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SSC Selection Post 2025 2 August 2025 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 23 GK / GS questions asked in SSC Selection Post 2025 on 2 August 2025 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Economics, Static GK, Biology, Geography, Chemistry, Polity.

📚 23 questions🗓️ 2 August 2025⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Economics (5) · Static GK (4) · Biology (2) · Geography (4) · Chemistry (1) · Polity (2) · Ancient History (1) · Medieval History (1) · Current Affairs (3)

Economics (5)

Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Human Development Index and UNDP

Q1. The concept of "human development ethics" challenges the Human Development Index (HDI) for its:

  1. (a) Implicit assumptions about universal values and development goals
  2. (b) Over-reliance on economic data
  3. (c) Exclusion of military strength indicators
  4. (d) Lack of international trade analysis
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Implicit assumptions about universal values and development goals

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Implicit assumptions about universal values and development goals
The critique of 'human development ethics' argues that the HDI embeds implicit assumptions about what constitutes a good or developed life (e.g., long life, education, income) that may not align with all cultural or ethical frameworks. Critics argue these reflect a Western-centric view of universal values and development goals.
Option 2 (Over-reliance on economic data): The HDI actually broadens beyond purely economic measures by including health and education; this is not the core ethical critique.
Option 3 (Exclusion of military strength): Military strength is deliberately excluded from development indices as it does not reflect human welfare.
Option 4 (Lack of international trade analysis): Trade analysis is outside the scope of HDI, and this is not an ethical challenge raised by human development ethics.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Cost, revenue and utility concepts

Q2. Iso-utility curve is another name for ________ curve.

  1. (a) Demand
  2. (b) Supply
  3. (c) Phillips
  4. (d) Indifference
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Indifference

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Indifference
An iso-utility curve is another name for an indifference curve. Both terms refer to the graphical representation of all combinations of two goods that give a consumer the same level of total utility (satisfaction). 'Iso' means equal, and 'utility' refers to satisfaction, so iso-utility = equal utility = indifference.
Option 1 (Demand): A demand curve shows the relationship between price and quantity demanded; unrelated to iso-utility.
Option 2 (Supply): A supply curve shows the relationship between price and quantity supplied.
Option 3 (Phillips): The Phillips Curve shows the inverse relationship between unemployment and inflation; unrelated to consumer utility.
Financial Markets and Institutions · Development financial institutions (SIDBI, NHB, EXIM Bank, IFCI)

Q3. Which of the following played a key role in financing industrial projects during the Fifth Five-Year Plan in 1974–1978?

  1. (a) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  2. (b) Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI)
  3. (c) State Bank of India (SBI)
  4. (d) Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI)

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI)
The Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI), established in 1964, served as the apex development finance institution for industrial financing in India. During the Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974–1978), IDBI played a pivotal role in providing long-term finance for large and medium industrial projects, refinancing other financial institutions, and coordinating industrial credit.
Option 1 (RBI): RBI is India's central bank responsible for monetary policy and banking regulation; not directly a project finance institution for industry.
Option 3 (SBI): SBI is a commercial bank; while it provides credit, it was not the apex institution for industrial project financing.
Option 4 (EXIM Bank): The Export-Import Bank of India was established in 1982 — after the Fifth Plan period — so it did not exist during 1974–1978.
Industry and Infrastructure · Make in India, Startup India and PLI

Q4. Who launched the National Single Window System for investors and businesses in India?

  1. (a) Dr. Jitendra Singh
  2. (b) Piyush Goyal
  3. (c) Amit Shah
  4. (d) FM Sitharaman
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Piyush Goyal

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Piyush Goyal
The National Single Window System (NSWS) for investors and businesses was launched by Piyush Goyal (then Union Minister for Commerce and Industry) in 2021. The NSWS provides a unified platform for investors to obtain approvals and clearances from multiple central and state government departments, simplifying the ease of doing business in India.
Option 1 (Dr. Jitendra Singh): Minister of State (PMO/Science & Technology); not associated with the NSWS launch.
Option 3 (Amit Shah): Home Minister; not associated with the NSWS launch.
Option 4 (FM Sitharaman): Finance Minister; while she announced reforms in budgets, the NSWS was specifically launched by Piyush Goyal.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q5. Which of the following is a structural reform under the 1991 policy?

