Home › GK Questions Asked › RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 › 18 June 2025 Shift 2

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 18 June 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 39 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 on 18 June 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Current Affairs, Geography, Biology, Modern History, Polity, Static GK.

📚 39 questions🗓️ 18 June 2025⏰ Shift 2
हिंदी में पढ़ें📥 Full paper PDF
Subjects: Current Affairs (8) · Geography (5) · Biology (1) · Modern History (3) · Polity (4) · Static GK (2) · Physics (2) · Economics (5) · Chemistry (1) · Computer (5) · Ancient History (3)

Current Affairs (8)

Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q1. Who among the following was appointed as the Managing Director of National Agriculture Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd (NAFED), in October 2024?

  1. (a) Vipin Kumar
  2. (b) Ashok Chandra
  3. (c) Praveena Rai
  4. (d) Deepak Agarwal
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Deepak Agarwal

Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q2. Who among the following has won the Sahitya Akademi Award 2024 in Dogri for his book 'Ik Hor Ashwthama'?

  1. (a) Chaman Arora
  2. (b) Vilas Dangre
  3. (c) Madhav Kaushik
  4. (d) Velu Aasaan
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Chaman Arora

International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q3. Which city hosted the International Cooperative Alliance (ICA) Global Cooperative Conference and General Assembly in November 2024?

  1. (a) New Delhi
  2. (b) Hyderabad
  3. (c) Mumbai
  4. (d) Bengaluru
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) New Delhi

Economy, Banking and Business · RBI and banking updates

Q4. As per April 2025, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) allows flexibility in UPI transaction limits for in-person merchant payments, ranging from ₹2 lakh to _____. .

  1. (a) ₹3 lakh
  2. (b) ₹4 lakh
  3. (c) ₹5 lakh
  4. (d) ₹6 lakh
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) ₹5 lakh

Reports, Indices and Rankings · Reports and their publishers

Q5. As per World Bank’s State of Social Protection Report 2025, between 2010 and 2022, social protection coverage in low- and middle-income countries increased from 41% to ______.

  1. (a) 51%
  2. (b) 47%
  3. (c) 43%
  4. (d) 45%
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 51%

Defence and Security - Current · Military exercises - current

Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Navy's initiative of Indian Ocean Ship (IOS) Sagar in April 2025. The IOS Sagar initiative involves the deployment of INS Sunayna to the Southwest Indian Ocean Region (IOR) with a combined crew of India and nine Friendly Foreign Countries (FFCs). The FFC personnel would undergo training at various naval professional schools at Visakhapatnam. The ship INS Sunayna was planned to be deployed for over a month in April 2025, undertaking port calls at Dar-es-Salaam, Nacala, Port Louis, Port Victoria and Male.Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. (a) 1, 2 and 3
  2. (b) Only 1 and 3
  3. (c) Only 2 and 3
  4. (d) Only 1 and 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 1 and 3

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q7. Which mission, launched by ISRO in January 2025, carried the NVS-02 navigation satellite?

  1. (a) GSLV-F16
  2. (b) LVM3-M5
  3. (c) PSLV-C55
  4. (d) GSLV-F15
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) GSLV-F15

State News · State elections and results

Q8. In the 2024 Jammu & Kashmir Assembly elections, from which constituency did the current Chief Minister of J&K contest, and which party does he/she represent?

  1. (a) Ganderbal, Jammu & Kashmir National Conference (JKNC)
  2. (b) Ganderbal, Jammu & Kashmir People's Democratic Party (JKPDP)
  3. (c) Baramulla, Jammu & Kashmir National Conference (JKNC)
  4. (d) Srinagar, Indian National Congress (INC)
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ganderbal, Jammu & Kashmir National Conference (JKNC)

Geography (5)

Q9. The Lipulekh Pass, important for India’s border trade, lies between India and ___________.

  1. (a) Tibet (China)
  2. (b) Bangladesh
  3. (c) Bhutan
  4. (d) Afghanistan
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Tibet (China)

India - Population and Census · Urbanisation and migration

Q10. What percentage of the urban population in India lives in slum conditions as per the Census 2011?

  1. (a) 14.7%
  2. (b) 17.4%
  3. (c) 18.2%
  4. (d) 12.8%
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 17.4%

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Peninsular plateau and hills

Q11. The Shillong Plateau is divided into several parts. Which of the following is not a part of it?

  1. (a) Garo Hills
  2. (b) Mikir Hills
  3. (c) Khasi Hills
  4. (d) Maikala Range
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Maikala Range

India - Drainage System · Tributaries and confluences

Q12. Which of the following is a tributary of the Yamuna river?

