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SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 21 September 2025 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 25 GK / GS questions asked in SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 on 21 September 2025 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Medieval History, Geography, Economics, Polity, Current Affairs, Static GK.

📚 25 questions🗓️ 21 September 2025⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Medieval History (2) · Geography (3) · Economics (4) · Polity (3) · Current Affairs (2) · Static GK (6) · Ancient History (1) · Modern History (1) · Computer (1) · Physics (1) · Chemistry (1)

Medieval History (2)

South Indian Kingdoms · Cholas - rulers and administration

Q1. Neither the Chola nor the Chera dynasty was directly responsible for the establishment of:

  1. (a) Naval expeditions to Southeast Asia
  2. (b) Tamil literary renaissance
  3. (c) Devadasi temple system
  4. (d) Bahmani kingdom
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bahmani kingdom

The Bahmani Sultanate (1347) was founded by Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah in the Deccan after revolt against the Tughlaqs. It had no link with the Chola or Chera dynasties.
Naval expeditions to Southeast Asia were carried out by the Cholas.
Tamil literary renaissance was supported by both the Cholas and Cheras.
Devadasi temple system flourished under Chola patronage.
Mughal Empire · Mughal architecture

Q2. Which Mughal Emperor is known for popularising pietra dura, or stone inlay technique, and the double dome in Indian architecture?

  1. (a) Babur
  2. (b) Akbar
  3. (c) Shah Jahan
  4. (d) Aurangzeb
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Shah Jahan

Shah Jahan popularised pietra dura (stone inlay) and the double dome, both seen in the Taj Mahal.
Babur built mainly mosques and gardens (Charbagh).
Akbar's architecture used red sandstone with Persian-Indian fusion (Fatehpur Sikri).
Aurangzeb built simpler structures and was not a great patron of architecture.

Geography (3)

Geography Miscellaneous · Nicknames of places

Q3. Which of these countries is known as the 'Land of the Thunder Dragon'?

  1. (a) Nepal
  2. (b) Bhutan
  3. (c) Sri Lanka
  4. (d) Maldives
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Bhutan

Bhutan is known as the 'Land of the Thunder Dragon' (Druk Yul in Dzongkha).
Nepal is the 'Land of Mount Everest', Sri Lanka the 'Pearl of the Indian Ocean', and Maldives is famed for its atolls — none of these have the 'Thunder Dragon' epithet.
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Power plants (thermal, hydro, nuclear, solar, wind)

Q4. Talcher, a thermal power station in India, is in:

  1. (a) Jharkhand
  2. (b) Tamil Nadu
  3. (c) Andhra Pradesh
  4. (d) Odisha
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Odisha

Talcher Thermal Power Station and the Talcher Super Thermal Power Station (NTPC) are located in Angul district of Odisha.
Jharkhand has stations like Bokaro; Tamil Nadu has Neyveli and North Chennai; Andhra Pradesh has Vijayawada (VTPS) — but Talcher is in Odisha.
India - Drainage System · Water resources and water-body census

Q5. In India, which of these geological formations hosts the most significant groundwater reservoirs for large-scale and extensive development?

  1. (a) Unconsolidated Formation
  2. (b) Semi-Consolidated Formation
  3. (c) Fissured Formations
  4. (d) Consolidated Formations
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Unconsolidated Formation

Unconsolidated formations (alluvial deposits of the Indo-Gangetic and coastal plains) hold the most significant and extensive groundwater reservoirs in India due to their high porosity and permeability.
Semi-consolidated, fissured and consolidated formations have limited and localised groundwater potential.

Economics (4)

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Social welfare schemes

Q6. Which government scheme aims to provide financial support to senior citizens who may have lost their means of sustenance?

