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SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 15 September 2025 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 25 GK / GS questions asked in SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 on 15 September 2025 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Ancient History, Static GK, Current Affairs, Geography, Physics, Biology.

📚 25 questions🗓️ 15 September 2025⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Ancient History (1) · Static GK (7) · Current Affairs (4) · Geography (2) · Physics (2) · Biology (1) · Polity (5) · Economics (3)

Ancient History (1)

Post-Mauryan Period · Art schools (Gandhara, Mathura, Amaravati)

Q1. Consider the following statements about Gandhara art beyond stone sculptures:
1. A gold reliquary with figures in an arcade was found at Bimaran .
2. Intricately carved ivory plaques were discovered at Begram .
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1 is correct
  2. (b) Only 2 is correct
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2 are correct

• Statement 1: The Bimaran Casket is a famous gold reliquary found at Bimaran (near Jalalabad, Afghanistan). It features Buddha figures standing in arched arcades — an iconic Gandhara art piece. ✓
• Statement 2: Begram (ancient Kapisa) yielded remarkable finds including intricately carved ivory plaques, showing Gandhara craftsmanship extended beyond stone to luxury goods. ✓
• Both statements are historically verified and correct.
• Answer: Both 1 and 2 are correct

Static GK (7)

Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q2. Which of the following best reflects the cultural significance of the Kanuma Festival in Andhra Pradesh?

  1. (a) It marks the beginning of monsoon farming activities.
  2. (b) It is dedicated to honoring cattle used in agriculture.
  3. (c) It celebrates the victory of good over evil through bonfire rituals.
  4. (d) It involves the worship of rivers to ensure good harvests.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It is dedicated to honoring cattle used in agriculture.

• Kanuma is celebrated on the 3rd day of the Makar Sankranti festival in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
• On this day, farmers worship and honor their cattle (cows, bullocks) that assist in agricultural work.
• The cattle are decorated, fed special food, and treated with great reverence.
• Answer: It is dedicated to honoring cattle used in agriculture.
Music and Musical Instruments · Musical instruments and exponents

Q3. Which traditional wind instrument, characterized by its ornate curved hornpipe design and ceremonial use in the folk music of Himachal Pradesh?

  1. (a) Bhopal
  2. (b) Narsingha
  3. (c) Hulki
  4. (d) Kangarange
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Narsingha

• Narsingha (also written Narsinga ) is a traditional long curved horn/trumpet of Himachal Pradesh.
• It is known for its ornate curved hornpipe design and is used in religious processions, temple ceremonies, and folk music.
• It produces a loud, resonant sound and is considered auspicious.
• Answer: Narsingha
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q4. Consider the following statements on World Championship swimming events (50m pool):
1) Men and women compete in identical freestyle distances from 50m to 1500m.
2) Individual Medley is held only up to 400m for both genders.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1 is Correct
  2. (b) Only 2 is Correct
  3. (c) 1 and 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 are Correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 are correct

• Statement 1: At World Aquatics Championships (50m pool), both men and women compete in freestyle events at distances 50m, 100m, 200m, 400m, 800m, and 1500m — identical distances. ✓
• Statement 2: Individual Medley (IM) at World Championships is held at 200m and 400m for both genders. The maximum IM distance is 400m. ✓
• Both statements are correct.
• Answer: 1 and 2 are correct
Sports · Sports bodies and headquarters

Q5. In which year was the Amateur Athletics Federation of India (AAFI), responsible for managing Indian Athletics, established?

  1. (a) 1946
  2. (b) 1948
  3. (c) 1950
  4. (d) 1951
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1946

• The Amateur Athletics Federation of India (AAFI) was established in 1946.
• It is the governing body for track and field athletics in India.
• It is affiliated with World Athletics (formerly IAAF) and the Asian Athletics Association.
• It was later renamed Athletics Federation of India (AFI).
• Answer: 1946
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q6. Which of the following best describes 'Arranged Marriage' by Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni?

  1. (a) Stories exploring immigrant life, cultural identity, and arranged marriage challenges.
  2. (b) Historical novel on India's independence movement.
  3. (c) Fantasy saga blending mythology and politics.
  4. (d) Scientific study of social customs and psychology
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Stories exploring immigrant life, cultural identity, and arranged marriage challenges.

