SSC Selection Post 2025 25 July 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Option 2 – 1, 2, and 4 only
Statement 1 (TRUE): The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 applies to all judicial proceedings, including Courts-martial, but explicitly excludes affidavits and arbitration proceedings.
Statement 2 (TRUE): BSA significantly expanded the definition of 'Document' to include electronic records such as emails, server logs, smartphone messages, locational evidence, and digital data, reflecting modern evidentiary realities.
Statement 3 (FALSE): Confessions made to police officers are NOT admissible under BSA (just as they were inadmissible under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872). A confession to a police officer is admissible only to the extent that it leads to discovery of facts. This protection against self-incrimination is preserved in BSA.
Statement 4 (TRUE): The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is repealed by BSA, 2023. However, pending cases initiated before BSA's commencement continue to be governed by the old Evidence Act.
Since Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct, Option 2 is the answer.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Justice B.V. Nagarathna
Justice B.V. Nagarathna (daughter of former CJI E.S. Venkataramaiah ) is set to become India's first woman Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. Based on the seniority convention for CJI appointment, she is in line to become CJI in 2027. She was elevated to the Supreme Court in August 2021.
Option 1 (Justice Anita Sumanth): A judge of the Madras High Court; not a Supreme Court judge in line for CJI.
Option 3 (Justice Sangeeta Chandra): Chief Justice of Allahabad High Court; not in line for Supreme Court CJI.
Option 4 (Justice R. Hemalatha): A judge of the Madras High Court; not in line to be CJI.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – 12
Under Article 80(1)(a) and 80(3) of the Indian Constitution, the President of India nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha. These members are nominated from persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, and social service. The total strength of the Rajya Sabha is 250 — 238 elected and 12 nominated.
Option 1 (2): Incorrect; the President nominates 12 members, not 2.
Option 2 (10): Incorrect; 10 is not the constitutionally prescribed number.
Option 4 (15): Incorrect; 15 exceeds the prescribed number of 12.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Willfully acting against a constitutional provision
Under Article 61 of the Indian Constitution, the President can be impeached only for 'violation of the Constitution.' The impeachment process is initiated by either House of Parliament with a 14-day notice, passed by a special majority (2/3 of total membership of the initiating house), and then investigated by the other house. 'Willfully acting against a constitutional provision' constitutes a violation of the Constitution and is the valid ground for impeachment.
Option 1 (Refusing to dissolve Lok Sabha): The President acts on the advice of the Cabinet (Article 74); such a refusal may be a constitutional issue, but the specific ground for impeachment must be a direct violation of the Constitution.
Option 2 (Declining to sign a bill): The President has limited powers regarding bills; declining to sign could be a constitutional matter, but 'willfully acting against a constitutional provision' is the precise legal ground.
Option 4 (Not addressing the nation): Addressing the nation on Independence Day is a convention, not a constitutional obligation; failing to do so is NOT a ground for impeachment.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – airglow and atmospheric dust
India's Venus Orbiter Mission (VOM), also called Shukrayaan-1, is planned by ISRO to study Venus's atmosphere, surface, and near-space environment. Key scientific objectives include studying the Venusian atmosphere (clouds, winds, airglow), atmospheric dust, surface topography using SAR (Synthetic Aperture Radar), sub-surface features, and the interaction of Venus with the solar wind.
Option 1 (Magnetic field): Venus has no intrinsic magnetic field; while its induced magnetosphere may be studied, this is not the primary stated objective involving 'surface topography.'
Option 3 (Asteroid belt): The asteroid belt is between Mars and Jupiter; VOM is a Venus mission, not an asteroid mission.
Option 4 (Temperature): Temperature data may be collected, but the specific pairing with 'surface topography' in the mission objectives refers to airglow and atmospheric dust.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Lords of the Deccan
'Lords of the Deccan: Southern India from the Chalukyas to the Cholas' by Anirudh Kanisetti (published 2022) explores the history of Southern India from approximately 550–1200 CE, covering powerful dynasties like the Chalukyas , Rashtrakutas, and Cholas. The book was awarded the Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar (Young Writers' Award) for its scholarly yet accessible narrative on a less-documented period of Indian history.
