SSC Selection Post 2025 24 July 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Rocks and metals
The asteroid belt, located between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter, is primarily composed of rocky and metallic debris — remnants from the early solar system that never coalesced into a planet due to Jupiter's strong gravitational influence. The asteroids range from tiny rocks to dwarf planet Ceres (diameter ~940 km). Most are silicate (rocky) or metallic (iron-nickel) compositions.
Option 2 (Gases and ice): This describes comets or the outer solar system bodies (Kuiper Belt objects); not the asteroid belt.
Option 3 (Liquid water): No liquid water exists in the asteroid belt; some asteroids may contain water ice but not in liquid form.
Option 4 (Volcanic magma): Not applicable; asteroids are cold, solid bodies, not volcanically active.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Indo-Gangetic Plain
The Indo-Gangetic Plain (covering parts of Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and West Bengal) has the highest population density in India, sustained by its extremely fertile alluvial soil, abundant water from the Indus, Ganga, and Brahmaputra river systems, and flat terrain ideal for agriculture. It supports hundreds of millions of people and is one of the most densely populated agricultural regions in the world.
Option 1 (Thar Desert): The Thar Desert in Rajasthan is arid with scarce water; among the least densely populated regions.
Option 3 (Western Ghats): A biodiversity hotspot with moderate population; not the highest density region.
Option 4 (Himalayan Region): Mountainous terrain with harsh climate limits population density.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Tripura
Tripura is traditionally known as the 'Land of White Elephants' (Airavata Rajya). According to legend, Lord Krishna blessed this region with prosperity and it was inhabited by white elephants in ancient times. The state's name is also associated with the legendary King Tripur, and white elephants have been part of its cultural symbolism for centuries.
Option 1 (Assam): Known as the 'Land of Red River and Blue Hills' (Lohit-Brahmaputra and Naga Hills); also famous for elephants but not specifically white elephants.
Option 3 (Meghalaya): Known as the 'Abode of Clouds' (Megha = cloud, Alaya = abode).
Option 4 (Manipur): Known as the ' Jewelled Land' or 'Switzerland of the East'; not associated with the white elephant legend.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Gyanesh Kumar
Gyanesh Kumar, a 1988-batch IAS officer from the Kerala cadre, was appointed as the 26th Chief Election Commissioner of India in March 2025. He succeeded Rajiv Kumar who retired as the 25th CEC. Gyanesh Kumar had previously served as Election Commissioner.
Option 2 (Rajiv Kumar): The 25th CEC (2022–2025); preceded Gyanesh Kumar.
Option 3 (Sushil Chandra): The 23rd CEC (2021–2022).
Option 4 (Sunil Arora): The 23rd CEC (2019–2021).

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Amoeba uses pseudopodia; Paramecium uses cilia to direct food into a fixed spot
Amoeba captures food (bacteria, algae) by engulfing it using pseudopodia (false feet) — extensions of the cell membrane — in a process called phagocytosis. Paramecium has a specialized oral groove with cilia that beat to direct food particles toward the cytostome (a fixed 'mouth-like' spot), where food is ingested into food vacuoles.
Option 1 (All use mouth-like structure): Incorrect; Amoeba has no fixed mouth — it uses pseudopodia and can ingest from any point on the surface.
Option 3 (Both absorb randomly): Incorrect; Paramecium has a defined oral groove — it does not absorb randomly.
Option 4 (External digestion): External digestion is a feature of some fungi and bacteria; not Amoeba or Paramecium.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Chief Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan
The Ladli Behna Yojana was announced by Shivraj Singh Chouhan, the then Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh, on January 28, 2023. The scheme provides monthly financial assistance to married women of the state to enhance their economic independence and well-being. The scheme proved highly popular and was seen as a key initiative ahead of the 2023 Madhya Pradesh assembly elections.
Option 1 (PM Narendra Modi): A central government scheme; Ladli Behna is a state scheme of Madhya Pradesh.
Option 3 (Governor Mangubhai Patel): The Governor of MP at the time; does not announce state welfare schemes.
Option 4 (FM Nirmala Sitharaman): Union Finance Minister; not involved in state-level schemes like Ladli Behna.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Strengthens supply chain efficiency
The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC), announced at the G20 Summit in New Delhi (September 2023), is designed to strengthen global supply chain efficiency by creating a new multi-modal connectivity corridor linking India, the UAE, Saudi Arabia, Jordan, Israel, and Europe. It involves rail, shipping, and digital connectivity that reduces transit time and costs compared to existing routes.