• 'Arranged Marriage' (1995) by Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni is a collection of short stories.
• The stories explore the lives of Indian and Indian-American women navigating immigrant life, cultural identity clashes, and the challenges of arranged marriages.
• It is not a historical novel (B), fantasy (C), or academic study (D).
• Answer: Stories exploring immigrant life, cultural identity, and arranged marriage challenges.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q7. Poikkal Kuthirai Aattam , or dummy horse dance, is performed primarily during religious festivals in which state?

  1. (a) Kerala
  2. (b) Tamil Nadu
  3. (c) Karnataka
  4. (d) Telangana
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Tamil Nadu

• Poikkal Kuthirai Aattam (meaning 'artificial leg horse') is a traditional folk dance from Tamil Nadu.
• Performers strap a decorated dummy horse frame around their waist, creating the illusion of riding a horse.
• It is performed during religious festivals, especially at temples of Murugan and Mariamman in Tamil Nadu.
• Answer: Tamil Nadu
Space, Defence and Technology · Indian space missions

Q8. Which payload monitors solar wind at L1?

  1. (a) ASPEX
  2. (b) SUIT
  3. (c) SoLEXS
  4. (d) HEL1OS
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) ASPEX

• ASPEX = Aditya Solar wind Particle EXperiment — a payload on ISRO's Aditya-L1 mission.
• It is specifically designed to study the solar wind (stream of charged particles from the Sun) at the L1 Lagrange point.
• SUIT = Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (studies UV radiation from Sun).
• SoLEXS = Solar Low Energy X-ray Spectrometer (studies X-ray flares).
• HEL1OS = High Energy L1 Orbiting X-ray Spectrometer (studies high-energy X-rays).
• Answer: ASPEX

Current Affairs (4)

Defence and Security - Current · Military exercises - current

Q9. Where was the 17th edition of the joint India-Mongolia military exercise Nomadic Elephant held in 2025?

  1. (a) Umroi, Meghalaya
  2. (b) Leh, Ladakh
  3. (c) Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia
  4. (d) Tawang , Arunachal Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia

• Exercise Nomadic Elephant is an annual bilateral military exercise between India and Mongolia.
• The 17th edition (2025) was held in Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia.
• The exercise alternates between India and Mongolia each year.
• It focuses on counter-terrorism and jungle warfare operations under a UN mandate.
• Answer: Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia
Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q10. Over 60 Indian athletes participated in the Asian Athletics Championships 2025 held in which city?

  1. (a) Busan, South Korea
  2. (b) Gumi, South Korea
  3. (c) Seoul, South Korea
  4. (d) Tokyo, Japan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Gumi, South Korea

• The Asian Athletics Championships 2025 was held in Gumi, South Korea.
• India sent a contingent of over 60 athletes to participate in this championship.
• Gumi is an industrial city in North Gyeongsang Province, South Korea.
• Answer: Gumi, South Korea
Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q11. Consider the following statements about Gita Upadhyay:
1. She is a Hindi writer from Assam.
2. She translated The Diary of Anne Frank into Indian languages.
3. She was conferred the Padma Bhushan in 2025 .
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3 all are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2 only

• Statement 1: Gita Upadhyay is an Assamese-language writer, not Hindi. ✗
• Statement 2: She is known for translating 'The Diary of Anne Frank' into Assamese. ✓
• Statement 3: She was awarded the Padma Shri (not Padma Bhushan). ✗
• Only Statement 2 is correct.
• Answer: 2 only
Environment and Climate - Current · Species discoveries and conservation news

Q12. Which national park recorded successful reintroduction of the Great Indian Bustard into the wild in 2025?

  1. (a) Sariska National Park
  2. (b) Kuno National Park
  3. (c) Desert National Park
  4. (d) Panna Tiger Reserve
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Desert National Park

• The Great Indian Bustard (GIB) is a critically endangered bird found primarily in Rajasthan.
• Desert National Park in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan is the primary natural habitat of the GIB.
• The park covers the Thar Desert ecosystem, which is the core habitat for GIB conservation efforts.
• In 2025, successful reintroduction of GIB into the wild was recorded at Desert National Park.
• Answer: Desert National Park

Geography (2)

Lithosphere - Earth's Interior and Landforms · Glacial landforms

Q13. Which of the following best distinguishes glacial till from water-laid glacial sediments?

  1. (a) It is layered and stratified due to flowing meltwater.
  2. (b) It is composed of uniformly sized, rounded particles.
  3. (c) It is an unsorted mix of materials deposited directly by ice.
  4. (d) It forms only in glacial lakes through sediment settling.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It is an unsorted mix of materials deposited directly by ice.