Option 1 (India After Gandhi): Written by Ramachandra Guha; not by Anirudh Kanisetti.
Option 2 (The Anarchy): Written by William Dalrymple about the East India Company; not by Kanisetti.
Option 4 (The Argumentative Indian): Written by Amartya Sen; not by Kanisetti.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Saudi Arabia and UAE
The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC), announced at the G20 Summit in New Delhi (September 2023), specifically features Saudi Arabia and the UAE as the two Middle Eastern anchor nations. The corridor connects India → UAE → Saudi Arabia → Jordan → Israel → Greece/Italy → Europe. Both Saudi Arabia and the UAE are India's key partners for clean energy (green hydrogen, solar) and trade dialogues within IMEC's framework.
Option 1 (Iraq and Iran): Neither is part of the IMEC corridor.
Option 2 (Oman and Qatar): Not the primary IMEC Middle Eastern nations, though India has bilateral relations with both.
Option 4 (Jordan and Bahrain): Jordan is a transit country in IMEC but not specifically highlighted in clean energy dialogues; Bahrain is not a primary IMEC member.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Report Anti-Doping Rule Violations confidentially
The 'Speak Up!' portal, launched by the National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA) India, is a confidential whistleblower platform that allows athletes, coaches, support staff, and others to report Anti-Doping Rule Violations (ADRVs) anonymously. It enables reporting of doping practices, illegal substance use, and related violations in Indian sports without fear of retaliation, thereby supporting NADA's clean sport mandate.
Option 1 (Event participation reports): This is handled through sports federation platforms, not the Speak Up portal.
Option 3 (Therapeutic Use Exemptions): TUEs (permitting athletes to use otherwise banned medications for medical reasons) are applied for through a separate TUE Committee process.
Option 4 (Olympic qualification registration): Handled by national sports federations and the Indian Olympic Association; not NADA's portal.

The correct answer isAtonement.
Shab-e-Barat is widely translated as the "Night of Atonement" (or the "Night of Forgiveness"). During this significant Islamic observance on the 15th night of Sha'ban, believers seek divine mercy, repent for past sins, and pray for their destiny and fortune for the coming year.
For context on other terms:
Powerrefers toLaylat al-Qadr(the Night of Power).
Revelationalso generally refers toLaylat al-Qadr, marking when the Qur'an was first revealed

Correct Answer: Option 1 – a–ii, b– i , c–iii, d–iv
FIH Odisha Hockey Men's World Cup 2023 → Bhubaneswar and Rourkela (Odisha). The 15th edition of the FIH Men's Hockey World Cup was held in January 2023 at the Birsa Munda Hockey Stadium, Rourkela and the Kalinga Stadium, Bhubaneswar. Match: A–ii.
MotoGP Bharat 2023 → Buddha International Circuit, Greater Noida (UP). India's first MotoGP race was held in September 2023 at the Buddha International Circuit. Match: B– i .
IBA Women's World Boxing Championship 2023 → New Delhi. The 13th IBA Women's World Boxing Championships were held in March 2023 in New Delhi. Match: C–iii.
IOC Session (141st) 2023 → Mumbai. The 141st International Olympic Committee Session was held in Mumbai in October 2023, during which the 2036 Summer Olympics host was discussed. Match: D–iv.
Correct matching: A–ii, B– i , C–iii, D–iv = Option 1.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – 1997
BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) was established on June 6, 1997, in Bangkok, Thailand, initially as BIST-EC (Bangladesh-India-Sri Lanka-Thailand Economic Cooperation). It was renamed BIMSTEC in 1997 when Myanmar joined, and Nepal and Bhutan joined in 2004. Current members: Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Nepal, and Bhutan.