  1. (a) Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOAPS)
  2. (b) Atal Pension Yojana (APY)
  3. (c) Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (PMVVY)
  4. (d) National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP)
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOAPS)

IGNOAPS provides monthly pension to elderly persons aged 60+ belonging to BPL households who have lost their means of sustenance.
APY is a pension scheme for workers in the unorganised sector (contribution-based).
PMVVY is an investment-based pension plan run by LIC.
NSAP is the umbrella programme under which IGNOAPS itself falls (broader, not specific to the lost-sustenance category).
National Income · Economic growth and development

Q7. Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct option:
Assertion (A): GDP doesn't really tell the whole story when it comes to how well people in a country are actually doing.
Reason (R): That's mainly because it doesn't take into account stuff like wear and tear of machines, pollution, or even how the money is divided among people.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Assertion (A) is true: GDP is a quantitative measure of output and does not reflect well-being, inequality or environmental degradation.
Reason (R) is true: depreciation (wear and tear), pollution (negative externalities) and income distribution are precisely the limitations of GDP as a welfare indicator — and they correctly explain why GDP is inadequate.
Hence both are true and R correctly explains A.
Agriculture and Food Security · Green Revolution and other agricultural revolutions

Q8. Why were fertilizer subsidies a double-edged policy instrument during 1960-1990?

  1. (a) They promoted global trade
  2. (b) They reduced rural employment
  3. (c) They supported productivity but often benefited richer farmers
  4. (d) They discouraged use of HYV seeds
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) They supported productivity but often benefited richer farmers

During the Green Revolution period (1960-1990), fertiliser subsidies boosted agricultural productivity and food output — but the benefits flowed disproportionately to large/richer farmers who could afford HYV seeds, irrigation and inputs. This created regional and class inequalities, making the policy 'double-edged'.
They did not promote global trade, did not reduce rural employment, and they encouraged (not discouraged) HYV seeds.
Industry and Infrastructure · Public sector undertakings (Maharatna, Navratna, Miniratna)

Q9. The term 'Navratnas' in public sector reform refers to:

  1. (a) Public enterprises given full privatization
  2. (b) Public enterprises granted autonomy for better performance
  3. (c) Subsidy-driven rural firms
  4. (d) Firms eligible for WTO support
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Public enterprises granted autonomy for better performance

The 'Navratna' status (introduced in 1997) refers to select profitable Central Public Sector Enterprises granted greater operational and financial autonomy to compete in the global market and improve performance.
They are not fully privatised, not subsidy-driven rural firms, and have nothing specific to WTO eligibility.

Polity (3)

Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q10. What technological advancement is explicitly incorporated in the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 for faster justice delivery?

  1. (a) Use of blockchain in contracts
  2. (b) Electronic recording of witness testimony
  3. (c) Live broadcast of trials
  4. (d) Use of drones for crime scene inspection
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Electronic recording of witness testimony

The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 explicitly provides for electronic/audio-video recording of witness testimony, search and seizure, and statements, to speed up justice delivery.
Blockchain in contracts, live broadcast of trials, and drone use for crime scene inspection are not provisions explicitly included in the BNSS.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Financial Emergency (Article 360)

Q11. Fill in the blanks:
During a Financial Emergency, the salaries of judges can be reduced by the _______.

  1. (a) President
  2. (b) PM
  3. (c) Chief Justice
  4. (d) Finance Commission
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) President

Under Article 360 (Financial Emergency), the President of India can issue directions to reduce the salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving the Union, including the judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
PM, Chief Justice and Finance Commission have no such power.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Financial relations

Q12. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the borrowing powers of States in India?
1) A State requires the Centre's consent for internal borrowing if it owes any debt to the Centre.
2) No State can raise loans from foreign sources without prior approval of the Union Government.

  1. (a) Statement 1 is Correct
  2. (b) Statement 2 is Correct
  3. (c) Statement 1 and 2 are Correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 are Correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Statement 1 and 2 are Correct

Both statements are correct under Article 293 of the Constitution.
Statement 1: A State cannot raise any loan without the consent of the Centre if it has any outstanding loan from the Centre or guaranteed by the Centre.
Statement 2: States cannot directly borrow from foreign sources — only the Union Government can borrow externally (Article 292).

Current Affairs (2)

International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q13. Who among the following was the Chief Guest at India's Republic Day celebrations in 2025?

