenous industries

The Partition of Bengal in 1905 sparked a widespread nationalist response.
The response prominently included economic actions like boycotting British goods.
It also promoted indigenous industries as a form of economic self-reliance.
This integrated approach combined economic, social, and political protest.
Boycotting British products became a unifying form of resistance known as the Swadeshi Movement.
Other options like petitions, armed resistance, or constitutional agitation were not the primary integrated response after 1905 Partition.
Thus, the correct form of nationalist protest was boycotting British goods and promoting indigenous industries.
Final answer: Option 1
Gandhian Era · Champaran, Kheda and Ahmedabad

Q6. Which individuals actively supported Mahatma Gandhi during the Kheda Satyagraha movement?

  1. (a) Ambalal Sarabhai and Anasuya Ben
  2. (b) Vallabhbhai Patel and Rajendra Prasad
  3. (c) Vallabhbhai Patel and Indulal Yajnik
  4. (d) Raj Kumar Shukla and Rajendra Prasad
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Vallabhbhai Patel and Indulal Yajnik

The Kheda Satyagraha was a pivotal movement led by Mahatma Gandhi in 1918.
Vallabhbhai Patel played a key role as Gandhi's trusted lieutenant during this campaign.
Indulal Yajnik also supported the movement, helping organise peasants and farmers.
Together, they mobilised support and coordinated the peasants' non-payment of taxes.
Hence, the correct choice is Vallabhbhai Patel and Indulal Yajnik, who actively supported Gandhi in the Kheda Satyagraha.
Final answer: Option 3

Geography (8)

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Extreme points and area facts

Q7. According to a circular issued by the Union Shipping Ministry in April 2025, what is the recalculated length of India’s coastline using the new methodology of calculation?

  1. (a) 15416.6 km
  2. (b) 9516.6 km
  3. (c) 11098.81 km
  4. (d) 12520.73 km
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 11098.81 km

The Union Shipping Ministry issued a circular in April 2025 regarding the calculation of India’s coastline length.
Using the new methodology, the coastline length was recalculated more accurately.
According to the updated calculation, the length of India’s coastline is 11098.81 km.
This is option 3 in the given choices.
Final answer: Option 3
Environment and Protected Areas · National parks

Q8. In February 2025, the Union Minister of External Affairs and Heads of Missions from 61 countries visited Kaziranga National Park, located in which state of India?

  1. (a) Nagaland
  2. (b) Assam
  3. (c) Manipur
  4. (d) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Assam

Kaziranga National Park is located in the state of Assam, India.
It is known for its population of Indian one-horned rhinoceroses.
In February 2025, a visit by the Union Minister of External Affairs and Heads of Missions from 61 countries took place at Kaziranga National Park, Assam.
This highlights Assam as the correct answer.
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Northern Plains

Q9. What is the origin of the material that makes up the Bhabar belt?

  1. (a) Aeolian deposits
  2. (b) Debris washed down from high ranges
  3. (c) Weathering of local rocks
  4. (d) Glacial deposits
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Debris washed down from high ranges

The Bhabar belt is located at the foothills of the Himalayas.
It is formed by material transported and deposited by streams flowing down from the higher mountain ranges.
This material mainly consists of coarse debris washed down from these high ranges.
Therefore, the origin of the Bhabar belt material is the debris washed down from high ranges.
Final answer: Option 2
Environment and Protected Areas · Elephant reserves and other conservation projects

Q10. When was Namami Gange Programme launched to clean the Ganga river?

  1. (a) 2015
  2. (b) 2020
  3. (c) 2014
  4. (d) 2017
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2014

TheNamami Gange Programmewas launched by theGovernment of India in 2014to clean and conserve theGanga River. It is aCentral Sector Schemeaimed at reducing pollution, improving sewage treatment, and rejuvenating the ecosystem of the river.
Environment and Protected Areas · Environmental conventions and protocols (Montreal, Kyoto, Paris, CBD)

Q11. Which international agreement aims to limit global temperature rise below 2°C?

  1. (a) Montreal Protocol
  2. (b) Kyoto Protocol
  3. (c) Paris Agreement
  4. (d) Rio Declaration
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Paris Agreement

The Paris Agreement aims to limit global temperature rise below 2°C above pre-industrial levels.
It is an international treaty on climate change adopted in 2015 under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
The agreement sets goals to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and strengthen countries' abilities to deal with the impacts of climate change.
Montreal Protocol deals with ozone layer protection, Kyoto Protocol also targets emission reduction but with different targets, and Rio Declaration is a broader environmental guideline.
Therefore, the correct agreement for limiting temperature rise below 2°C is the Paris Agreement.
Final answer: Option 3
Environment and Protected Areas · Environmental organisations and laws

Q12. Which of the following Acts in India specifically deals with controlling air pollution?

  1. (a) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1984
  2. (b) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
  3. (c) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1988
  4. (d) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1990
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981

The correct Act is the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
However, the actual Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in 1981.
Option 1 mentions the year 1984, which is incorrect.
Option 2 correctly states the year as 1981, which is the year the Act was passed.
Options 3 and 4 with years 1988 and 1990 are incorrect as there was no such enactment in those years.
Final answer: Option 2
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Extreme points and area facts

Q13. Which of the following islands is the southernmost point of India?

  1. (a) Indira Point
  2. (b) Kavaratti
  3. (c) Car Nicobar
  4. (d) Little Andaman
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Indira Point

The southernmost point of India is Indira Point.
It is located on the Great Nicobar Island in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Other options like Kavaratti, Car Nicobar, and Little Andaman are also islands but lie north of Indira Point.
Hence, Indira Point is the correct answer.
India - Drainage System · River origins and lengths

Q14. Which of the following rivers originates from the Amarkantak Plateau?

  1. (a) Godavari
  2. (b) Krishna
  3. (c) Narmada
  4. (d) Mahanadi
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Narmada

The Narmada River originates from the Amarkantak Plateau in Madhya Pradesh.
Godavari, Krishna, and Mahanadi originate from other locations: Godavari from Nashik, Krishna from Mahabaleshwar, and Mahanadi from Odisha.
Hence, the correct answer is Narmada.

Current Affairs (9)

Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q15. According to the Global Firepower Index 2025, what is India’s global rank in terms of conventional military strength?

  1. (a) 4th
  2. (b) 5th
  3. (c) 2nd
  4. (d) 3rd
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 4th

According to the Global Firepower Index 2025, India holds the 4th position globally in conventional military strength.
This ranking considers various factors including manpower, weapons, logistics, and geography.
India's military power ranks behind the USA, Russia, and China.
Hence, India is ranked 4th in the world as per this index.
Final answer: Option 1
State News · State firsts

Q16. In December 2024, Masli, a village in which state, became the first border solar village in India?

  1. (a) Gujarat
  2. (b) Odisha
  3. (c) Karnataka
  4. (d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Gujarat

Masli, a village in Gujarat, became the first border solar village in India in December 2024.
This achievement highlights Gujarat's progress in adopting renewable energy solutions, especially in border areas.
Hence, the correct option is Gujarat.
Final answer: Option 1
Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q17. Libia Lobo Sardesai, who was honoured with the Padma Shri In January 2025, is known for her contribution to which of the following causes?

  1. (a) Women’s education in coastal India
  2. (b) Promotion of Konkani literature
  3. (c) Environmental conservation in Western Ghats
  4. (d) Goa’s liberation struggle
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Goa’s liberation struggle

Solution:
Libia Lobo Sardesaiis a noted freedom fighter from Goa
She played a key role in theGoa liberation movement against Portuguese rule
Honoured withPadma Shri (2025)for her contribution to this cause
Hence, correct answer isGoa’s liberation struggle
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Policies, laws and bills

Q18. What is the purpose of the Draft National Sports Governance Bill, 2024, introduced by the Indian Government?

  1. (a) To establish a framework for ethical governance and athlete welfare in sports federations
  2. (b) To increase commercialization of sports in Urban and Semiurban areas
  3. (c) To centralize all sports decisions under one authority
  4. (d) To eliminate traditional sports from national competitions
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) To establish a framework for ethical governance and athlete welfare in sports federations

The Draft National Sports Governance Bill, 2024 aims to improve governance in sports federations.
It focuses on ethical management and protecting athlete welfare.
The bill provides a legal framework to ensure transparency and accountability in sports bodies.
It does not focus on commercialization or centralizing sports decisions.
Nor does it aim to remove traditional sports from competitions.
Hence, the main purpose aligns with option 1.
Final answer: Option 1
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Health and medical research

Q19. Which company developed India's first indigenous surgical robotic system that recently performed two world-first robotic cardiac telesurgeries with an ultra-low latency of just 35–40 milliseconds?

  1. (a) SS Innovations
  2. (b) Intuitive Surgical India
  3. (c) Medtronic India
  4. (d) Siemens Healthineers India
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) SS Innovations

India's first indigenous surgical robotic system was developed by SS Innovations.
This system recently achieved two world-first robotic cardiac telesurgeries with an ultra-low latency of 35–40 milliseconds.
No other Indian company has made such pioneering advancements in robotic cardiac telesurgery to date.
Hence, the correct answer is SS Innovations.
Appointments and Resignations · International appointments

Q20. Which Indian player was appointed as the co-chair of the International Hockey Federation’s new FIH Athletes Committee in 2024?

  1. (a) Harmanpreet Singh
  2. (b) Raj Kumar Pal
  3. (c) PR Sreejesh
  4. (d) Amit Rohidas
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) PR Sreejesh

The International Hockey Federation (FIH) appointed PR Sreejesh as the co-chair of its new Athletes Committee in 2024.
PR Sreejesh is a prominent Indian hockey goalkeeper and leader, known internationally.
This committee aims to represent athletes' interests in FIH decisions.
Hence, the correct answer is PR Sreejesh.
Appointments and Resignations · International appointments

Q21. Who has been elected as the President of Centre of Films for Children and Young People (CIFEJ) for the 2025–2027 term?

  1. (a) Lokesh Kanagaraj
  2. (b) Om Raut
  3. (c) Jitendra Mishra
  4. (d) SS Rajamouli
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Jitendra Mishra

Correct option is 3: Jitendra Mishra.
Jitendra Mishra has been elected as the President of Centre of Films for Children and Young People (CIFEJ) for the 2025–2027 term.
Economy, Banking and Business · RBI and banking updates

Q22. Who is the chairperson of the RBI’s committee formed to develop the Framework for Responsible and Ethical AI (FREE-AI) in the financial sector as of December 2024?

  1. (a) Dr. Rajeev Chandrasekhar from Ministry of Electronics
  2. (b) Professor K. VijayRaghavan from Office of PSA
  3. (c) Professor Pushpak Bhattacharyya from IIT Bombay
  4. (d) Dr. Krishnamurthy Subramanian from IMF Board
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Professor Pushpak Bhattacharyya from IIT Bombay

The RBI committee for developing the Framework for Responsible and Ethical AI (FREE-AI) is chaired by Professor Pushpak Bhattacharyya.
He is affiliated with IIT Bombay and recognised for his expertise in AI and technology.
This appointment was confirmed in recent RBI publications as of December 2024.
Hence, the correct chairperson is Professor Pushpak Bhattacharyya.
Final answer: Option 3
Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q23. Who was honoured with the Lata Deenanath Mangeshkar Award in April 2025 for his contributions to education and nation-building?

  1. (a) Alakh Pandey
  2. (b) Anand Mahindra
  3. (c) Kumar Mangalam Birla
  4. (d) Narayana Murthy
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kumar Mangalam Birla

Solution:
Lata Deenanath Mangeshkar Award 2025was given for contributions toeducation and nation-building
Kumar Mangalam Birla, chairman of Aditya Birla Group, is known for major contributions ineducation sector (BITS, institutions, philanthropy)
Other options do not match this recognition
Hence, correct answer isKumar Mangalam Birla

Economics (8)

Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - latest highlights

Q24. How much fund is allotted to the Khelo India (national programme for development of sports) for FY26?

  1. (a) ₹1,000 crore
  2. (b) ₹1,200 crore
  3. (c) ₹1,600 crore
  4. (d) ₹1,400 crore
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) ₹1,000 crore

ForFY 2025–26, theKhelo India (National Programme for Development of Sports)scheme was allocated₹1,000 crorein the Union Budget.
Correct Answer: ₹1,000 crore
Money and Banking · Monetary policy tools (repo, reverse repo, CRR, SLR, MSF, bank rate)

Q25. Open Market Operations (OMOs) are conducted by RBI to control ____________.

  1. (a) State budgets
  2. (b) Money supply
  3. (c) Foreign trade
  4. (d) Corporate profits
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Money supply

Open Market Operations (OMOs) are tools used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
They involve buying and selling government securities in the open market.
This influences the liquidity in the banking system and hence controls the money supply.
When RBI buys securities, it injects money, increasing money supply.
When RBI sells securities, it withdraws money, reducing money supply.
Therefore, OMOs are conducted primarily to regulate money supply in the economy.
Final answer: Option 2
Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Human Development Index and UNDP

Q26. Social indicators of development improved after economic growth accelerated. Which of the following indicators saw the most consistent improvement after 1991?

  1. (a) Fiscal deficit
  2. (b) Consumer Price Index
  3. (c) Maternal Mortality Rate
  4. (d) Gini coefficient
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Maternal Mortality Rate

Correct option is 3: Maternal Mortality Rate.
After 1991, India experienced economic growth which positively impacted social indicators.
Among the given options:
- Fiscal deficit is an economic measure, often fluctuating with policy changes.
- Consumer Price Index reflects inflation, which can vary independently of development.
- Maternal Mortality Rate consistently improved due to better healthcare and social policies following economic reforms.
- Gini coefficient measures income inequality, which did not show consistent improvement.
Thus, the Maternal Mortality Rate shows the most consistent improvement after 1991 reforms.
Final answer: Option 3
Industry and Infrastructure · Disinvestment

Q27. What is it called when the government sells part of its share in public sector companies to the public?

  1. (a) Globalisation
  2. (b) Nationalisation
  3. (c) Disinvestment
  4. (d) Industrialisation
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Disinvestment

The process of the government selling its stake in public sector companies to the public is known as Disinvestment.
This reduces the government’s shareholding in these companies.
It is done to improve efficiency and raise funds.
Hence, the correct term is Disinvestment (Option 3).
Answer complete.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Indian economy at independence and the 1950-90 phase

Q28. What was a consequence of the economic structure in India between 1947 and 1991?

  1. (a) High levels of foreign direct investment
  2. (b) Full privatization of the public sector
  3. (c) Slow industrial growth due to heavy regulation and protectionism
  4. (d) Rapid technological advancement in all sectors
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Slow industrial growth due to heavy regulation and protectionism

The Indian economy between 1947 and 1991 was characterised by a mixed economy model.
It adopted heavy regulation and protectionism to promote self-reliance.
This led to slow industrial growth due to bureaucratic controls and limited competition.
Foreign direct investment and full privatization were limited during this period.
Hence, slow industrial growth due to heavy regulation and protectionism was a key consequence.
Final answer: Option 3
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Foreign trade policy and EXIM

Q29. Which economic model advocates that developing countries should prioritize import substitution over free trade to promote economic development?

  1. (a) Export-led Growth Model
  2. (b) Neoliberalism
  3. (c) Comparative Advantage Theory
  4. (d) Import Substitution Industrialization
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Import Substitution Industrialization

Option 4 is correct.
Import Substitution Industrialization (ISI) is an economic strategy
that encourages developing countries to reduce dependency on imports
by producing goods domestically.
This model promotes substituting imports with local production to foster economic development.
Unlike free trade models, ISI protects local industries through tariffs and quotas.
Therefore, ISI advocates prioritising import substitution over free trade for development.
Hence, the answer is Import Substitution Industrialization.
Money and Banking · RBI - history and functions

Q30. Which of the following statements is/are correct about a non-Constitutional body, Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
(1) RBI performs several crucial functions like regulating and supervising the banking system, managing the currency and credit system and managing foreign exchange reserves.
(2) RBI was established on April 1, 1935 in accordance with the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
(3) The Central Office of the RBI was initially established in Kolkata but was permanently moved to Mumbai in 1937

  1. (a) (2) and (3) only
  2. (b) (1) and (2) only
  3. (c) (1) only
  4. (d) (1), (2) and (3)
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) (1), (2) and (3)

All the given statements about the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) are correct.
Statement (1): RBI does perform crucial functions such as regulating and supervising the banking system, managing currency and credit, and managing foreign exchange reserves.
Statement (2): RBI was established on 1st April 1935 under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
Statement (3): The central office of the RBI was initially in Kolkata and was permanently moved to Mumbai in 1937.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4, as all three statements are true.
Agriculture and Food Security · Crop insurance and farmer schemes

Q31. Which of the following statements regarding the Namo Drone Didi scheme is/are correct?
1. It is a Central Sector Scheme for providing drones to Women Self Help Groups for the period from 2024-25 to 2025-26 with an outlay of ₹1,261 crore.
2. The scheme aims to provide drones to 15,000 selected Women Self Help Groups for providing rental services to farmers for agriculture purposes.
3. Under the scheme, Women Self Help Groups receive substantial financial assistance, covering 80% of the drone and accessory costs, up to ₹8 lakh.

  1. (a) Only 2 and 3
  2. (b) Only 3
  3. (c) 1, 2 and 3
  4. (d) Only 1 and 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3

The Namo Drone Didi scheme is a Central Sector Scheme running from 2024-25 to 2025-26.
It has an outlay of ₹1,261 crore to provide drones to Women Self Help Groups (WSHGs).
The scheme targets 15,000 selected WSHGs to offer drone rental services for agriculture.
It provides up to 80% financial assistance on drone and accessory costs, capped at ₹8 lakh.
All three statements match the official details of the Namo Drone Didi scheme.
Hence, statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Final answer: Option 3

Polity (5)

Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · CVC and CBI

Q32. In 1964, who chaired the Committee on Prevention of Corruption and suggested the Central Vigilance Commission be established?

  1. (a) P K Mohanty
  2. (b) G K Pillai
  3. (c) K. Santhanam
  4. (d) G V Ramakrishna
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) K. Santhanam

Correct option is 3: K. Santhanam.
K. Santhanam chaired the Committee on Prevention of Corruption in 1964.
The committee suggested the establishment of the Central Vigilance Commission.
This was a key step in setting up an institutional mechanism to prevent corruption in government.
Thus, the Chairperson of this committee was K. Santhanam.
Final answer: Option 3
DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Swaran Singh Committee and 42nd/86th amendments

Q33. Which Fundamental Duty was added by the 86ᵗʰ Constitutional Amendment in 2002?

  1. (a) To provide opportunities for education to children aged 6–14 years
  2. (b) To promote harmony among all people of India
  3. (c) To uphold and protect the sovereignty of India
  4. (d) To safeguard public property
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) To provide opportunities for education to children aged 6–14 years

The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, added a Fundamental Duty relating to education.
It mandates that parents or guardians provide opportunities for education to their children aged 6 to 14 years.
This duty supports the Right to Education and promotes attendance in school for children in this age group.
Other options are Fundamental Duties but were not introduced by this amendment.
Final answer: Option 1
DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Important DPSP articles (39A, 40, 44, 45, 48A, 50, 51)

Q34. Which of the following provisions in the Indian Constitution deals with the duty of the State to separate the judiciary from the executive?

  1. (a) Article 50
  2. (b) Article 44
  3. (c) Article 48A
  4. (d) Article 51
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 50

The duty of the State to separate the judiciary from the executive is specifically mentioned in Article 50 of the Indian Constitution.
Article 50 directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.
This provision ensures the independence of the judiciary, which is a basic feature of the Constitution.
Article 44 relates to Uniform Civil Code, Article 48A deals with protecting the environment, and Article 51 talks about promotion of international peace and security.
Therefore, the correct provision is Article 50.
Final answer: Option 1
Parliament · Parliamentary committees

Q35. Which of the following statements about Parliamentary Committees is TRUE?

  1. (a) There are no temporary Parliamentary Committees.
  2. (b) All Parliamentary Committees are permanent.
  3. (c) Ad Hoc Committees are permanent in nature.
  4. (d) Standing Committees are reconstituted from time to time and are permanent.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Standing Committees are reconstituted from time to time and are permanent.

Standing Committees of Parliament are permanent and are reconstituted periodically, usually annually.
These Committees handle ongoing responsibilities and scrutinise bills, budgets, and government functions.
Ad Hoc Committees are temporary and formed for specific tasks; they are not permanent.
Therefore, statement 4 is true as it correctly describes Standing Committees.
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are false as there are both permanent and temporary committees, and Ad Hoc Committees are not permanent.
Hence, the correct option is 4.
Final answer: Option 4
Parliament · Rajya Sabha

Q36. Which of the following statements correctly differentiates the power of the Rajya Sabha from the Lok Sabha?

  1. (a) Rajya Sabha can initiate a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
  2. (b) Rajya Sabha can authorise Parliament to make laws on State subjects
  3. (c) Rajya Sabha has equal power with Lok Sabha in all financial matters
  4. (d) Rajya Sabha can amend Money Bills
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Rajya Sabha can authorise Parliament to make laws on State subjects

Option 2 is correct as per the Indian Constitution.
The Rajya Sabha can authorise Parliament to make laws on State subjects under Article 249.
This power is unique to Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha cannot do this alone.
Option 1 is incorrect because only Lok Sabha can initiate a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers.
Option 3 is incorrect because Rajya Sabha has limited powers in financial matters; Money Bills are primarily controlled by Lok Sabha.
Option 4 is incorrect since only Lok Sabha can amend Money Bills, as per Article 109.
Hence, the correct differentiation is reflected in Option 2.
Final answer: Option 2

Static GK (6)

Music and Musical Instruments · Carnatic music

Q37. The Alapana in Carnatic music is equivalent to which part in Hindustani music?

  1. (a) Alap
  2. (b) Taan
  3. (c) Sargam
  4. (d) Bandish
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Alap

The Alapana in Carnatic music is an improvisational introduction to the raga.
It establishes the mood and explores the notes of the raga without rhythm.
In Hindustani music, the equivalent part is called Alap.
Alap serves the same purpose of gradually developing the raga without rhythmic accompaniment.
Thus, the Alapana corresponds to the Alap in Hindustani music.
Final answer: Option 1
Sports · Sports schemes and campaigns (Khelo India, Fit India)

Q38. Which Indian actor has been officially named as 'Fit India Icon' by Union Sports Minister Mansukh Mandaviya in March 2025?

  1. (a) Hrithik Roshan
  2. (b) Ayushmann Khurrana
  3. (c) Allu Arjun
  4. (d) Shahid Kapoor
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ayushmann Khurrana

Solution:
In March 2025, theFit India Icontitle was announced by Union Sports MinisterMansukh Mandaviya
The actor chosen was known for hisfitness and disciplined lifestyle
Ayushmann Khurranawas officially named as the Fit India Icon
Hence, correct answer isAyushmann Khurrana
Space, Defence and Technology · Missiles and weapon systems

Q39. Which missile system is being developed under Project Kusha to enhance India's air defence capabilities?

  1. (a) BrahMos
  2. (b) S-400
  3. (c) MICA
  4. (d) Extended Range Air Defence System
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Extended Range Air Defence System

Option 4 is correct: Extended Range Air Defence System (ERADS).
Project Kusha aims to develop an advanced missile system to boost India's air defence capabilities.
ERADS is specifically designed to detect and destroy hostile targets at longer ranges.
BrahMos, S-400, and MICA are existing missile systems but not developed under Project Kusha.
Hence, the missile system under Project Kusha enhancing India's air defence is ERADS.
Final answer: Option 4
Important Days and Themes · National days

Q40. Which of the following days was observed on 21st May 2025?

  1. (a) Indian Navy Day
  2. (b) National Human Rights Day
  3. (c) National Anti-terrorism day
  4. (d) National Voters Day
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) National Anti-terrorism day

National Voters Day is observed on 25th January every year.
Indian Navy Day is observed on 4th December.
National Human Rights Day is observed on 10th December.
National Anti-terrorism Day is observed on 21st May each year, commemorating the death anniversary of Indira Gandhi.
Since the question asks for the day observed on 21st May 2025, it is National Anti-terrorism Day.
Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.
Music and Musical Instruments · Musical instruments and exponents

Q41. Which of the following is a musical instrument that consists of a set of glass, metal or clay bowls, each having varying levels of water?

  1. (a) Sarod
  2. (b) Jaltarang
  3. (c) Sitar
  4. (d) Shehnai
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Jaltarang

The musical instrument consisting of a set of glass, metal or clay bowls filled with varying water levels is called Jaltarang .
Each bowl produces a different musical note depending on the water level.
Sarod, Sitar, and Shehnai are string or wind instruments, not involving water bowls.
Hence, the correct answer is Jaltarang .
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Fairs and melas

Q42. Which of the following is one of Asia's largest cattle fairs, organized at the confluence of two mighty rivers, the Ganga and Gandak?

  1. (a) Flamingo Festival
  2. (b) Sonepur Fair
  3. (c) Suraj Kund Craft Mela
  4. (d) Thrissur Pooram
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sonepur Fair

The Sonepur Fair is one of Asia's largest cattle fairs.
It is organised at the confluence of two mighty rivers, the Ganga and Gandak.
Other options like Flamingo Festival, Suraj Kund Craft Mela, and Thrissur Pooram are cultural or craft fairs in different locations.
Hence, the correct answer is Sonepur Fair.

Biology (2)

Ecology and Environment · Waste management and biodegradable substances

Q43. Which of the following is an advantage of paper cups over plastic cups?

  1. (a) They are reusable
  2. (b) They are stronger
  3. (c) They are cheaper
  4. (d) They are biodegradable
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) They are biodegradable

Correct option: 4
Paper cups are biodegradable, which means they naturally decompose and do not harm the environment.
Plastic cups are not biodegradable and cause pollution.
Thus, paper cups have an environmental advantage over plastic cups.
Final answer: Option 4
Ecology and Environment · Waste management and biodegradable substances

Q44. Which of the following is an effect of non-biodegradable substances in water bodies?

  1. (a) Clogs drains and harms aquatic life
  2. (b) Helps plants grow
  3. (c) Water becomes fertile
  4. (d) Provides nutrients for fish
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Clogs drains and harms aquatic life

Non-biodegradable substances do not decompose naturally.
They accumulate in water bodies and clog drains.
This leads to pollution and harms aquatic life.
Hence, the correct effect is clogging drains and harming aquatic life.
Final answer: Option 1
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