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SSC Selection Post 2025 24 July 2025 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 22 GK / GS questions asked in SSC Selection Post 2025 on 24 July 2025 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Economics, Physics, Biology, Polity, Static GK, Medieval History.

📚 22 questions🗓️ 24 July 2025⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Economics (4) · Physics (1) · Biology (2) · Polity (3) · Static GK (5) · Medieval History (2) · Current Affairs (3) · Geography (2)

Economics (4)

Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Economic laws and terms (Gresham's, Say's, Engel's, etc.)

Q1. In which of the following situations is a liquidity trap said to have occurred?

  1. (a) Perfectly elastic demand with respect to interest rate
  2. (b) Perfectly inelastic demand with respect to interest rate
  3. (c) Increase in money supply leads to increase in interest rate
  4. (d) Decrease in money supply leads to decrease in interest rate
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Perfectly elastic demand with respect to interest rate

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Perfectly elastic demand with respect to interest rate
A liquidity trap (concept by Keynes) occurs when interest rates are so low that people prefer to hold cash rather than invest in bonds or other assets, making monetary policy ineffective. In this situation, money demand becomes perfectly elastic (horizontal LM curve) with respect to the interest rate — any increase in money supply is absorbed into idle cash hoards without reducing interest rates further.
Option 2 (Perfectly inelastic): Inelastic demand means interest rate changes have no effect on money demand — this describes a classical scenario, not a liquidity trap.
Option 3 (Increase in money supply raises interest rate): Opposite of normal monetary theory; not a liquidity trap scenario.
Option 4 (Decrease in money supply lowers interest rate): Also contrary to standard monetary theory.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Education and research schemes

Q2. Which government scheme aims to provide financial assistance to meritorious students from economically weaker sections for pursuing higher education?

  1. (a) National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Scheme (NMMSS)
  2. (b) Central Sector Scheme of Scholarship for College and University Students
  3. (c) Pradhan Mantri Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (PM-USHA)
  4. (d) Namami Gange Programme
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Central Sector Scheme of Scholarship for College and University Students

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Central Sector Scheme of Scholarship for College and University Students
The Central Sector Scheme of Scholarship for College and University Students, implemented by the Ministry of Education, provides financial assistance to meritorious students from families with annual income below ₹8 lakh for pursuing higher education (graduation and post-graduation). It targets the top 20 percentile students from each stream at Class XII level.
Option 1 (NMMSS): This scheme targets Class VIII students to prevent dropout at secondary level; it focuses on Class IX–XII, not higher education.
Option 3 (PM-USHA): Focuses on improving quality and access in higher educational institutions; not a direct student scholarship scheme.
Option 4 (Namami Gange Programme ): A river conservation and pollution reduction programme for the Ganga; completely unrelated to student scholarships.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q3. Which of the following foreign countries assisted India in the establishment of heavy industries during the Second Five-Year Plan?

  1. (a) USA, Japan, and UK
  2. (b) Soviet Union, UK, and West Germany
  3. (c) China and Bangladesh
  4. (d) France and New Zealand
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Soviet Union, UK, and West Germany

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Soviet Union, UK, and West Germany
During India's Second Five-Year Plan (1956–61), which focused on rapid industrialization (Nehru- Mahalanobis model), three major steel plants were established with foreign assistance: Bhilai Steel Plant (Chhattisgarh) — built with Soviet Union (USSR) assistance; Durgapur Steel Plant (West Bengal) — built with UK assistance; Rourkela Steel Plant (Odisha) — built with West Germany assistance.
Option 1 (USA, Japan, UK): The USA had limited involvement in India's heavy industry setup during the Second Plan period.
Option 3 (China and Bangladesh): Not involved in India's industrial development during this period.
Option 4 (France and New Zealand): Not involved in India's steel plant establishment.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Foreign exchange reserves and exchange rates

Q4. Why was the rupee devalued in 1991?

  1. (a) To make imports cheaper
  2. (b) To increase foreign aid
  3. (c) To boost exports and attract foreign exchange
  4. (d) To reduce inflation
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To boost exports and attract foreign exchange

Correct Answer: Option 3 – To boost exports and attract foreign exchange
In July 1991, India devalued the rupee by about 18-19% in two stages as part of the economic reforms and IMF/World Bank-supported stabilization package. India was facing a severe Balance of Payments ( BoP ) crisis with foreign exchange reserves down to just 2 weeks of imports. The devaluation was intended to: (1) make Indian exports cheaper and more competitive internationally, (2) attract more foreign exchange earnings, (3) correct the overvalued exchange rate.
Option 1 (Make imports cheaper): Devaluation does the OPPOSITE — it makes imports MORE expensive (since you need more rupees to buy the same foreign currency).
Option 2 (Increase foreign aid): Devaluation is not a mechanism to attract foreign aid; it is a trade and exchange rate policy tool.
Option 4 (Reduce inflation): Devaluation actually tends to INCREASE inflation (imported inflation) as import costs rise; it was not done to reduce inflation.

Physics (1)

Sound and Waves · Doppler effect, resonance and shock waves

Q5. The Doppler effect describes the change in observed frequency of a wave when there is relative motion between the source of the wave and the observer.
Which of the following scenarios illustrates the Doppler effect for sound?

  1. (a) Light from a distant star appears shifted towards the red end of the spectrum
  2. (b) A stationary observer hears a change in the pitch of a siren as an ambulance passes by
  3. (c) Water waves bend as they move from deep to shallow water
  4. (d) Sunlight is dispersed into different colors when it passes through a prism
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) A stationary observer hears a change in the pitch of a siren as an ambulance passes by

Correct Answer: Option 2 – A stationary observer hears a change in the pitch of a siren as an ambulance passes by
This is the classic demonstration of the Doppler effect for sound: as an ambulance approaches, the sound waves compress (higher frequency = higher pitch); as it moves away, waves stretch (lower frequency = lower pitch). The observer hears a drop in pitch as the ambulance passes.
Option 1 (Redshift of starlight): This IS the Doppler effect, but for light (electromagnetic waves), not sound. It is specifically called 'redshift' and indicates the star is moving away from the observer.
Option 3 (Water waves bending in shallow water): This describes refraction of waves, not the Doppler effect.
Option 4 (Sunlight through prism): This describes dispersion of light (separation into spectrum by wavelength); not the Doppler effect.

Biology (2)

Microorganisms · Types of microorganisms

Q6. Find the INCORRECT statement about Gram staining of bacteria.

  1. (a) Gram positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer so they are unable to retain crystal violet
  2. (b) Gram negative bacteria have thin layer of peptidoglycan and cannot retain the crystal violet
  3. (c) Grams iodine is responsible for the formation of the crystal-violet-iodine complex
  4. (d) Gram-negative bacteria appear red/pink under a microscope
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Gram positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer so they are unable to retain crystal violet

Correct Answer: Option 1 – This is the INCORRECT statement
Option 1 is INCORRECT: Gram positive bacteria have a THICK peptidoglycan cell wall, which actually RETAINS the crystal violet-iodine complex (they stain purple/violet). The statement says they are 'unable to retain' crystal violet — this is the opposite of the truth.
Option 2 is CORRECT: Gram negative bacteria DO have a thin peptidoglycan layer (plus an outer membrane) and CANNOT retain crystal violet after decolorization.
Option 3 is CORRECT: Gram's iodine acts as a mordant, forming an insoluble crystal-violet-iodine (CV-I) complex that gets trapped inside the thick cell wall of Gram positive bacteria.
Option 4 is CORRECT: Gram negative bacteria lose the crystal violet after decolorization and take up the red/pink safranin counterstain, appearing red/pink under the microscope.
Diseases, Immunity and Health · Deficiency diseases

Q7. Read the following two statements carefully and choose the correct option:
Statement 1: A significant number of adolescent girls in India suffer from anaemia .
Statement 2: The diet available to adolescents in India is generally rich in all nutrients.

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Only 1
Statement 1 is CORRECT: India has one of the world's highest rates of anaemia among adolescent girls. According to NFHS-5 (2019-21), about 59% of adolescent girls (15-19 years) in India are anaemic , primarily due to iron deficiency. This is a significant public health challenge addressed by schemes like Anaemia Mukt Bharat.
Statement 2 is INCORRECT: The diet available to adolescents in India is generally NOT rich in all nutrients. Most Indian adolescents, particularly girls and those from lower socioeconomic backgrounds, have diets deficient in iron, protein, calcium, vitamin B12, and other micronutrients. Poor dietary diversity, food insecurity, and cultural practices contribute to this nutritional gap.
Since only Statement 1 is correct, Option 1 (A) is the answer.

Polity (3)

Polity Miscellaneous · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q8. Which of the following is a new offense defined under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

  1. (a) Criminal intimidation
  2. (b) Adultery
  3. (c) Terrorist act
  4. (d) Sedition
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Terrorist act

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Terrorist act
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, which replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), introduced 'Terrorist act' (Section 113) as a new, explicitly defined offense. The BNS comprehensively defines terrorism within the main criminal code for the first time.
Option 1 (Criminal intimidation): Was already present in IPC (Section 503); retained in BNS.
Option 2 (Adultery): Was decriminalized by the Supreme Court in 2018 (Joseph Shine v. Union of India); not included in BNS.
Option 4 (Sedition): The BNS removed the colonial-era sedition law (Section 124A IPC); replaced it with Section 152 (acts endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of India) — not the same as the old sedition offense.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q9. In case of a conflict between Central and State law on a Concurrent List subject, the State law prevails only if:

  1. (a) It is passed by a two-thirds majority
  2. (b) It has received Presidential assent
  3. (c) It is supported by a Supreme Court ruling
  4. (d) The Rajya Sabha passes it
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It has received Presidential assent

Correct Answer: Option 2 – It has received Presidential assent
Under Article 254(2) of the Indian Constitution, if a State legislature passes a law on a Concurrent List subject that is repugnant to an existing Central law, the State law shall prevail in that state IF it has been reserved for the consideration of the President and has received Presidential assent. This is the only constitutional mechanism allowing a State law to override a Central law on Concurrent List subjects.
Option 1 (Two-thirds majority): The two-thirds majority requirement applies to Constitutional Amendments (Article 368); not for Concurrent List conflicts.
Option 3 (Supreme Court ruling): The Supreme Court interprets laws but does not grant supremacy to State laws through rulings in this manner.
Option 4 (Rajya Sabha passes it): Rajya Sabha is a Parliament house; its passing a law doesn't grant supremacy to State laws.
Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Scheduled and tribal areas (Fifth and Sixth Schedules)

Q10. Consider the following statements:
1. Schedule VI applies to tribal areas in Assam and Tripura.
2. Autonomous Councils under Schedule VI can make laws on forest management.
3. Schedule VI is applicable to Jharkhand.
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. (a) 1 and 2 only
  2. (b) 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 1 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Statements 1 and 2 only
Statement 1 is CORRECT: The Sixth Schedule (Article 244) provides for the administration of tribal areas in four northeastern states: Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. Assam and Tripura are specifically included.
Statement 2 is CORRECT: Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) under Schedule VI have legislative powers over specified subjects including land management, forest management (other than reserved forests), use of waterways, shifting cultivation, and other local subjects.
Statement 3 is INCORRECT: Schedule VI does NOT apply to Jharkhand. Jharkhand (along with other states with significant tribal populations like Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, etc.) is covered under the Fifth Schedule (Article 244(1)), which provides for Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes — a different mechanism from Schedule VI.
Since only statements 1 and 2 are correct, Option 1 (A) is the answer.

Static GK (5)

Dances · Folk dances by state

Q11. Which dance from Gujarat is performed with sticks during Navratri?

  1. (a) Garba
  2. (b) Dandiya Raas
  3. (c) Kolattam
  4. (d) Perini Shivatandavam
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Dandiya Raas

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Dandiya Raas
Dandiya Raas is the traditional stick dance of Gujarat performed during Navratri. Dancers use decorated sticks (dandiya) and perform rhythmic, coordinated movements in pairs or groups. It is also called 'The Sword Dance' as it originally depicted a mock fight between the goddess Durga and the demon Mahishasura.
Option 1 (Garba): Also from Gujarat and performed during Navratri, but Garba involves clapping, graceful hand movements, and circular patterns around a lamp/image — no sticks are used.
Option 3 ( Kolattam ): A stick dance from Andhra Pradesh/Tamil Nadu, performed by women; not from Gujarat.
Option 4 (Perini Shivatandavam ): A classical dance form from Telangana dedicated to Lord Shiva; not from Gujarat and not a Navratri festival dance.
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q12. Which of the following statements about Kho-Kho rules is correct?