  1. (a) Joe Biden
  2. (b) H.E. Prabowo Subianto
  3. (c) Emmanuel Macron
  4. (d) Fumio Kishida
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) H.E. Prabowo Subianto

The Chief Guest at India's 76th Republic Day (26 January 2025) was H.E. Prabowo Subianto, the President of Indonesia.
Joe Biden, Emmanuel Macron and Fumio Kishida were not Chief Guests in 2025.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q14. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Indian football season 2024-25 as per the AIFF calendar?
1.) The Durand Cup 2024, Asia's oldest football tournament, is scheduled between July 26 and August 31.
2.) The I-League 3 and the Junior Girls National Football Championship (Tier 1 & 2) will both run during the same calendar month.

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1

Statement 1 is correct: as per the AIFF 2024-25 calendar, the Durand Cup 2024 was scheduled from 26 July to 31 August 2024.
Statement 2 is incorrect: the I-League 3 and Junior Girls National Football Championship were not scheduled in the same calendar month per the AIFF calendar.
Hence, only Statement 1 is correct.

Static GK (6)

Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q15. Fill in the blank:
The ceremonial procession of Lord Dharnath in Dhar district of Madhya Pradesh is locally referred to as a _____.

  1. (a) Jhanki
  2. (b) Chhabina
  3. (c) Rath
  4. (d) Sawari
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Chhabina

The ceremonial procession of Lord Dharnath in Dhar district, Madhya Pradesh, is locally called 'Chhabina'.
Jhanki refers to tableau displays; Rath is a chariot procession; Sawari is a generic term for processions of deities, not the specific local term used here.
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q16. A personal foul in basketball primarily involves:

  1. (a) Arguing with the referee
  2. (b) Illegal physical contact during active play
  3. (c) Delay of game violations
  4. (d) Unsportsmanlike conduct on the bench
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Illegal physical contact during active play

In basketball, a personal foul is called for illegal physical contact between players during active play (e.g., pushing, holding, charging, blocking).
Arguing with the referee is a technical foul; delay of game is a violation; bench misconduct is a separate category.
Sports · Olympic Games

Q17. What critical factor distinguished Vijay Kumar's performance in the men's 25m rapid pistol event at the London 2012 Olympics?

  1. (a) He set a new world record in the qualification round.
  2. (b) He won gold by defeating Cuba's Leuris Pupo in the final round.
  3. (c) He was the first Indian shooter to qualify for the finals.
  4. (d) He outshot a tied competitor in the sixth round to reach the final round.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) He outshot a tied competitor in the sixth round to reach the final round.

Vijay Kumar won the silver medal (not gold) in the men's 25m rapid pistol at the London 2012 Olympics by outshooting a tied competitor in a shoot-off in the sixth round to advance to the final round.
He did not set a world record; he was not the first Indian shooter in an Olympic final; and the gold was won by Leuris Pupo of Cuba, not him.
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q18. Consider the following statements about the book 'One Hundred Years of Solitude' by Gabriel Garcia Marquez:
1) The novel employs magical realism to narrate the rise and fall of the Buendía family in the fictional town of Macondo.
2) It presents a linear historical account focused solely on Colombia's political events in the 20th century.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only statement 1 is correct
  2. (b) Only statement 2 is correct
  3. (c) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither statement 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only statement 1 is correct

Statement 1 is correct: the novel uses magical realism to trace seven generations of the Buendía family in fictional Macondo.
Statement 2 is incorrect: the narrative is non-linear and is not solely focused on Colombia's 20th-century politics — it blends myth, fantasy and history.
Hence, only statement 1 is correct.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Martial arts

Q19. Fill in the Blank:
Thoda is performed mostly by _____ community.

  1. (a) Rajputs
  2. (b) Brahmins
  3. (c) Jats
  4. (d) Ahirs
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Rajputs

Thoda is a martial dance-cum-game of Himachal Pradesh, performed mainly by the Rajput community during Baisakhi. It involves archery between two groups (Pashis and Saathis).
It is not associated with Brahmin, Jat or Ahir communities.
Space, Defence and Technology · Science and technology missions and schemes

Q20. Consider the following statements on the Green Hydrogen Mission:
1. It aims to make India a global hub for production and export of green hydrogen.
2. The mission targets production of 10 MMT by 2030.
3. Green hydrogen is produced by electrolysis using renewable energy.

  1. (a) Only 1 and 2 are correct
  2. (b) Only 2 and 3 are correct
  3. (c) Only 1 and 3 are correct
  4. (d) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Only 1 and 3 are correct

Statement 1 is correct: the National Green Hydrogen Mission aims to make India a global hub for production, usage and export of green hydrogen.
Statement 2 is incorrect: the target is 5 MMT (Million Metric Tonnes) per annum by 2030, not 10 MMT.
Statement 3 is correct: green hydrogen is produced via electrolysis of water using renewable energy sources.
Hence, only 1 and 3 are correct.

Ancient History (1)

Vedic Period · Vedic literature (Vedas, Brahmanas, Aranyakas, Upanishads)

Q21. In the context of the Rigveda, what does the term 'Rik' signify?

  1. (a) Ritual sacrifice
  2. (b) Divine law
  3. (c) Sacred hymn
  4. (d) Ancient melody
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sacred hymn

In the Rigveda, 'Rik' ( ऋक् ) means a sacred hymn or verse of praise addressed to deities.
Ritual sacrifice is 'Yajna'; divine law is 'Rita/Dharma'; ancient melody refers to 'Saman' (associated with the Samaveda).

Modern History (1)

British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q22. Fill in the blank:
The Government of India Act 1919 created a bicameral central legislature with the Council of State and the ____.

  1. (a) Central Legislative Assembly
  2. (b) Imperial Council
  3. (c) Council of Princes
  4. (d) Chamber of Deputies
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Central Legislative Assembly

The Government of India Act, 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms) created a bicameral central legislature consisting of the Council of State (Upper House) and the Central Legislative Assembly (Lower House).
Imperial Council was the older single-chamber body; Council of Princes (Chamber of Princes) was a separate institution for princely states; Chamber of Deputies is a foreign term.

Computer (1)

Emerging Technologies and E-Governance · Artificial Intelligence and machine learning

Q23. Read the following statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Generative Design Software is increasingly used by ISRO for optimizing structure and weight distribution in aerospace components.
Reason (R): Generative design tools are specifically developed for modeling cryogenic fuel tanks used in PSLV variants.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false

Assertion (A) is true: ISRO does use generative design software for optimising structural and weight efficiency of aerospace components.
Reason (R) is false: generative design tools are general-purpose AI/optimisation software; they are not specifically developed for cryogenic fuel tanks of PSLV variants.
Hence, A is true but R is false.

Physics (1)

Electricity · Heating effect of current and Joule's law

Q24. Why is nichrome commonly used as the heating element in electric heaters?

  1. (a) It has low resistivity and a high melting point
  2. (b) It has high resistivity and a low melting point
  3. (c) It offers low resistivity and a low melting point
  4. (d) It offers high resistivity and a high melting point
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) It offers high resistivity and a high melting point

Nichrome (an alloy of nickel and chromium) is used as a heating element because:
High resistivity → produces more heat for the same current (H = I²Rt).
High melting point (~1400°C) → does not melt at heater operating temperatures.
It also resists oxidation at high temperature.

Chemistry (1)

Environmental Chemistry · Air pollutants and their sources

Q25. Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options:
Assertion (A): AQI value above 400 is classified as 'Severe'.
Reason (R): Such levels cause respiratory effects even on healthy individuals.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Assertion (A) is true: as per CPCB, AQI 401-500 is classified as 'Severe'.
Reason (R) is true: such severe pollution causes respiratory effects even on healthy individuals and serious health impacts on those with existing conditions — this is the very reason for the 'Severe' classification.
Hence both are true and R correctly explains A.
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