Option 1 (Disrupts supply chains): IMEC aims to enhance, not disrupt, supply chains.
Option 3 (Limits trade to specific regions): IMEC broadens trade connectivity across regions.
Option 4 (Reduces reliability): IMEC increases supply chain reliability by offering an alternative to the Suez Canal route.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – By reducing production costs through joint research
The BRICS Vaccine R&D Center, established to enhance vaccine research and development among BRICS nations, supports vaccine affordability primarily by pooling resources and expertise through joint research, which reduces duplication of efforts and lowers per-unit production costs. Collaborative R&D also accelerates development timelines and enables technology transfer to make vaccines more accessible in BRICS and developing nations.
Option 2 (Limiting vaccine exports): Limiting exports would reduce access, not improve affordability.
Option 3 (Increasing patent restrictions): Greater patent restrictions increase costs; the BRICS approach seeks to reduce such barriers.
Option 4 (Focusing only on high-income countries): BRICS vaccine initiatives specifically target developing nations and low/middle-income populations.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – To provide research-based insights for shaping BRICS Summit discussions and policies
The BRICS Think Tank Council (BTTC) is an academic and research platform that brings together think tanks and research institutions from BRICS countries. Its ultimate goal is to provide evidence-based, research-driven policy insights and recommendations to inform discussions at BRICS Summits and shape the grouping's collective policy agenda.
Option 1 (Common currency): Discussions on alternatives to the US dollar exist, but establishing a common currency is not the mandate of the Think Tank Council.
Option 3 (Regulate trade policies): Trade policy regulation is handled through bilateral agreements and the BRICS framework; not the Think Tank Council's role.
Option 4 (Cultural exchanges): Cultural exchanges are handled by other BRICS forums; the Think Tank Council is focused on research and policy.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Through self-reported surveys
The World Happiness Report's Happiness Index (rankings) is primarily based on data from the Gallup World Poll, which uses self-reported surveys. Respondents are asked to evaluate their current life situation using the Cantril Ladder scale (rating their life from 0–10). The subjective self-assessment captures personal well-being, which objective metrics like GDP cannot measure.
Option 1 (Satellite images): Remote sensing captures physical/environmental data; not personal happiness levels.
Option 2 (Measuring GDP only): GDP is one factor considered in the WHR analysis but is not the data collection method, and happiness is far broader than economic output.
Option 4 (Analyzing internet usage): Digital behavior analysis is not used for the Happiness Index.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Women above 21 years of age
The Ladli Behna Yojana (Madhya Pradesh) targets married women residents of MP aged 21 years and above (up to 60 years). The scheme provides ₹1,250 per month (initially ₹1,000) to eligible women. Women from poor and lower-middle-class families are the primary beneficiaries.
Option 2 (Women below 18 years): Minors are not eligible; the scheme targets adult women.
Option 3 (Women belonging to urban households only): Both rural and urban women of MP are eligible, subject to income criteria.
Option 4 (Women employed in government jobs): Government employees and income tax payees are specifically EXCLUDED from this scheme.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – A ranking of states based on progress toward SDGs
The SDG India Index, published annually by NITI Aayog since 2018, tracks and ranks all Indian states and Union Territories on their progress toward the 17 UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) across indicators covering health, education, gender equality, clean energy, economic growth, and more. It helps identify gaps and best practices across states.
Option 1 (Foreign trade performance): Trade performance is tracked by DGFT (Director General of Foreign Trade) and RBI; not NITI Aayog's SDG Index.
Option 3 (List of public sector enterprises): PSEs are tracked by DIPAM (Department of Investment and Public Asset Management).
Option 4 (Report on monetary policy): Monetary policy is governed by the RBI; NITI Aayog does not publish monetary policy reports.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – To ensure uniform tax across states
The Goods and Services Tax (GST), implemented on July 1, 2017, was primarily enacted to replace the complex, multi-layered indirect tax structure (excise duty, VAT, service tax, etc.) with a single, uniform indirect tax across India. It created 'One Nation, One Tax, One Market,' eliminating cascading tax effects and creating a unified national market.