  1. (a) Devaluation of rupee
  2. (b) Cut in subsidies
  3. (c) Privatization of public sector units
  4. (d) Export duty imposition
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Privatization of public sector units

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Privatization of public sector units
The 1991 economic reforms in India had two components: (a) Stabilization measures (short-term fixes) and (b) Structural reforms (long-term systemic changes). Privatization (disinvestment) of public sector units is a structural reform as it changes the fundamental ownership structure of the economy.
Option 1 (Devaluation of rupee): This was a stabilization/balance of payments measure undertaken in July 1991 to improve export competitiveness and correct the current account deficit — not a structural reform.
Option 2 (Cut in subsidies): A fiscal stabilization measure to reduce the fiscal deficit — not a structural reform.
Option 4 (Export duty imposition): Contrary to the 1991 reforms, which actually REDUCED export duties to promote exports. Imposing new export duties would be anti-reform.

Static GK (4)

Space, Defence and Technology · Indian space missions

Q6. What is the purpose of DISHA satellites being developed by ISRO?

  1. (a) Telecommunication
  2. (b) Human spaceflight navigation
  3. (c) Studying the Earth's upper atmosphere and space weather
  4. (d) Ocean observation
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Studying the Earth's upper atmosphere and space weather

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Studying the Earth's upper atmosphere and space weather
DISHA (Disturbed and Quiet time Ionosphere-thermosphere System at High Altitude) is a twin-satellite mission by ISRO designed to study the Earth's upper atmosphere (ionosphere and thermosphere) and space weather phenomena. The satellites will study how solar activity affects the ionosphere, which impacts satellite communication and GPS accuracy.
Option 1 (Telecommunication): ISRO's communication satellites are the GSAT series, not DISHA.
Option 2 (Human spaceflight navigation): DISHA is a scientific mission, not for crewed mission navigation.
Option 4 (Ocean observation): ISRO's ocean observation satellites are the Oceansat series, not DISHA.
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q7. In Kathak, which of the following is used to mark the rhythm?

  1. (a) Tabla and Pakhawaj
  2. (b) Mridangam
  3. (c) Violin
  4. (d) Flute
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Tabla and Pakhawaj

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Tabla and Pakhawaj
In Kathak, one of the eight classical dance forms of India, the rhythm (taal) is primarily marked by the Tabla and Pakhawaj (barrel drum). The Tabla provides the primary rhythmic accompaniment, while the Pakhawaj is used in the Jaipur Gharana style of Kathak. The intricate footwork ( tatkar ) of Kathak aligns with the beats of these percussion instruments.
Option 2 (Mridangam): The Mridangam is the primary percussion instrument for Bharatanatyam (Tamil Nadu) and Carnatic classical music, not Kathak.
Option 3 (Violin): A melodic instrument; not used to mark rhythm in Kathak.
Option 4 (Flute): A melodic instrument; used for melody in classical performances but not for marking rhythm in Kathak.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q8. Which of the following statements accurately describes 'The War That Made R&AW' by Anusha Nandakumar and Sandeep Saket?

  1. (a) Detailed history of India's external intelligence and geopolitics
  2. (b) Fictional Cold War espionage thriller
  3. (c) Memoir of a former R&AW agent
  4. (d) Critique of post-2000 domestic intelligence reforms
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Detailed history of India's external intelligence and geopolitics

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Detailed history of India's external intelligence and geopolitics
'The War That Made R&AW' by Anusha Nandakumar and Sandeep Saket is a non-fiction work that provides a detailed history of how the Research and Analysis Wing (R&AW) was created in the context of the 1971 India-Pakistan War (Liberation War of Bangladesh). It covers India's external intelligence operations and the geopolitical context surrounding the creation and early years of R&AW.
Option 2 (Fictional Cold War espionage thriller): The book is non-fiction history, not a fictional thriller.
Option 3 (Memoir of a former R&AW agent): It is a historical account by researchers/journalists, not a personal memoir by an intelligence officer.
Option 4 (Critique of post-2000 domestic intelligence reforms): The book focuses on the 1971 war period and R&AW's formation; not a post-2000 domestic reform critique.
Space, Defence and Technology · Indian space missions

