SSC Selection Post 2025 25 July 2025 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Substitute goods
The Law of Demand states that as price rises, quantity demanded falls (inverse relationship). Exceptions are goods where demand rises with price. Substitute goods (e.g., tea and coffee) are NOT an exception — they follow the law normally: if the price of tea rises, demand for tea falls and demand for its substitute (coffee) rises. They do not violate the law of demand for the individual good.
Option 1 (Giffen goods): A Giffen good is an exception — as price rises, demand also rises (e.g., bread for the very poor who must buy even more when price rises). Named after Sir Robert Giffen.
Option 2 (Conspicuous goods/Veblen goods): Goods consumed to display wealth/status (luxury items). As price rises, their demand increases (a higher price signals higher status).
Option 3 (Speculative goods): When prices of certain goods (e.g., gold, stock) rise, buyers may purchase more expecting further price rises — violating the law of demand.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Making them easier to obtain
A key modern trend globally and in India is the simplification and ease of business licensing as part of the 'Ease of Doing Business' initiative. India's reforms include single-window clearances, online applications, automatic license renewals, self-certification, and removal of unnecessary licenses. The World Bank's Ease of Doing Business Index and India's Business Reform Action Plan have both pushed for making licenses easier and faster to obtain, reducing regulatory burden on businesses.
Option 1 (Increasing time): The opposite of the modern trend; governments aim to reduce processing time.
Option 2 (Removing altogether): While some obsolete licenses are abolished, licenses for safety, health, and regulated sectors remain necessary; the trend is simplification, not wholesale removal.
Option 4 (Making impossible): Contrary to modern reform trends; the entire push is toward ease, not obstruction.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Urban (PMAY-U)
PMAY-Urban, launched in June 2015 with the goal of 'Housing for All' by 2022, aims to provide affordable housing to the urban poor including Economically Weaker Sections (EWS), Low Income Groups (LIG), and Middle Income Groups (MIG) through subsidized home loans (Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme), in-situ slum redevelopment, and construction of new pucca houses.
Option 1 (AMRUT): Focuses on upgrading urban infrastructure (water supply, sewerage, parks, transportation) in cities; not primarily a housing scheme.
Option 3 (Smart Cities Mission): Aims to develop 100 'smart cities' with advanced urban infrastructure and digital services; not specifically affordable housing for the poor.
Option 4 (DAY-NULM): Focuses on urban poverty alleviation through self-employment, skill training, and social mobilization of urban poor into Self-Help Groups; not housing.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Sixth
The National Rural Employment Programme (NREP) was launched in October 1980, at the beginning of the Sixth Five-Year Plan (1980–85) under the Indira Gandhi government. NREP aimed to provide additional gainful employment to the rural poor during lean agricultural seasons through creation of durable community assets. It merged with the Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme (RLEGP) in 1989 to form the Jawahar Rozgar Yojana.
Option 1 (Fifth): The Fifth Plan (1974–79) had other employment schemes like SFDA and MFAL; NREP was not launched then.
Option 3 (Seventh): The Seventh Plan (1985–90) saw NREP continuing but it was not initiated during this period.
Option 4 (Eighth): The Eighth Plan (1992–97) was after NREP had already been merged into JRY.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Goods and Services Tax (GST)
Goods and Services Tax (GST), implemented in India on July 1, 2017, is officially described as the 'One Nation, One Tax' reform. It replaced a complex web of over 17 indirect taxes and 23 cesses (including Central Excise Duty, Service Tax, VAT, CST, Entertainment Tax) with a unified tax structure applicable across India. GST is a destination-based, multi-stage tax collected at each stage of the supply chain, with a seamless input tax credit mechanism.
Option 1 (Income Tax): A direct tax on individual/corporate income; was already a unified national tax before GST and is not associated with the 'One Nation, One Tax' slogan.
Option 2 (Corporate Tax): Another direct tax; also already national in scope and not the 'One Nation, One Tax' initiative.
Option 4 (Import Duties): Customs/import duties are levied by the central government; GST replaced domestic indirect taxes, not import duties, which continue separately.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Sending Indian astronauts into low-Earth orbit
Gaganyaan is India's first human spaceflight programme by ISRO. Its objective is to demonstrate India's human spaceflight capability by sending a crew of Indian astronauts ( Gaganauts ) to low-Earth orbit (LEO) at approximately 400 km altitude for 3 days, and safely returning them to Earth. It will make India only the fourth nation (after Russia/USSR, USA, and China) to independently conduct a crewed space mission.
Option 1 (Permanent space station): India has plans for a space station ( Bharatiya Antariksha Station) by 2035, but Gaganyaan itself is not for establishing a permanent station.
Option 3 (Unmanned rover to Moon): Lunar rover missions are under Chandrayaan programme ; Gaganyaan is a human orbital mission.
Option 4 (Solar probe): India's solar mission is Aditya-L1 (launched 2023); not related to Gaganyaan .

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Theyyam
Theyyam (also spelled Teyyam ) is a ritualistic folk art form from northern Kerala (Malabar coast), performed as a form of worship involving elaborate costumes, face paint, and headdresses. The performer embodies a deity or ancestral spirit. It is an ancient performing art associated with the communities of northern Kerala (Kannur and Kasaragod districts).
Option 2 ( Dhol Cholom): A traditional folk dance of Manipur, performed with drums ( dhol ); not from Kerala.
Option 3 ( Giddha ): A traditional folk dance of women from Punjab; performed at festivals and social gatherings.
Option 4 (Bhangra): A vibrant folk dance from Punjab, traditionally associated with the harvest festival Baisakhi; not from Kerala.

The correct answer isThe raider fails to chant "Kabaddi" during the raid.
Explanation of the Correct Option
🎯The raider fails to chant "Kabaddi" during the raid: In Kabaddi, maintaining a continuous, clear, and audible chant of the word "Kabaddi" in a single breath is known as the"Cant". If a raider loses their breath, takes a second breath, or stops chanting while in the opponent's territory, the umpire declares the raider out. This rule immediately terminates the raid andawards 1 point to the defending team.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Neighbourhood First offers non-reciprocal aid in South Asia; Act East builds strategic ties in Southeast Asia
India's ' Neighbourhood First' policy focuses on immediate neighbors (Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan, Sri Lanka, Maldives, Myanmar, Afghanistan) through non-reciprocal development aid, connectivity projects, and people-to-people ties — prioritizing goodwill without demanding equivalent returns (e.g., power grid connectivity, water projects, COVID vaccines).
India's 'Act East' policy (formerly Look East, relaunched 2014) focuses on building strategic, economic, and cultural ties with ASEAN and the broader Indo-Pacific region — covering trade agreements, defence partnerships, connectivity (Trilateral Highway), and multilateral cooperation (ASEAN, East Asia Summit, Quad).
Option 1: The roles are reversed in this option; Neighbourhood First covers South Asia (not ASEAN security), and Act East covers Southeast Asia.
Option 3: Both policies are broader than infrastructure only; Neighbourhood First is not limited to BIMSTEC and Act East covers more than BIMSTEC and QUAD.
Option 4: The descriptions are reversed and inaccurate.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Only 1 and 2
Statement 1 (TRUE): During Maldivian President Ibrahim Mohamed Solih's state visit to India in December 2018, India announced a comprehensive financial assistance package of USD 1.4 billion (combination of grants, currency swap, and lines of credit) to support the Maldives' development — the largest-ever package from India to Maldives.
Statement 2 (TRUE): The 6th India-Maldives Joint Commission Meeting held in 2019 included the signing of MoUs in various areas including cooperation between the Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs) of both countries for anti-money laundering and counter-terrorism financing cooperation.
Statement 3 (FALSE): The specific claim that India and Maldives signed a climate risk insurance agreement in 2020 for island territories is not substantiated by official records of the bilateral relationship. No such specific agreement is on record for 2020.
Therefore, only Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – A is true, but R is false
Assertion (A) is TRUE: 'India: A Million Mutinies Now' (1990) by V.S. Naipaul does indeed present a vivid account of diverse social, cultural, political, and religious upheavals across India during the late 20th century through personal interviews and travels across India.
Reason (R) is FALSE: The book 'India: A Million Mutinies Now' did NOT win the Booker Prize. V.S. Naipaul's Booker Prize was for his novel 'In a Free State' (1971). Naipaul won the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2001, but 'India: A Million Mutinies Now' specifically won no Booker Prize. It is a work of nonfiction/travel writing and is ineligible for the Booker (which recognizes fiction).
Since A is true but R is false, the correct answer is Option 3 (C).

Correct Answer: Option 3 – When a bullet is fired from a gun, the gun recoils in the opposite direction
Conservation of momentum states that in the absence of external forces, the total momentum of a system remains constant. When a bullet is fired, the gun-bullet system has zero initial momentum. After firing: the bullet moves forward with momentum (mv) and the gun recoils backward with equal and opposite momentum (-MV), so total momentum remains zero. This is a classic demonstration of Newton's Third Law and conservation of momentum.
Option 1 (Ball on frictionless incline): This illustrates conservation of energy (potential → kinetic) and Newton's Second Law; not primarily momentum conservation.
Option 2 (Car braking): Friction is an external force acting on the car, decelerating it. External forces are present, so this does NOT illustrate conservation of momentum.