  1. (a) Son
  2. (b) Tons
  3. (c) Gomti
  4. (d) Teesta
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Tons

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Peninsular plateau and hills

Q13. On the map of India, the Malwa Plateau is located in which direction relative to the Chotanagpur Plateau?

  1. (a) North
  2. (b) South
  3. (c) West
  4. (d) East
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) West

Biology (1)

Tissues · Permanent plant tissues (simple and complex)

Q14. What defines a conjoint vascular bundle?

  1. (a) Xylem and phloem alternate along the radii
  2. (b) Xylem and phloem present on the same radius
  3. (c) Cambium is absent
  4. (d) Xylem only on the outer side
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Xylem and phloem present on the same radius

Modern History (3)

British Administration and Policies · Education policies and commissions

Q15. What is Lord Thomas Babington Macaulay best known for in the context of British India?

  1. (a) Leading the revolt of 1857
  2. (b) Introducing the Vernacular Press Act
  3. (c) Framing the Government of India Act, 1858
  4. (d) Drafting the Indian Penal Code and promoting English education
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Drafting the Indian Penal Code and promoting English education

Advent of Europeans and British Expansion · Dutch, Danish and French

Q16. Which power suffered a decisive defeat in the Malabar region during the Battle of Colachel in 1741?

  1. (a) Austrian East India Company
  2. (b) Spanish East India Company
  3. (c) English East India Company
  4. (d) Dutch East India Company
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Dutch East India Company

Revolt of 1857 · Causes of the revolt

Q17. Which of the following options is INCORRECT regarding the factors that inflamed the feelings of the Sepoys and led to the Revolt of 1857?

  1. (a) Compulsion on sepoys to wear their caste marks and follow their own caste
  2. (b) Forceful conversions to Christianity
  3. (c) Army maintaining chaplains at state cost and promotion of Christian propaganda among the sepoys
  4. (d) Act that required every new recruit to give an undertaking to serve overseas
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Compulsion on sepoys to wear their caste marks and follow their own caste

Polity (4)

Local Government · 74th Amendment - urban local bodies

Q18. Which provision was introduced in the Constitution of India through the 74ᵗʰ Amendment Act?

  1. (a) Part X
  2. (b) Part IX-A
  3. (c) Part IX
  4. (d) Part XI
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Part IX-A

Judiciary · Judicial review and judicial activism

Q19. The doctrine of judicial review originated in which country?

  1. (a) United States of America
  2. (b) United Kingdom
  3. (c) India
  4. (d) France
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) United States of America

Union Executive · Council of Ministers and Cabinet

Q20. Who administers the oath of office and secrecy to the Union Ministers under Article 75(4) of the Constitution of India?

  1. (a) Prime Minister
  2. (b) President of India
  3. (c) Chief Justice of India
  4. (d) Vice President
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) President of India

Local Government · Evolution and committees (Balwant Rai Mehta, Ashok Mehta, etc.)

Q21. What is the primary benefit of having local self-government institutions like Panchayats in India?

  1. (a) They are closest to the people and understand local problems.
  2. (b) They provide direct access to national policy-making.
  3. (c) They replace the entire administrative framework of the State.
  4. (d) They solely focus on revenue collection.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) They are closest to the people and understand local problems.

Static GK (2)

Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q22. Which of the following classical dance forms was performed by 'Maharis' as part of temple service?

  1. (a) Odissi
  2. (b) Kuchipudi
  3. (c) Kathak
  4. (d) Kathakali
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Odissi

Sports · Khelo India Games editions

Q23. Which Indian state hosted the Khelo India Youth Games in 2025?

  1. (a) Uttar Pradesh
  2. (b) Bihar
  3. (c) Madhya Pradesh
  4. (d) West Bengal
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Bihar

Physics (2)

Units, Measurement & Dimensions · Dimensions and dimensional analysis

Q24. Which of the following physical quantities has the dimension [M L−³]?

  1. (a) Work
  2. (b) Density
  3. (c) Energy
  4. (d) Pressure
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Density

Physics Miscellaneous · Physicists and their discoveries

Q25. Commemorated on National Science Day, CV Raman established key scientific platforms in India. The scientific journal founded by him was _______.

  1. (a) Nature India
  2. (b) Science India Monthly
  3. (c) Current Science
  4. (d) Indian Journal of Physics
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Indian Journal of Physics

Economics (5)

Agriculture and Food Security · Agricultural credit and institutions (NABARD, KCC)

Q26. The enactment of the first Cooperative Credit Societies Act in 1904 was influenced by which of the following?