Q9. Match the ISRO mission with its primary objective:
1. Chandrayaan-2
2. Aditya-L1
3. Mangalyaan

  1. (a) 1-Sun Study, 2-Lunar Orbiter, 3-Mars Orbit
  2. (b) 1-Lunar Orbiter, 2-Sun Study, 3-Mars Orbit
  3. (c) 1-Mars Orbit, 2-Lunar Orbiter, 3-Sun Study
  4. (d) 1-Sun Study, 2-Mars Orbit, 3-Lunar Orbiter
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1-Lunar Orbiter, 2-Sun Study, 3-Mars Orbit

Correct Answer: Option 2 – 1-Lunar Orbiter, 2-Sun Study, 3-Mars Orbit
1. Chandrayaan-2 (2019): India's second lunar exploration mission; its primary objective was Lunar Orbit insertion with an orbiter, lander (Vikram), and rover (Pragyan). Though the lander crashed, the orbiter successfully studies the Moon from lunar orbit. → Lunar Orbiter.
2. Aditya-L1 (2023): India's first dedicated solar mission placed at the Sun-Earth Lagrange Point 1 (L1). Its primary objective is to study the Sun's corona, solar winds, and space weather phenomena. → Sun Study.
3. Mangalyaan / Mars Orbiter Mission (2013): India's first interplanetary mission; placed in Mars orbit to study Martian surface, morphology, and atmosphere. → Mars Orbit.
Options 1, 3, 4 all incorrectly assign objectives to missions and are therefore wrong.

Biology (2)

Biology Miscellaneous · Plant and animal facts and records

Q10. Which among the following pairs is NOT correct about the indigenous dog breeds of India?

  1. (a) Gaddi Dog - Jammu and Kashmir
  2. (b) Combai - Tamil Nadu
  3. (c) Chippiparai - Kerala
  4. (d) Mudhol Hound - Karnataka
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Chippiparai - Kerala

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Chippiparai - Kerala (INCORRECT pairing)
The Chippiparai is an indigenous sighthound breed that originates from Chippiparai , a town in Virudhunagar district of Tamil Nadu — NOT Kerala. It is associated with the erstwhile royal families of the Tirunelveli and Madurai regions of Tamil Nadu.
Option 1 (Gaddi Dog - Jammu and Kashmir): Correct. The Gaddi Kutta ( Himachali sheepdog) is found in the Himalayan regions of Himachal Pradesh and J&K.
Option 2 ( Combai - Tamil Nadu): Correct. The Combai is an indigenous terrier-type breed from the Combai region of Tamil Nadu.
Option 4 (Mudhol Hound - Karnataka): Correct. The Mudhol Hound (also called Caravan Hound) is from the Mudhol area of Bagalkot district, Karnataka.
Diversity and Classification of Living Organisms · Basis and hierarchy of classification

Q11. What type of symmetry do humans exhibit?

  1. (a) Radial symmetry
  2. (b) Bilateral symmetry
  3. (c) Asymmetry
  4. (d) Spherical symmetry
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Bilateral symmetry

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Bilateral symmetry
Humans exhibit bilateral symmetry, meaning the body can be divided into two mirror-image halves (left and right) along a single plane (the sagittal plane). This symmetry is characteristic of most animals including vertebrates, arthropods, and molluscs .
Option 1 (Radial symmetry): Found in organisms like starfish, sea anemones, and jellyfish, which can be divided into equal halves along multiple planes through a central axis.
Option 3 (Asymmetry): Characteristic of sponges (Porifera), which have no regular plane of symmetry.
Option 4 (Spherical symmetry): Found in very simple organisms like some radiolarians; any plane through the center produces equal halves — humans do not have this.

Geography (4)

India - Agriculture · Cropping seasons (kharif, rabi, zaid)

Q12. Which of the following is NOT a kharif crop?
1-Rice, 2-Cotton, 3-Wheat, 4-Mustard, 5-Maize, 6-Barley

  1. (a) 1, 2, 6
  2. (b) 2, 4, 5
  3. (c) 3, 4, 6
  4. (d) 4, 5, 6
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 3, 4, 6

Correct Answer: Option 3 – 3, 4, 6 (Wheat, Mustard, Barley)
Kharif crops are sown in the summer (June–July) and harvested in autumn (September–October). Rabi crops are sown in winter (October–November) and harvested in spring (March–April).
From the list: Rice (1) – Kharif; Cotton (2) – Kharif; Wheat (3) – RABI (NOT kharif); Mustard (4) – RABI (NOT kharif); Maize (5) – Kharif; Barley (6) – RABI (NOT kharif).
Therefore, items 3, 4, and 6 (Wheat, Mustard, Barley) are NOT kharif crops — they are rabi crops.
Option 1 (1, 2, 6): Rice and Cotton are kharif; only Barley is rabi.
Option 2 (2, 4, 5): Cotton and Maize are kharif; only Mustard is rabi.
Option 4 (4, 5, 6): Maize is kharif; Mustard and Barley are rabi — not all three are non-kharif.
India - Transport and Communication · Inland waterways

Q13. Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The IWT Terminal at Jogighopa is strategically important for India's trilateral trade with Bhutan and Bangladesh.
Reason (R): Jogighopa Terminal is located near the borders of Bangladesh and Bhutan and is a declared Port of Call under the PIWT&T agreement between India and Bangladesh.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Assertion A is TRUE: Jogighopa , located in Assam on the Brahmaputra River, serves as an Inland Water Transport (IWT) terminal that facilitates trilateral trade among India, Bangladesh, and Bhutan. Goods from Bhutan can be transported through India via this terminal to Bangladesh and vice versa.
Reason R is TRUE and explains A: Jogighopa is a declared Port of Call under the PIWT&T (Protocol on Inland Water Transit and Trade) agreement between India and Bangladesh. Its geographic proximity to the borders of both Bangladesh and Bhutan makes it a natural hub for this trilateral trade, directly explaining its strategic importance.
Since both A and R are true and R correctly explains A, Option 1 is correct.
India - Drainage System · East-flowing peninsular rivers

Q14. Which of the following groups of rivers in Peninsular India empty into the Bay of Bengal?

  1. (a) Narmada, Mahi, Sabarmati
  2. (b) Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri
  3. (c) Tapi, Mandovi , Periyar
  4. (d) Bhima, Betwa, Chambal
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri
The Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri are major east-flowing rivers of Peninsular India that drain into the Bay of Bengal. They flow eastward across the Deccan Plateau and discharge into the Bay through deltas in Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
Option 1 (Narmada, Mahi, Sabarmati): These are west-flowing rivers that drain into the Arabian Sea via the Gulf of Khambhat (Cambay).
Option 3 (Tapi/Tapti, Mandovi , Periyar): Tapi flows west into the Arabian Sea; Mandovi flows into the Arabian Sea (Goa); Periyar flows west into the Arabian Sea (Kerala).
Option 4 (Bhima, Betwa, Chambal): These are tributaries — Bhima (Krishna), Betwa and Chambal (Yamuna) — not independent major rivers emptying directly into the Bay of Bengal.
India - Population and Census · Workforce composition and work participation

Q15. Read the following two statements carefully and choose the correct option:
Statement 1: Northeastern states of India show high female work participation rates.
Statement 2: Tribal societies in these regions are more gender-equitable in labour division.

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2 are correct

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Both 1 and 2 are correct
Statement 1 is CORRECT: The northeastern states of India (Nagaland, Meghalaya, Manipur, etc.) consistently show significantly higher female work participation rates compared to the national average, as recorded in NSSO and Census data.
Statement 2 is CORRECT: The tribal societies in northeastern India have traditionally more gender-equitable division of labour compared to caste-based societies in other parts of India. Women in these tribal communities actively participate in agriculture, trade, and household decision-making, which explains Statement 1.
Both statements are independently correct, and Statement 2 also provides a socio-cultural explanation for Statement 1, making Option 3 (C) the answer.

Chemistry (1)

Chemical Reactions and Equations · Exothermic and endothermic reactions

Q16. Which among the following is an example of an exothermic reaction?

  1. (a) Photosynthesis
  2. (b) Melting of ice
  3. (c) Combustion of petrol
  4. (d) Evaporation of water
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Combustion of petrol

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Combustion of petrol
Exothermic reactions release energy (heat) to the surroundings. Combustion of petrol (burning fuel) is a classic exothermic reaction: C₈H₁₈ + O₂ → CO₂ + H₂O + Heat energy. The energy released is what powers internal combustion engines.
Option 1 (Photosynthesis): An endothermic reaction — plants absorb light energy from the Sun to convert CO₂ and water into glucose.
Option 2 (Melting of ice): An endothermic process — heat energy is absorbed from the surroundings to break the bonds in ice crystal lattice.
Option 4 (Evaporation of water): An endothermic process — liquid water absorbs heat energy to overcome intermolecular forces and convert to water vapour .

Polity (2)

Emergency and Centre-State Relations · President's Rule (Article 356)

Q17. Which Article allows the President to impose President's Rule in a state?

  1. (a) Article 352
  2. (b) Article 356
  3. (c) Article 360
  4. (d) Article 365
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 356

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Article 356
Article 356 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to impose President's Rule (also called State Emergency or Constitutional Emergency) in a state if the constitutional machinery in that state has failed. The President can assume executive functions of the state government on the recommendation of the Governor.
Option 1 (Article 352): Pertains to the proclamation of National Emergency (external aggression or armed rebellion).
Option 3 (Article 360): Pertains to the proclamation of Financial Emergency when the financial stability of India or any part thereof is threatened.
Option 4 (Article 365): States that if a state fails to comply with directions given by the Union government, it shall be lawful to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on — this supports Article 356 but is not the article that directly authorizes imposition of President's Rule.
Judiciary · Supreme Court - jurisdiction (original, appellate, advisory)

Q18. Which Article empowers the Supreme Court to transfer cases from one High Court to another and on what grounds?

  1. (a) Article 139A; for ensuring justice and expeditious trial
  2. (b) Article 226; for writ jurisdiction
  3. (c) Article 142; for enforcing decrees
  4. (d) Article 131; for disputes between states
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 139A; for ensuring justice and expeditious trial

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Article 139A; for ensuring justice and expeditious trial
Article 139A of the Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to transfer cases (including appeals or other proceedings) pending before one High Court to another High Court, or to itself, if it is satisfied that the cases involve a substantial question of law of general importance or that it is expedient to ensure justice and an expeditious trial.
Option 2 (Article 226): Deals with the power of High Courts to issue writs; not about transfer of cases.
Option 3 (Article 142): Empowers the Supreme Court to pass decrees/orders necessary for doing complete justice in any cause pending before it; not about inter-High Court transfers.
Option 4 (Article 131): Deals with original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in disputes between states or between states and the Union; not about transfers.

Ancient History (1)

Ancient Art, Culture and Science · Cave architecture (Ajanta, Ellora, Elephanta, etc.)

Q19. Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options:
Assertion (A): Ajanta is the only surviving site that contains paintings from both the first century BCE and the fifth century CE.
Reason (R): Ajanta has chaitya caves from the early phase and only vihara-chaitya caves from the later phase.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false

Correct Answer: Option 3 – A is true, but R is false
Assertion A is TRUE: Ajanta Caves indeed contain paintings from two distinct periods — the early Hinayana phase (circa 2nd century BCE to 1st century CE) and the later Mahayana/Gupta phase (circa 5th–6th century CE). It is the only site with surviving paintings from both these eras.
Reason R is FALSE: The later phase of Ajanta (Gupta period) included BOTH vihara (monastery) caves AND chaitya (prayer hall) caves — it did not have 'only vihara-chaitya caves.' For example, Caves 19 and 26 are chaitya halls from the later phase. The description is inaccurate.
Since A is true but R is false, the correct answer is Option 3 (C).

Medieval History (1)

Mughal Empire · Babur and his battles

Q20. Which of the following pairs of rulers and their immediate successors is correctly matched?

  1. (a) Alauddin Khalji – Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
  2. (b) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq – Iltutmish
  3. (c) Ibrahim Lodi – Babur
  4. (d) Babur – Sher Shah Suri
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ibrahim Lodi – Babur

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Ibrahim Lodi – Babur
Ibrahim Lodi (last ruler of the Lodi dynasty) was defeated by Babur at the First Battle of Panipat in 1526, making Babur his immediate successor as ruler of Delhi. This marked the end of the Delhi Sultanate and the beginning of the Mughal Empire.
Option 1 (Alauddin Khalji – Muhammad Bin Tughlaq): Incorrect. Alauddin Khalji's immediate successors were his sons — Shahab- ud -din Omar and then Qutb ud -Din Mubarak Shah. Muhammad Bin Tughlaq came to the throne in 1325, much later.
Option 2 (Muhammad Bin Tughlaq – Iltutmish): Incorrect. Iltutmish ruled 1211–1236, well before Muhammad Bin Tughlaq (1325–1351). Muhammad Bin Tughlaq was succeeded by his cousin Firuz Shah Tughlaq.
Option 4 (Babur – Sher Shah Suri): Incorrect. Babur was immediately succeeded by his son Humayun (1530). Sher Shah Suri displaced Humayun later (1540), but was not Babur's immediate successor.

Current Affairs (3)

Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q21. Which is true about India's men's basketball performance at the FIBA 3x3 Asia Cup 2025?

  1. (a) India reached quarter-finals after 12 years but lost 21-11 to New Zealand
  2. (b) India's women's team passed qualifiers and reached quarter-finals
  3. (c) Arvind Muthu scored highest with 45 points
  4. (d) India decisively beat China 21-19 in Pool B
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) India reached quarter-finals after 12 years but lost 21-11 to New Zealand

Correct Answer: Option 1 – India reached quarter-finals after 12 years but lost 21-11 to New Zealand
At the FIBA 3x3 Asia Cup 2025, India's men's basketball team reached the quarter-finals for the first time in 12 years, marking a significant achievement. However, they lost 21-11 to New Zealand in the quarter-finals.
Option 2 (Women's team): The question asks specifically about the men's team's performance; this statement about the women's team is not what the question asks.
Option 3 (Arvind Muthu 45 points): This scoring figure is incorrect per the reported match data.
Option 4 (Beat China 21-19 in Pool B): This specific result is inaccurate per the tournament records.
International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q22. Consider the following statements about the 6th ASEAN–India Trade in Goods Agreement (AITIGA) Joint Committee:
1) All 10 ASEAN countries participated, and all 8 Sub-Committees met physically in New Delhi.
2) The review was preceded by high-level meetings in Laos urging completion by 2025.
3) ASEAN became India's largest trading partner with USD 121 billion in 2023–24.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) 1 and 2 only
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) 2 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1 and 3 only
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2 only

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Statement 2 only
Statement 1 is INCORRECT: Not all Sub-Committees met physically; some meetings were virtual. The claim that 'all 8 Sub-Committees met physically' is inaccurate.
Statement 2 is CORRECT: The 6th AITIGA Joint Committee review was preceded by high-level ASEAN-India discussions (including meetings at the ASEAN Summit in Laos) that urged completion of the AITIGA review by 2025.
Statement 3 is INCORRECT: While ASEAN is a major trading partner of India, the USA surpassed ASEAN to become India's largest trading partner in 2023–24. ASEAN's trade figure of USD 121 billion also needs verification — the actual figure may differ.
Only Statement 2 is definitively correct, making Option 2 (B) the answer.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q23. Which of the following is/are correct about Indian wrestling in 2025?
1.) Haryana won gold in both 62 KG and 68 KG WW at the National Games.
2.) Punjab scored more than Maharashtra in U17 Freestyle at Khelo India Youth Games.

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Only 1
Statement 1 is CORRECT: At the National Games 2025, Haryana's wrestlers won gold medals in both the 62 KG and 68 KG Women's Wrestling (WW) categories, continuing Haryana's dominance in Indian wrestling.
Statement 2 is INCORRECT: At the Khelo India Youth Games 2025, Maharashtra outperformed Punjab in the U17 Freestyle wrestling category. Punjab did not score more than Maharashtra in this event.
Since only Statement 1 is correct, Option 1 (A) is the answer.
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