  1. (a) A chaser may change direction only within free zones outside the poles
  2. (b) A runner is not out even if they step outside the playing area while escaping
  3. (c) The chasing team has all nine players sitting in the central lane during attack
  4. (d) Early kho is when the active chaser taps the runner after calling ' kho '
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) A chaser may change direction only within free zones outside the poles

Correct Answer: Option 1 – A chaser may change direction only within free zones outside the poles
In Kho-Kho, chasers are restricted in their movement: they can only change their running direction when they are within the free zones (the areas at both ends of the court, outside the poles). This rule prevents chasers from cutting across and chasing in all directions, ensuring the game follows its tactical structure.
Option 2 (Runner not out if outside area): Incorrect — a runner IS out if they step outside the playing area (boundary) while escaping, unless they are touched to go out.
Option 3 (All nine sitting in central lane): Incorrect — eight chasers sit in the central lane in alternate squares between the poles; one chaser is active and pursues runners. Not all nine sit simultaneously during active play.
Option 4 (Early kho definition): Incorrect — 'Early kho ' is when a chaser gives the kho BEFORE touching the sitting chaser, which is a foul. Tapping after calling ' kho ' is the normal/correct procedure.
Sports · Number of players and field dimensions

Q13. Consider the following statements about the squash court measurements and markings:
1) Short line: 4.26 m from back wall in singles, 4.57 m in doubles.
2) Tin: 48 cm high strip at front wall, like tennis net.
3) The half-court line and the short line essentially forms a L with the back wall as base.
Which of the statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1 and 2 are Correct
  2. (b) Only 2 and 3 are Correct
  3. (c) Only 1 and 3 are Correct
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3 are Correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1 and 2 are Correct

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Only 1 and 2 are Correct
Statement 1 is CORRECT: In squash, the short line is located at 4.26 m from the back wall in singles (5.49 m from the front wall), and 4.57 m from the back wall in doubles courts.
Statement 2 is CORRECT: The tin is a 48 cm (19 inch) high metal strip at the base of the front wall. Like the net in tennis, any ball striking the tin is considered out of play.
Statement 3 is INCORRECT: The half-court line and the short line form a T-shape (like the letter T), not an L. The short line runs across the full width of the court, and the half-court line bisects it perpendicularly from the front wall to the short line, creating a T at their intersection.
Since statements 1 and 2 are correct but 3 is not, Option 1 (A) is the answer.
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q14. Which initiative is linked to India–Bangladesh defence cooperation and involves maritime domain awareness using a radar-based system?

  1. (a) Joint Bangladesh–India Naval Command Centre in Chattogram
  2. (b) Indo-Bangla Coastal Defence Protocol (ICDP)
  3. (c) Coastal Surveillance Radar System MoU
  4. (d) Indo-Pacific Maritime Initiative Agreement
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Coastal Surveillance Radar System MoU

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Coastal Surveillance Radar System MoU
India and Bangladesh signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for the Coastal Surveillance Radar System (CSRS) as part of their defence and maritime cooperation. Under this initiative, India provides radar systems to Bangladesh to enhance maritime domain awareness in the Bay of Bengal, helping monitor ship movements and improve coastal security.
Option 1 (Joint Naval Command Centre): No such joint naval command centre exists between India and Bangladesh.
Option 2 (Indo-Bangla Coastal Defence Protocol): This specific named protocol is not the recognized initiative for the radar-based maritime cooperation.
Option 4 (Indo-Pacific Maritime Initiative Agreement): A broader regional concept; not the specific India-Bangladesh bilateral radar-based initiative.
Space, Defence and Technology · Indian space missions

Q15. Match the Aditya-L1 mission payloads with their corresponding measurement objectives:
1) VELC 2) SUIT 3) SoLEXS 4) ASPEX
A. UV Imaging B. X-ray Spectroscopy C. Solar Wind/Particles D. Corona Imaging

  1. (a) 1→UV imaging, 2→X-rays, 3→Particles, 4→Corona
  2. (b) 1→Corona, 2→Chromosphere, 3→X-rays, 4→Particles
  3. (c) 1→Corona imaging, 2→UV imaging, 3→X-rays, 4→Solar wind
  4. (d) 1→Corona imaging, 2→UV imaging, 3→Solar wind, 4→X-rays
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1→Corona imaging, 2→UV imaging, 3→X-rays, 4→Solar wind

Correct Answer: Option 3 – 1→Corona imaging, 2→UV imaging, 3→X-rays, 4→Solar wind
VELC (Visible Emission Line Coronagraph) → Corona Imaging: Studies the Sun's corona and solar wind by imaging the corona continuously.
SUIT (Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope) → UV Imaging: Images the solar photosphere and chromosphere in near-UV and UV wavelengths.
SoLEXS (Solar Low Energy X-ray Spectrometer) → X-ray Spectroscopy: Monitors solar X-ray flares for early warning of space weather events.
ASPEX (Aditya Solar wind Particle EXperiment ) → Solar Wind/Particles: Studies the solar wind and energetic ions.
Options A, B, D all incorrectly assign objectives and are therefore wrong.

Medieval History (2)

South Indian Kingdoms · Later Pandyas and Kerala

Q16. Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options:
Assertion (A): The murals in Tirumalaipuram and Sittanavasal caves are important surviving examples of Pandya art.
Reason (R): These murals are mainly found on the outer walls of temples and depict mythological war scenes.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false
  4. (d) Both A and R are false
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false

Correct Answer: Option 3 – A is true, but R is false
Assertion A is TRUE: The Sittanavasal cave (Pudukkottai, Tamil Nadu) and Tirumalaipuram caves contain important murals from the Pandya period (8th–10th century CE), representing a significant phase of South Indian painting.
Reason R is FALSE on two counts: (1) These murals are found on the CEILINGS and inner walls of the caves, not on 'outer walls of temples.' (2) The Sittanavasal murals depict scenes of a lotus pond with lotuses, fish, elephants, buffaloes, and human figures — they do NOT primarily depict 'mythological war scenes.' The content is more devotional/naturalistic.
Since A is true but R is false, Option 3 (C) is the correct answer.
Early Medieval North India · Rajput dynasties

Q17. Read the following statements:
1. After Harsha's death, the Rajputs rose to prominence in northern Indian politics.
2. The Rajputs maintained strong unity, which helped them resist foreign invasions effectively.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Only 1
Statement 1 is CORRECT: After the death of Emperor Harsha (647 CE), the political unity of northern India collapsed. In the subsequent power vacuum, various Rajput clans rose to political prominence and established powerful kingdoms across northern and central India (e.g., Gurjara-Pratiharas, Paramaras , Chandellas , Chahamanas ).
Statement 2 is INCORRECT: The Rajputs were historically marked by disunity rather than unity. Constant inter-clan rivalries, local conflicts, and the principle of individual clan honor over collective defense significantly weakened their collective resistance. This fragmentation made them vulnerable to the invasions of Mahmud of Ghazni (971–1030 CE) and later Muhammad Ghori (1175–1206 CE).
Since only Statement 1 is correct, Option 1 (A) is the answer.

Current Affairs (3)

International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q18. Which of the following statements about the 6th India–Bhutan Joint Group of Customs (JGC) Meeting (April 2025) is/are correct?
1) Bhutan's top trade partner is India, with trade primarily via maritime ports in West Bengal and Assam.
2) The meeting discussed automation, cross-border data exchange, and electronic cargo tracking.
3) India proposed capacity-building in Risk Management Systems and AEO certification for Bhutan.

  1. (a) 1 and 2 only
  2. (b) 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 1 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3 all are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Statements 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 is INCORRECT: While India is indeed Bhutan's top trade partner, trade between India and Bhutan is conducted primarily through LAND routes (overland border crossings in Assam and West Bengal), NOT through maritime ports. Bhutan is a landlocked country with no sea access.
Statement 2 is CORRECT: The 6th India-Bhutan JGC Meeting (April 2025) discussed modernization topics including customs automation, cross-border data exchange, and electronic cargo tracking to streamline bilateral trade.
Statement 3 is CORRECT: India proposed extending capacity-building support to Bhutan in the areas of Risk Management Systems (used for customs screening) and Authorized Economic Operator (AEO) certification, which facilitates trade by pre-approving reliable traders.
Since only statements 2 and 3 are correct, Option 2 (B) is the answer.
Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Books released

Q19. Which of the following statements best describes 'The Adventures of Padma and a Blue Dinosaur' by Vaishali Shroff?

  1. (a) Imaginative children's book blending fantasy and science
  2. (b) Historical novel on India's prehistoric era
  3. (c) Scientific textbook on paleontology
  4. (d) Memoir on dinosaur fossil digs
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Imaginative children's book blending fantasy and science

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Imaginative children's book blending fantasy and science
'The Adventures of Padma and a Blue Dinosaur' by Vaishali Shroff is an imaginative children's book that blends fantasy storytelling with elements of science (particularly paleontology and natural history). It features a young girl named Padma who embarks on adventures with a friendly dinosaur, making science engaging and accessible for young readers.
Option 2 (Historical novel on prehistoric era): It is a children's fantasy book, not a historical novel with academic intent.
Option 3 (Scientific textbook on paleontology): It is a creative children's story, not a scientific textbook.
Option 4 (Memoir on fossil digs): The book is a fictional narrative, not a memoir of real fossil excavation experiences.
Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q20. Who among the following received the 2025 Padma Bhushan for excellence in sports?

  1. (a) Dhanraj Pillay
  2. (b) P. R. Sreejesh
  3. (c) Mary Kom
  4. (d) Virat Kohli
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) P. R. Sreejesh

Correct Answer: Option 2 – P. R. Sreejesh
P. R. Sreejesh, the legendary Indian hockey goalkeeper, was awarded the Padma Bhushan in 2025 for his outstanding contribution to Indian hockey. He retired after the 2024 Paris Olympics where India won the Bronze medal, and was also appointed as the head coach of the Indian junior hockey team. He is one of India's greatest goalkeepers in hockey history.
Option 1 (Dhanraj Pillay): The former Indian hockey captain received the Padma Shri (2000) and Padma Bhushan (2014) in earlier years.
Option 3 (Mary Kom): The boxing legend received the Padma Bhushan in 2013; not in 2025.
Option 4 (Virat Kohli): The cricket star received the Padma Shri in 2017; not the 2025 Padma Bhushan awardee for sports.

Geography (2)

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Peninsular plateau and hills

Q21. Read the statements given below carefully:
Statement 1: The Deccan Trap region of the Peninsular Plateau is covered with black soil derived from igneous rocks.
Statement 2: The Aravalli Hills are newly formed folded mountains stretching from Gujarat to Delhi.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Only 1
Statement 1 is CORRECT: The Deccan Trap region is covered with regur (black cotton soil), which is derived from the weathering of basaltic lava rocks (igneous rocks) that formed the Deccan Plateau millions of years ago. This soil is highly fertile and retains moisture well, making it ideal for cotton cultivation.
Statement 2 is INCORRECT: The Aravalli Hills are among the OLDEST fold mountains in the world (Pre-Cambrian era, approximately 1.5–2.5 billion years old), not 'newly formed.' They have been so heavily eroded over time that they now appear as low, discontinuous ridges. They stretch from Gujarat ( Palanpur ) through Rajasthan to Delhi.
Since only Statement 1 is correct, Option 1 (A) is the answer.
Universe and Solar System · Planets and their features

Q22. Regarding solar system planets:
1. All Jovian planets have solid surfaces.
2. Uranus's axis of rotation is nearly parallel to its orbit.
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Statement 1 only
  2. (b) Statement 2 only
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Statement 2 only

Only statement 2 is correct.
Explanation
❌Statement 1 is incorrect: Jovian planets (Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune) are gas and ice giants. They are primarily made of hydrogen, helium, and other volatile elements andlack a defined solid surface. A spacecraft would find no solid ground to land on; instead, it would sink through increasingly dense layers of gas and liquid. Only terrestrial planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars) have solid surfaces.
✅Statement 2 is correct: Uranus is completely unique in our solar system because its axis of rotation is tilted at an extreme angle of97.77 degrees. This means its axis of rotation liesnearly parallel to its orbital plane. Essentially, Uranus rotates while virtually lying on its side as it journeys around the Sun
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