• Glacial Till: Material deposited directly by a glacier — it is unsorted (mixture of clay, sand, gravel, boulders) and unstratified (no layers).
• Option A describes fluvioglacial/outwash deposits — these are stratified by flowing meltwater. ✗
• Option B describes water-transported sediments — water rounds and sorts particles by size. ✗
• Option D describes lacustrine (glacial lake) sediments. ✗
• Only Option C correctly distinguishes till: deposited directly by ice without sorting.
• Answer: It is an unsorted mix of materials deposited directly by ice.
India - Population and Census · Census - history and organisation

Q14. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given below. Choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): The Population Enumeration phase of Census 2011 in most parts of India was conducted in February 2011.
Reason (R): House Listing and Housing Census was postponed to ensure simultaneous data collection.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false

• Assertion A: Population Enumeration for Census 2011 was conducted in February-March 2011 in most states of India. ✓
• Reason R: The House Listing and Housing Census was NOT postponed — it was conducted BEFORE Population Enumeration, in April–September 2010.
• The two phases are done sequentially, not simultaneously. Reason R is factually incorrect. ✗
• Answer: A is true, but R is false

Physics (2)

Gravitation · Satellites, orbital velocity and escape velocity

Q15. Evaluate the following statements and select the option that is accurate:
Statement 1: Sun-synchronous orbits allow satellites to maintain consistent local solar time over a specific region.
Statement 2: This orbital feature is ideal for continuous solar-powered communication satellites in geostationary orbit.

  1. (a) Only Statement 1 is correct
  2. (b) Only Statement 2 is correct
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only Statement 1 is correct

• Statement 1: A Sun-synchronous orbit (SSO) is a nearly polar LEO where the satellite passes over any given point at the same local solar time daily. This ensures consistent lighting — ideal for earth observation and remote sensing. ✓
• Statement 2: SSO is NOT geostationary orbit. Geostationary satellites orbit at ~36,000 km. SSO satellites are in Low Earth Orbit (~600–800 km). SSO is not used for continuous communication satellites. ✗
• Answer: Only Statement 1 is correct
Human Eye and the Colourful World · Power of accommodation, near point and far point

Q16. The least distance of distinct vision for a normal human eye is approximately:

  1. (a) 2.5 cm
  2. (b) 25 cm
  3. (c) 2.5 m
  4. (d) 25 m
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 25 cm

• The least distance of distinct vision (Near Point) for a normal healthy human eye = 25 cm.
• This is the minimum distance at which the eye can see an object clearly without strain.
• Objects closer than 25 cm appear blurred to a normal eye.
• For elderly persons (presbyopia), this distance increases beyond 25 cm.
• Answer: 25 cm

Biology (1)

Control and Coordination · Brain - parts and functions

Q17. Which part of the human brain regulates the circadian rhythm?

  1. (a) Cerebellum
  2. (b) Hypothalamus
  3. (c) Medulla oblongata
  4. (d) Thalamus
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Hypothalamus

• The Hypothalamus contains the Suprachiasmatic Nucleus (SCN) — the body's master biological clock.
• The SCN regulates circadian rhythms (roughly 24-hour physiological cycles) by responding to light signals from the retina.
• Cerebellum → coordinates movement and balance.
• Medulla oblongata → controls involuntary functions (heart rate, breathing).
• Thalamus → relay station for sensory signals.
• Answer: Hypothalamus

Polity (5)

Union Executive · Council of Ministers and Cabinet

Q18. Which of the following statements regarding the constitutional responsibility of the Council of Ministers ( CoM ) is/are correct?
1) The Union Council of Ministers is collectively accountable to the Lok Sabha.
2) In states with bicameral legislatures, the State CoM is collectively responsible to the Legislative Council.

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1

• Statement 1: Article 75(3) states — 'The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha).' ✓
• Statement 2: Under Article 164(2), the State Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Legislative ASSEMBLY (Vidhan Sabha), NOT the Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad). Even in bicameral states, accountability is to the lower house only. ✗
• Answer: Only 1
State Government · Governor - appointment and powers

Q19. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1) The Governor's discretionary power to recommend President's Rule is mentioned in Article 356(1).
2) The 41st Constitutional Amendment curtailed the Governor's term from 5 years to 4 years.
3) The Sarkaria Commission advised that Governors should not be removed before completing their term unless in rare and compelling circumstances.

  1. (a) 2 & 3 only
  2. (b) 1 & 3 correct
  3. (c) 1 & 2 correct
  4. (d) 3 only
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1 & 3 correct

• Statement 1: Article 356(1) allows the President to impose President's Rule based on the Governor's report. The Governor's discretionary power to send this report is indeed embedded in this article. ✓
• Statement 2: The 41st Constitutional Amendment (1976) dealt with immunities for certain officials. It did NOT reduce the Governor's term. The Governor's term remains 5 years (subject to pleasure of President). ✗
• Statement 3: The Sarkaria Commission (1983–88) recommended that Governors should ordinarily be allowed to complete their 5-year term and should not be removed except in rare and compelling circumstances. ✓
• Answer: 1 & 3 correct
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q20. What is the maximum detention period a Magistrate can authorize under Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, for offences punishable with less than 10 years, before default bail applies?

  1. (a) 15 days
  2. (b) 30 days
  3. (c) 60 days
  4. (d) 90 days
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 60 days

• Under BNSS 2023 (which replaced CrPC), the detention rules are:
• For offences punishable with less than 10 years → Maximum Magistrate-authorized detention = 60 days.
• If investigation is not completed within 60 days, the accused becomes entitled to Default Bail.
• For offences punishable with death, life imprisonment, or 10+ years → the period is 90 days.
• Answer: 60 days
Fundamental Rights · Right to Property and Article 300A

Q21. Which of the following was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights?

  1. (a) Right to Equality
  2. (b) Right to Property
  3. (c) Right to Freedom
  4. (d) Right against Exploitation
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Right to Property

• Originally, the Indian Constitution had 7 Fundamental Rights, which included the Right to Property (Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31).
• The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 removed the Right to Property from Fundamental Rights.
• It was downgraded to a mere legal/constitutional right under Article 300A.
• Rights to Equality (Art. 14–18), Freedom (Art. 19–22), and against Exploitation (Art. 23–24) remain Fundamental Rights.
• Answer: Right to Property
Preamble, Features, Parts and Schedules · Nature of the Constitution (federal, unitary, parliamentary)

Q22. Consider the following statements:
1. Indian federalism is biased towards the Centre.
2. The Constitution uses the word 'federal' explicitly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1

• Statement 1: Indian federalism is described as 'quasi-federal' with a strong tilt towards the Centre. Features like residuary powers with Centre, emergency provisions, centrally appointed Governors, and All-India Services confirm this. ✓
• Statement 2: The word 'federal' does NOT appear anywhere in the Indian Constitution. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar deliberately used 'Union' instead. Article 1 calls India 'a Union of States'. ✗
• Answer: Only 1

Economics (3)

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Housing, sanitation and rural development schemes

Q23. Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options:
Assertion (A): SVAMITVA scheme provides property cards using drone technology.
Reason (R): It covers rural and urban areas.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false

• Assertion A: SVAMITVA (Survey of Villages and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas) uses drones to map land and provide property rights cards (Adhikar Patra) to rural households. ✓
• Reason R: SVAMITVA is specifically for RURAL inhabited (Abadi) land only. It does NOT cover urban areas. ✗
• Reason R is factually incorrect — the scheme is exclusively rural.
• Answer: A is true, but R is false
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q24. What does a lower score on the Corruption Perception Index (e.g., closer to 0) indicate?

  1. (a) Less corruption
  2. (b) More corruption
  3. (c) Higher transparency
  4. (d) Better governance
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) More corruption

• The Corruption Perception Index (CPI) is published annually by Transparency International.
• Scale: 0 = Highly Corrupt → 100 = Very Clean / Transparent.
• A score closer to 0 indicates HIGH levels of corruption in the public sector.
• A score closer to 100 indicates LOW corruption, high transparency, and better governance.
• Answer: More corruption
Industry and Infrastructure · Classification of industries (size, ownership, raw material)

Q25. Which of the following pairs correctly represents agro -based industries?

  1. (a) Cement and Petrochemicals
  2. (b) Cotton textiles and Sugar
  3. (c) Jute textiles and Steel
  4. (d) Edible oil and Aluminium
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Cotton textiles and Sugar

• Agro -based industries use agricultural produce as their primary raw material.
• Cotton Textiles → raw material is cotton (agricultural crop). ✓
• Sugar Industry → raw material is sugarcane (agricultural crop). ✓
• Cement → uses limestone (mineral-based industry). ✗
• Petrochemicals, Steel, Aluminium → all use mineral/metal ores. ✗
• Answer: Cotton textiles and Sugar
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