Option 4 (Satellite orbit): Maintained by gravitational force (centripetal); illustrates circular motion and gravitational forces, not conservation of momentum.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – 1-Anemometer, 2-Hygrometer, 3-Barometer
Wind Speed → Anemometer: An anemometer measures wind speed (and sometimes direction). The cup anemometer (three or four cups rotating on a vertical axis) is the most common type; wind speed is calculated from the rotation rate.
Humidity → Hygrometer: A hygrometer measures atmospheric humidity (the amount of water vapour in the air). Types include wet-and-dry-bulb hygrometers (psychrometers), hair hygrometers, and electronic humidity sensors.
Atmospheric Pressure → Barometer: A barometer measures atmospheric (air) pressure. The mercury barometer (Torricelli) and aneroid barometer are the two common types; barometric readings are used in weather forecasting.
Option 1 (Hygrometer-Barometer-Anemometer): Incorrect assignment for all three.
Option 2 (Barometer-Anemometer-Hygrometer): Incorrect — swaps the instruments for wind speed and humidity.
Option 4 (Hygrometer-Anemometer-Barometer): Only atmospheric pressure (3-Barometer) is correct; wind speed and humidity are swapped.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Systemin
Systemin is an 18-amino acid peptide hormone first discovered in tomato (Solanum lycopersicum ) by Clarence Ryan and Gregory Pearce in 1991. It is the first plant peptide hormone identified that functions as a systemic wound signal — released from damaged cells when a herbivore chews the plant, it travels through the phloem to activate defense gene expression throughout the plant, triggering production of protease inhibitors that deter further herbivory.
Option 2 (Ricin): A highly toxic protein found in castor bean (Ricinus communis); it is a lectin/toxin, not a wound-response peptide in tomatoes.
Option 3 ( Jasmonic acid): A plant hormone involved in wound response signaling, but it is a lipid-derived compound (not a peptide); its synthesis is triggered downstream of systemin signaling.
Option 4 ( Saicyclic acid/Salicylic acid): A plant hormone involved in systemic acquired resistance; not the first peptide produced after wounding.

Correct Answer: Option 4 – 1, 2, 3 and 4
All four products are part of India's petrochemical industry, which is a downstream sector of the oil and gas industry using hydrocarbons (ethylene, propylene, benzene, etc.) as feedstock:
1. Polymers: Plastics, PET, polypropylene, polyethylene — core petrochemical products used in packaging, construction, automotive industries.
2. Synthetic fibres : Polyester, nylon, acrylic — produced from petrochemical intermediates like ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid.
3. Elastomers: Synthetic rubbers (SBR, NBR, EPDM) — petrochemical-derived materials for tires, seals, and automotive applications.
4. Surfactant intermediates: Linear alkylbenzene (LAB) and other intermediates for detergents/surfactants — derived from petroleum-based chemicals.
India's Petroleum, Chemicals and Petrochemicals Investment Region (PCPIR) policy covers all these product categories.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Sinuous ridges from subglacial meltwater deposition
Eskers are long, sinuous (winding) ridges of stratified sand and gravel formed by the deposition of sediment from meltwater streams that flowed through tunnels beneath a glacier (subglacial streams) or within the glacier (englacial). As the glacier retreated, these sediment-filled channels were left as ridges on the landscape. Eskers can be several kilometers long and are characteristic features of glaciated terrain in Canada, Scandinavia, and northern Europe.
Option 1 (Ridges carved by ice cutting bedrock): This describes roches moutonnées or glacial striations — erosional features, not depositional ridges like eskers.
Option 2 (Till ridges under stagnant ice): Till is unsorted glacial debris; deposits under stagnant ice form features like drumlins or ground moraine, not the sorted, stratified sand-gravel ridges of eskers.
Option 4 (Hills shaped by ice pushing sediments): This describes moraines (terminal, lateral, push moraines) formed by glacial bulldozing; eskers are formed by water deposition, not ice pushing.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Both 1 and 2 are correct
Statement 1 is TRUE: Rural-to-urban migration is indeed a major contributor to urban growth in India. According to the 2011 Census and NSSO surveys, migration accounts for a significant portion of urban population growth, alongside natural increase. Urban areas grew faster in states with higher migration rates.
Statement 2 is TRUE: Better employment opportunities (higher wages, diverse job markets), superior education facilities (universities, schools), healthcare access, and higher living standards are well-documented 'pull factors' that attract rural migrants to cities. This is a foundational principle of migration theory (Lewis Model, Todaro Model).
Since both statements are factually correct, Option 3 (Both 1 and 2 are correct) is the answer.
Option 1 (Only 1): Both statements are correct, not just Statement 1.