Option 1 (New direct tax): GST is an indirect tax (levied on consumption of goods/services), not a direct tax like Income Tax.
Option 2 (Levy more duties on luxury goods): GST's goal was simplification and uniformity, not increasing duties specifically on luxury items (though luxury items do attract higher GST slabs).
Option 4 (Differentiate between goods and services): GST actually unifies taxation of both goods and services under a single framework rather than differentiating them.

The primary sector of the Indian economy is mainly concerned withagriculture and allied activities, focusing on the extraction and harvesting of natural resources. This includes crop production, animal husbandry, forestry, and fishing.
The sector serves as a vital pillar for the nation, though its role presents a structural disparity:
Employment:It remains the largest source of livelihood in India, employing over 40% of the country's total workforce.
Economic Contribution:It contributes roughly 16% to 20% of India's Gross Value Added (GVA) / GDP.
Industrial Backbone:It provides the essential raw materials required by the secondary (manufacturing) sector, supporting industries like textiles, food processing, and paper.
Food Security:It is responsible for cultivating staple foods and agricultural yields that sustain India's massive population

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Tamil Nadu
Pongal is a major four-day harvest festival primarily celebrated in Tamil Nadu, typically from January 14–17. It is dedicated to the Sun God (Surya) and marks the end of the winter solstice. The festival includes Bhogi Pongal, Surya Pongal (main day), Mattu Pongal (for cattle), and Kaanum Pongal. It coincides with Makar Sankranti observed in other parts of India.
Option 1 (Andhra Pradesh): Celebrates Sankranti (Makara Sankranti/Pedda Panduga ) during the same period, not Pongal specifically.
Option 3 (Karnataka): Celebrates Sankranti; Pongal is not Karnataka's primary festival.
Option 4 (Kerala): Celebrates Onam (harvest festival) and Vishu as major festivals; Pongal is not Kerala's primary harvest festival.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Salman Rushdie
'Midnight's Children' by Salman Rushdie was published in 1981 and won the Booker Prize that year. It also won the 'Booker of Bookers' in 1993 and 2008 (best Booker Prize novel ever). The novel tells the story of children born at midnight on August 15, 1947 (Indian independence), exploring India's post-independence history through magical realism.
Option 1 (Vikram Seth): Known for 'A Suitable Boy' (1993) and 'The Golden Gate' (1986); did not write Midnight's Children.
Option 2 (Ruskin Bond): A celebrated children's and short story writer known for 'The Room on the Roof'; did not write Midnight's Children.
Option 4 (Kiran Desai): Won the Booker Prize in 2006 for 'The Inheritance of Loss'; did not write Midnight's Children.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – 7
A standard Kabaddi team has 7 players on the field at a time, with a squad of 12 players (7 playing, 5 substitutes). The game is played between two teams of 7 players each on a rectangular court. Kabaddi is India's national sport of contact and is widely played across South Asia.
Option 1 (9): Not the standard number for Kabaddi (9-a-side is used in some other sports).
Option 3 (6): Not the standard field count for Kabaddi.
Option 4 (5): 5-a-side is used in Circle Kabaddi (a variant), not standard Kabaddi.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Sports
The Arjuna Award is India's second-highest sporting honour , awarded by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports to recognize outstanding achievement in sports over a period of four consecutive years. It was established in 1961. Recipients receive a bronze statuette of Arjuna, a certificate of honour , ceremonial dress, and a cash prize.
Option 1 (Literature): Literary excellence is recognized by the Sahitya Akademi Award and Jnanpith Award.
Option 2 (Science): Scientific achievement is recognized by the Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize and Padma awards.
Option 4 (Music): Musical excellence is recognized by the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award and national honours .

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Chittorgarh Fort
Chittorgarh Fort (Chittor Fort) in Rajasthan is the finest and largest example of Rajput military architecture. It was the capital of the Mewar Kingdom and is associated with legendary Rajput valor, including the three famous Jauhars (mass self-immolation) by Rajput women. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site (part of Hill Forts of Rajasthan).
Option 1 (Red Fort): Built by Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan in Delhi; an example of Mughal architecture.
Option 2 (Agra Fort): Originally built by the Rajputs but significantly expanded by Akbar; primarily identified as a Mughal architectural monument.