  1. (a) Indian Famine Commission
  2. (b) Simon Commission
  3. (c) Royal Commission on Agriculture
  4. (d) Hunter Commission
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Indian Famine Commission

Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Poverty - measurement and committees

Q27. What was the poverty headcount ratio in urban areas in 2019-21, as per the National Multidimensional Poverty Index 2023?

  1. (a) 5.27%
  2. (b) 32.59%
  3. (c) 19.28%
  4. (d) 8.65%
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 5.27%

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Housing, sanitation and rural development schemes

Q28. In which year was the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY), a flagship mission aimed at addressing the urban housing shortage in India, launched?

  1. (a) 2014
  2. (b) 2022
  3. (c) 2018
  4. (d) 2015
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 2015

Industry and Infrastructure · Make in India, Startup India and PLI

Q29. In which year was 'Make in India' launched by the Government of India to facilitate investment, foster innovation, enhance skill development, protect intellectual property, and build best in class manufacturing infrastructure in India?

  1. (a) 2015
  2. (b) 2019
  3. (c) 2014
  4. (d) 2016
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2014

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · National sample surveys (NFHS, PLFS, NSS) - findings

Q30. What has been the trend in the unemployment rate for individuals aged 15 years and above from 2017-18 to 2023-24?

  1. (a) Increased from 6% to 7%
  2. (b) Fluctuated between 5% and 6%
  3. (c) Remained constant at 6%
  4. (d) Decreased from 6% to 3.2%
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Decreased from 6% to 3.2%

Chemistry (1)

Carbon and its Compounds · Chemical properties of carbon compounds (combustion, oxidation, addition, substitution)

Q31. In industrial settings, Freon-12 is most commonly manufactured by which chemical reaction?

  1. (a) Elimination reaction
  2. (b) Swarts reaction
  3. (c) Wurtz reaction
  4. (d) Substitution reaction
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Swarts reaction

Computer (5)

MS Office and Productivity Tools · Keyboard shortcuts

Q32. Which of the following key combinations is primarily used to access the File menu in most legacy and standard Windows applications?

  1. (a) Alt + Insert
  2. (b) Alt + Tab
  3. (c) Alt + F
  4. (d) Alt + Delete
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Alt + F

Q33. Which sequence of steps correctly initiates a blank presentation in MS PowerPoint 2016 or later?

  1. (a) View → New Window → Blank
  2. (b) File → Save As → Blank Template
  3. (c) Home → Layout → Clear All
  4. (d) File → New → Blank Presentation
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) File → New → Blank Presentation

Q34. In MS PowerPoint's Slide Master view, what is the primary benefit of customising the top-level master slide versus individual layout masters?

  1. (a) Changes to the top-level master overrides all formatting on individual layout masters
  2. (b) The top-level master is only relevant when exporting the presentation to other formats
  3. (c) Customising the top-level master ensures consistency of universal elements across all slide layouts
  4. (d) Individual layout masters cannot be edited unless the top-level master is modified first
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Customising the top-level master ensures consistency of universal elements across all slide layouts

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Windows features and utilities

Q35. Which of the following methods is used to create a new folder in Windows 11 OS from Desktop?

  1. (a) Drag a file to Desktop
  2. (b) Press Alt + F4
  3. (c) Right-click → Select New → Folder
  4. (d) Press Ctrl + N
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Right-click → Select New → Folder

Q36. What is the primary purpose of the 'Formula Bar' in MS Excel?

  1. (a) To insert charts and images
  2. (b) To display and edit the contents of a cell
  3. (c) To navigate between worksheets
  4. (d) To change the background color of cells
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To display and edit the contents of a cell

Ancient History (3)

Mauryan Empire · Mauryan administration and economy

Q37. Which metal was extensively used for coinage in the Mauryan Empire?

  1. (a) Copper
  2. (b) Silver
  3. (c) Gold
  4. (d) Iron
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Silver

Mauryan Empire · Chandragupta Maurya

Q38. With whose assistance did Chandragupta Maurya overthrow the Nanda dynasty?

  1. (a) Megasthenes
  2. (b) Chanakya
  3. (c) Bindusara
  4. (d) Bimbisara
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Chanakya

Ancient Art, Culture and Science · Cave architecture (Ajanta, Ellora, Elephanta, etc.)

Q39. Which of the following caves are famous for its high citadel?

  1. (a) Ellora caves
  2. (b) Junagadh caves
  3. (c) Sudama caves
  4. (d) Bagh caves
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Junagadh caves

← 18 June 2025 Shift 1All shifts18 June 2025 Shift 3 →
📥 PDF of this paper (all subjects, English & Hindi): RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 previous year papers PDF · ▶ Attempt previous year papers as free online tests · 🏆 Free live mock tests · 📰 Daily current affairs quiz