Option 2 (Only 2): Both statements are correct, not just Statement 2.
Option 4 (Neither): Both statements are well-established facts.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
Under the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law, added by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment, 1985) of the Indian Constitution, the Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) is the decision-making authority for disqualification of members of the State Legislature on grounds of defection. Similarly, the Chairman decides for Rajya Sabha/Legislative Council members, and the Speaker of Lok Sabha for Parliament members.
Option 1 (Chief Justice of High Court): Has no role in Anti-Defection proceedings; judicial review of the Speaker's decision is possible but courts generally defer to the Speaker.
Option 3 (Election Commission): Decides disqualifications under Article 103 (for Parliament) and 192 (for State Legislatures) on grounds of disqualifications at time of election (not defection).
Option 4 (Governor): Decides disqualification of State Legislature members under Article 192 on the Election Commission's opinion, but NOT for defection cases.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
Article 50: Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive (a Directive Principle of State Policy under Part IV). It directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in public services. Match: A-2.
Article 131: Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. It gives the SC exclusive original jurisdiction in disputes between the Government of India and one or more states, or between two or more states. Match: B-1.
Article 312: Creation of All India Services. It empowers the Rajya Sabha, by a resolution supported by 2/3 of members present and voting, to create new All India Services common to the Union and the States (e.g., IAS, IPS, IFoS ). Match: C-3.
Article 263: Inter-State Council. It empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council to inquire into and advise on disputes, and facilitate coordination between states and the Union. Match: D-4.
Correct matching: A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 = Option 1.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Raziyya – Ruled for 4 years
Raziyya Sultan (Razia Sultana) ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1236 to 1240, approximately 4 years (actually about 3.5 years). She was the first and only woman to rule the Delhi Sultanate. The pairing of Raziyya with ~4 years is the correctly matched option.
Option 1 (Muhammad Tughluq – 15 years): Incorrect. Muhammad bin Tughluq ruled from 1325 to 1351, approximately 26 years.
Option 3 (Alauddin Khalji – 10 years): Incorrect. Alauddin Khalji ruled from 1296 to 1316, approximately 20 years.
Option 4 ( Ghiyasuddin Balban – 35 years): Incorrect. Ghiyasuddin Balban ruled from 1266 to 1287, approximately 21 years.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – The Indian mixed relay team defended its title with only one member returning from the 2023 team
At the Asian Athletics Championships 2025 held in Gumi, South Korea, India had a strong performance. The Indian mixed 4×400m relay team successfully defended its title from the 2023 edition, with only one team member (from 2023) in the squad — demonstrating India's depth in relay athletics.
Option 1 (India topped with 24 medals): India did perform well but topping the tally with exactly 24 medals including nine golds is not the accurately cited figure for this championship.
Option 2 (Rupal Chaudhary gold in 5000m): Rupal Chaudhary competes in sprint/400m events; a gold in the women's 5000m is not consistent with her event profile.
Option 4 (Avinash Sable silver, 36-year drought): Avinash Sable is the 3000m steeplechase specialist; while he has won medals at Asian Athletics events, the specific claim of 'silver' and '36-year medal drought' does not accurately describe this 2025 event's results.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Literature and Education
Anil Kumar Boro, a distinguished Bodo-language writer and educationist from Assam, was awarded the Padma Shri in 2025 in the field of Literature and Education. He has made significant contributions to Bodo literature, promotion of the Bodo language and script, and education of tribal communities in Assam. His work includes novels, poetry, and literary contributions to preserving and promoting the Bodo language.
Option 1 (Medicine and Healthcare): Anil Kumar Boro's contributions are in literature and education, not medical sciences.
Option 3 (Social Service): While his literary work benefits the community, his Padma Shri citation is specifically for Literature and Education.
Option 4 (Science and Engineering): Not his domain of contribution.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Only 1
Statement 1 (TRUE): According to India's State of Environment Report 2024 (by Centre for Science and Environment), the energy sector is the top contributor to India's greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions, accounting for a substantial share of total emissions through electricity generation, transportation, and industry.
Statement 2 (FALSE): India's per capita GHG emissions are significantly LOWER than the global average. India's per capita CO₂ equivalent emissions (~2.0–2.5 tCO₂e /year) are well below the global average (~6–7 tCO₂e /year) and far below developed nations like the USA (~18 tCO₂e ) or Australia (~22 tCO₂e ). India consistently uses this as its equity argument in climate negotiations.
Statement 3 (FALSE): India typically ranks very poorly on the Environmental Performance Index (EPI) — India ranked 176th out of 180 countries in the EPI 2022 (Yale University). India is NOT among the top 10 countries; it is consistently near the bottom of the EPI rankings.
Therefore, only Statement 1 is correct.