Option 4 (Golkonda Fort): Located in Hyderabad; built by the Kakatiya dynasty and expanded by the Qutb Shahi dynasty — an example of Deccani/Islamic architecture, not Rajput.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction
Newton's Third Law of Motion states that for every action (force), there is an equal in magnitude and opposite in direction reaction force. The two forces act on different objects simultaneously. Examples: rocket propulsion (exhaust pushes down, rocket moves up), swimming (push water backward, move forward), walking (push ground backward, ground pushes forward).
Option 1 (Force = mass × acceleration): This is Newton's Second Law of Motion (F = ma).
Option 2 (Energy cannot be created or destroyed): This is the Law of Conservation of Energy (First Law of Thermodynamics); not Newton's Third Law.
Option 4 (Acceleration inversely proportional to mass): This is derived from Newton's Second Law (a = F/m); not Newton's Third Law.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Rituals and Dharma
Mimamsa (or Purva Mimamsa), one of the six orthodox (Astika) schools of Hindu philosophy, is primarily concerned with the interpretation of the ritual portions of the Vedas (Karma Kanda) and the understanding of Dharma (righteous conduct/duty). It emphasizes the eternal validity of the Vedas and the importance of performing Vedic rituals correctly for achieving cosmic order and dharmic goals.
Option 2 (Meditation and Yoga): Addressed by Yoga (Patanjali's system) and partially by Vedanta; not Mimamsa.
Option 3 (Logic and Debate): Addressed by Nyaya school (founded by Gautama), which focuses on logic and epistemology.
Option 4 (Atomic theory): Addressed by Vaisheshika school (founded by Kanada), which proposes that the universe is composed of atoms ( paramanu ).

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Buddhism
The Gandhara School of Art (1st–5th century CE), developed in the ancient Gandhara region (modern-day Pakistan and eastern Afghanistan), is primarily associated with Buddhism. It depicts the life of the Buddha and Buddhist themes using a unique blend of Greco-Roman (Hellenistic) and Indian artistic styles. The first anthropomorphic representations of the Buddha in human form originated in the Gandhara School.
Option 1 (Hinduism): Gandhara art is overwhelmingly Buddhist in subject matter; Hindu iconography was not its primary focus.
Option 3 (Jainism): Jain art developed mainly in western India (Gujarat, Rajasthan); not associated with the Gandhara region.
Option 4 (Zoroastrianism): A Persian religion; while Gandhara was influenced by Persian culture, Zoroastrianism was not the religious focus of Gandhara art.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Article 17
Article 17 of the Indian Constitution abolishes Untouchability and makes its practice in any form a punishable offence. It states: 'Untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden. The enforcement of any disability arising out of Untouchability shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law.' This is further enforced by the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955.
Option 1 (Article 14): Guarantees equality before law and equal protection of laws.
Option 3 (Article 19): Guarantees six fundamental freedoms (speech, assembly, movement, etc.).
Option 4 (Article 21): Guarantees protection of life and personal liberty.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Seventh Schedule
The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution (Article 246) contains three lists that divide legislative powers between the Union and States: Union List (List I) — subjects on which only Parliament can legislate (e.g., Defence , Foreign Affairs, Atomic Energy); State List (List II) — subjects on which only State Legislatures can legislate (e.g., Police, Agriculture, Public Health); Concurrent List (List III) — subjects on which both Parliament and States can legislate (e.g., Education, Forests, Criminal Law).
Option 1 (Sixth Schedule): Contains provisions for administration of tribal areas in northeastern states (Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram).
Option 3 (Eighth Schedule): Contains the list of 22 officially recognized languages of India.
Option 4 (Tenth Schedule): Contains provisions regarding disqualification on grounds of defection (Anti-Defection Law, added by 52nd Amendment, 1985).

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Article 14
Article 14 of the Indian Constitution states: 'The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.' It embodies two concepts: (1) Equality before law (negative concept — no special privileges), borrowed from British law; (2) Equal protection of laws (positive concept — equal treatment in equal circumstances), borrowed from the US Constitution.
Option 2 (Article 19): Guarantees six fundamental freedoms including free speech, assembly, movement, and right to practise any profession.
Option 3 (Article 21): Guarantees the right to life and personal liberty — 'No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.'
Option 4 (Article 32): Grants the right to constitutional remedies — the right to approach the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights (Dr. Ambedkar called it the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution).