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RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 18 June 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 38 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 on 18 June 2025 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Computer, Current Affairs, Modern History, Polity, Economics, Ancient History.

📚 38 questions🗓️ 18 June 2025⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Computer (5) · Current Affairs (9) · Modern History (3) · Polity (5) · Economics (4) · Ancient History (2) · Biology (1) · Geography (5) · Static GK (2) · Physics (2)

Computer (5)

Data Representation and Logic · Computer codes (ASCII, Unicode, BCD, EBCDIC)

Q1. With reference to computing, what does ASCII stand for?

  1. (a) Algorithmic Standard Code for International Information
  2. (b) American Systematic Code for International Interoperability
  3. (c) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
  4. (d) American Standard Code for Information Integrity
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) American Standard Code for Information Interchange

MS Office and Productivity Tools · Keyboard shortcuts

Q2. Which of the following is the main purpose of using the 'Ctrl + S' keyboard shortcut while working on an MS PowerPoint presentation?

  1. (a) To start a slideshow from the beginning
  2. (b) To share the presentation via email
  3. (c) To save the current changes made to the file
  4. (d) To close the presentation window immediately
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To save the current changes made to the file

MS Office and Productivity Tools · Keyboard shortcuts

Q3. Which of the following is the function of Ctrl + Shift + V in certain applications like Google Docs or web browsers?

  1. (a) Reverts to the previous page in the browser
  2. (b) Opens the Find and Replace dialog box
  3. (c) Pastes content without any formatting
  4. (d) Saves the document as a new file
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Pastes content without any formatting

Q4. In MS Excel 2019, what is the primary purpose of the 'Print Preview' feature?

  1. (a) To save the spreadsheet
  2. (b) To zoom into the sheet
  3. (c) To view how the sheet will look when printed
  4. (d) To edit data
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To view how the sheet will look when printed

MS Office and Productivity Tools · Keyboard shortcuts

Q5. Which shortcut key is used to create a new blank presentation quickly in MS PowerPoint 365?

  1. (a) Shift + N
  2. (b) Ctrl + O
  3. (c) Ctrl + N
  4. (d) Ctrl + P
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ctrl + N

Current Affairs (9)

Art, Culture and Events - Current · Festivals and cultural events - current

Q6. What is the theme of the Venice Architecture Biennale scheduled to be held in May to November 2025?

  1. (a) Architecture and Climate Change
  2. (b) Designing Future Societies
  3. (c) Sustainable Urban Futures
  4. (d) Intelligence: Natural. Artificial. Collective
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Intelligence: Natural. Artificial. Collective

Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q7. Which Pulitzer-winning investigative series was titled 'Fentanyl Express'?

  1. (a) Reuters
  2. (b) NBC News
  3. (c) The New Yorker
  4. (d) CNN
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Reuters

Q8. Lauren Roberts’ novel, third in 'The Powerless' trilogy, is titled:

  1. (a) Powerless
  2. (b) Endless
  3. (c) Fearless
  4. (d) Reckless
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Fearless

Reports, Indices and Rankings · Reports and their publishers

Q9. On 26 February 2025, the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) and Down To Earth (DTE) magazine released their annual publication 'State of India’s Environment' from which state?

  1. (a) Kerala
  2. (b) Rajasthan
  3. (c) West Bengal
  4. (d) Gujarat
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Rajasthan

Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q10. In January 2025, which of the following individuals was appointed as the Chairman of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)?

  1. (a) K Sivan
  2. (b) G Madhavan Nair
  3. (c) Tapan Misra
  4. (d) V Narayanan
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) V Narayanan

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q11. Which of the following correctly characterises the regulatory and structural aspects of the NPS Vatsalya scheme, as launched in 2024? The scheme is administered by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA). Contributions under NPS Vatsalya are pooled into a government-managed consolidated fund without individual accounts. The scheme allows a smooth shift to a regular NPS account when the subscriber turns 18 years of age. Upon attaining adulthood, subscribers must compulsorily exit NPS Vatsalya and opt for the Atal Pension Yojana.

  1. (a) Only 2
  2. (b) 1 and 4
  3. (c) 1 and 3
  4. (d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1 and 3

Awards and Honours - Current · Sports and film awards - current

Q12. In January 2025, which woman cricketer received the Polly Umrigar Award from the BCCI?

  1. (a) Deepti Sharma
  2. (b) Shefali Verma
  3. (c) Smriti Mandhana
  4. (d) Jemimah Rodrigues
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Smriti Mandhana

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Technology launches and AI

Q13. What is the primary objective of 'Srjanam', the biomedical waste conversion system launched in 2025?

  1. (a) To promote traditional biomedical waste disposal methods
  2. (b) To reduce environmental hazards by eliminating incineration
  3. (c) To increase the use of landfills for biomedical waste
  4. (d) To develop a new method for incineration
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To reduce environmental hazards by eliminating incineration

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Court judgments and rulings - current

Q14. Which of the following is INCORRECT based on the Supreme Court’s ruling in 'Samtola Devi vs The State Of Uttar Pradesh', on 27 March 2025, regarding the ‘Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007’?

  1. (a) Eviction of a child or relative is mandatory in every case of neglect under the Act.
  2. (b) Senior citizens can file for maintenance even after transferring their property to their legal heirs.
  3. (c) The Act does not provide any provision for the eviction of a child or relative.
  4. (d) Tribunals under the Act have the authority to order the eviction of a child or relative if it is deemed necessary for the protection of the senior citizen.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Eviction of a child or relative is mandatory in every case of neglect under the Act.

Modern History (3)

Rise of Nationalism and Indian National Congress · Foundation of the INC (1885)

Q15. Which British Viceroy described the Congress as representing only a 'microscopic minority' of the Indian population, thereby dismissing its political relevance?

  1. (a) Lord Ripon
  2. (b) Lord Dufferin
  3. (c) Lord Lytton
  4. (d) Lord Curzon
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Lord Dufferin

Revolt of 1857 · Consequences and Queen's Proclamation

Q16. After the revolt of which year did the British implement measures that reduced the proportion of Indian soldiers in the army and increased the number of European soldiers?

  1. (a) 1806
  2. (b) 1857
  3. (c) 1841
  4. (d) 1874
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1857

Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Early civil and tribal revolts

Q17. Which uprising in Uttar Pradesh, led by Mufti Muhammad Aiwaz, was among the most significant revolts against British rule in India prior to the First War of Independence in 1857?

  1. (a) Kol Uprisings
  2. (b) Chuar Rebellion
  3. (c) Bareilly Uprisings
  4. (d) Santhal Rebellion
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Bareilly Uprisings

Polity (5)

Judiciary · Supreme Court - jurisdiction (original, appellate, advisory)

Q18. The President's power to seek the Supreme Court's opinion on questions of law comes under ___________.

  1. (a) Article 226
  2. (b) Article 143
  3. (c) Article 131
  4. (d) Article 136
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 143

Fundamental Rights · Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22)

Q19. Which Fundamental Right was subjected to additional restrictions by the First Amendment Act of 1951?

  1. (a) Right to Equality
  2. (b) Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression
  3. (c) Right to Freedom of Religion
  4. (d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression

Local Government · Gram Sabha and three-tier structure

Q20. Following the provisions of the 73ʳᵈ Constitutional Amendment 1992, how frequently are the members of the Gram Sabha expected to meet in a year?

  1. (a) Every week
  2. (b) At least twice in a year
  3. (c) Once a month
  4. (d) Once every five years
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) At least twice in a year

Union Executive · President - powers (executive, legislative, veto, pardon, ordinance)

Q21. Which of the following accurately describes the Indian President's role in foreign affairs?

  1. (a) The President is solely responsible for negotiating international treaties without any advisory input.
  2. (b) The President appoints ambassadors and conducts diplomatic work in his/her name.
  3. (c) The President only receives foreign ambassadors but does not appoint them.
  4. (d) The President delegates all foreign affairs responsibilities to the Prime Minister.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The President appoints ambassadors and conducts diplomatic work in his/her name.

Local Government · Evolution and committees (Balwant Rai Mehta, Ashok Mehta, etc.)

Q22. Overall, the Panchayati Raj system in India is designed to promote:

  1. (a) central control over local areas across the country
  2. (b) economic austerity across the country for people's betterment
  3. (c) democratic governance and empowerment at the grassroots level
  4. (d) international funding for local projects, ensuring adequate development
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) democratic governance and empowerment at the grassroots level

Economics (4)

Industry and Infrastructure · Public sector undertakings (Maharatna, Navratna, Miniratna)

Q23. By the 1970s, Public Sector Units (PSUs) had become dominant in the Indian industry. What criticism did they frequently face?

  1. (a) Operational inefficiencies, low productivity, and financial losses
  2. (b) Over-reliance on export markets for revenue
  3. (c) Excessive foreign ownership and capital outflow
  4. (d) High competition from private multinational corporations
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Operational inefficiencies, low productivity, and financial losses

Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - latest highlights

Q24. What is the total budget allocation for infrastructure spending in India for 2023-24?

  1. (a) ₹9 lakh crore
  2. (b) ₹7 lakh crore
  3. (c) ₹5 lakh crore
  4. (d) ₹10 lakh crore
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) ₹10 lakh crore

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Economic Survey and economic reports

Q25. What percentage of the workforce in India was self-employed in 2023-24, reflecting a growing trend towards entrepreneurship, as per the Economic Survey Report, 2024-25?

  1. (a) 62.8%
  2. (b) 52.6%
  3. (c) 58.4%
  4. (d) 48.2%
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 58.4%

External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Balance of payments and current account

Q26. What was India’s external debt to GDP ratio at the end of September 2024?

  1. (a) 24.6%
  2. (b) 19.4%
  3. (c) 13.4%
  4. (d) 34%
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 19.4%

Ancient History (2)

Gupta Empire · Gupta administration and economy

Q27. What was the officer responsible for looking after military stores during the reign of the Gupta Empire called?

  1. (a) Pilupati
  2. (b) Mahapratihara
  3. (c) Vishayapati
  4. (d) Ranabhandagarika
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ranabhandagarika

Post-Gupta Period · Vakatakas, Maitrakas and Maukharis

Q28. Who among the following issued the earliest land grant of the Maitraka family in 502 CE?

  1. (a) Guhasena
  2. (b) Dharapatta
  3. (c) Dronasimha
  4. (d) Shiladitya
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Dronasimha

Biology (1)

Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Excretory system - kidney and nephron

Q29. In renal physiology, which segment of the nephron is most critical for generating the osmotic gradient that concentrates urine?

  1. (a) Loop of Henle
  2. (b) Proximal convoluted tubule
  3. (c) Collecting duct
  4. (d) Distal convoluted tubule
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Loop of Henle

Geography (5)

Universe and Solar System · Latitudes, longitudes and time zones

Q30. If it is 12 noon at IST (82°30′E), what time is it approximately at 97°30′E longitude?

  1. (a) 1:00 PM
  2. (b) 1:20 PM
  3. (c) 11:00 AM
  4. (d) 12:30 PM
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1:00 PM

Q31. What natural feature existed between the Himalayas and the Deccan Plateau before the formation of the Great Plain?

  1. (a) A mountain range
  2. (b) A dense forest
  3. (c) A shallow trough or geosyncline
  4. (d) A deep ocean trench
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A shallow trough or geosyncline

India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Soil types and distribution

Q32. Desert soil is mostly found in which Indian state?

  1. (a) Uttar Pradesh
  2. (b) Rajasthan
  3. (c) Kerala
  4. (d) Tamil Nadu
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Rajasthan

India - Population and Census · Urbanisation and migration

Q33. In the Indian context, population growth in Class I cities is the most influenced by _____.

  1. (a) government employment
  2. (b) religious factors
  3. (c) natural increase
  4. (d) migration from rural areas
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) migration from rural areas

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Extreme points and area facts

Q34. Which of the following is the easternmost international border point of India?

  1. (a) Kibithu
  2. (b) Nathu La
  3. (c) Rohtang
  4. (d) Lipulekh
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Kibithu

Static GK (2)

Music and Musical Instruments · Musical instruments and exponents

Q35. Which category of musical instruments was related to objects of utility in daily life?

  1. (a) Avanaddh Vadya
  2. (b) Sushira Vadya
  3. (c) Ghana Vadya
  4. (d) Tata Vadya
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ghana Vadya

Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q36. How many poems are included in Behramji Merwanji Malabari’s 'The Indian Muse in English Garb'?

  1. (a) 32
  2. (b) 25
  3. (c) 40
  4. (d) 20
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 32

Physics (2)

Sound and Waves · Loudness, pitch, quality and decibel

Q37. Which of the following is the SI unit for sound intensity?

  1. (a) Pascal (Pa)
  2. (b) Watt (W)
  3. (c) Watt per square metre (W/m²)
  4. (d) Metre per second (m/s)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Watt per square metre (W/m²)

Units, Measurement & Dimensions · Dimensions and dimensional analysis

Q38. The speed limit on a highway has the dimension of:

  1. (a) Length over time
  2. (b) Mass
  3. (c) Time over length
  4. (d) Time
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Length over time

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