Option 2 (1995): BIMSTEC was not established in 1995; 1997 is the correct founding year.
Option 3 (2000): Not the founding year; some restructuring occurred, but BIMSTEC was already established by 1997.
Option 4 (2004): This is when Nepal and Bhutan joined, not the founding year.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – China
SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation) has 8 member states: India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Nepal, Bhutan, Maldives, and Afghanistan (joined in 2007). China is NOT a SAARC member; it has observer status (along with USA, EU, Japan, South Korea, Australia, Iran, and Myanmar) but is not a full member.
Option 1 (Afghanistan): A full SAARC member since 2007.
Option 2 (Bhutan): A founding member of SAARC (1985).
Option 4 (Nepal): A founding member of SAARC (1985).

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Rehabilitation services, education, and research
NIRTAR (National Institute of Rehabilitation, Training and Research), located in Cuttack, Odisha, is an autonomous institute under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. It provides comprehensive services for persons with disabilities including rehabilitation (physical, vocational, and social), special education, skills training, prosthetics and orthotics services, and conducts research in the field of disability and rehabilitation medicine.
Option 1 (Agricultural training): NIRTAR focuses on disability rehabilitation, not agricultural training.
Option 3 (Industrial development programs): Industrial development falls under MSME and commerce ministries; not NIRTAR's mandate.
Option 4 (Financial assistance for startups): Startup funding is handled by agencies like Startup India and SIDBI; not NIRTAR.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Ninth
The Ninth Mandal of the Rigveda, known as the 'Soma Mandal' or ' Pavamana Mandal,' is entirely devoted to hymns in praise of Soma — the sacred ritual drink of the Vedic people. All 114 hymns in the Ninth Mandal are addressed to Soma Pavamana (the purified/flowing Soma). Soma was a plant-derived ritual beverage believed to grant divine inspiration and immortality.
Option 1 (Seventh): The Seventh Mandal is associated with Rishi Vasishtha and contains hymns to Indra, Varuna, Mitra, and other deities.
Option 3 (Eleventh): The Rigveda has only 10 Mandalas; the Eleventh Mandal does not exist.
Option 4 (Thirteenth): Similarly, the Thirteenth Mandal does not exist in the Rigveda.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Tribe or a group of related families
In the Rig Vedic period, 'Jana' referred to a tribe or a group of related families/clans who shared a common ancestry, culture, and chief (Raja). The Rigveda mentions five major tribes ( Panchjana ): Anus, Druhyus , Yadus , Turvashas , and Purus. The term 'Jana' was the basic socio-political unit of Vedic society, equivalent to a tribal confederation.
Option 1 (Large kingdom or empire): This would correspond to later concepts like 'Rashtra' or ' Samrajya '; 'Jana' in the Rig Vedic period denoted a tribal unit, not a large kingdom.
Option 3 (Village unit): The village unit in Vedic society was the 'Grama'; 'Jana' was a larger tribal grouping.
Option 4 (Professional guild): Professional guilds ('Shreni') emerged in the later Vedic/early historical period; 'Jana' in the Rigveda refers to tribal identity, not professional organization.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – To stimulate economic growth
Deficit financing refers to the government spending more than its revenues, financing the gap by borrowing or printing money. The major objective is to stimulate economic growth — especially in developing countries — by funding infrastructure, public services, employment generation, and capital formation that would otherwise not occur due to lack of funds. It is a key tool of Keynesian fiscal policy during recessions or low-growth phases.
Option 1 (To reduce inflation): Deficit financing actually tends to increase inflation (more money in the economy chasing the same goods); it does not aim to reduce inflation.
Option 2 (To control black money): Controlling black money involves demonetization, taxation reforms, and anti-corruption measures — not deficit financing.
Option 4 (To decrease the money supply): Deficit financing increases money supply; decreasing money supply is achieved through contractionary monetary policy by the RBI.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Power tariff hikes and power cuts that reduced worker wages
The ' Siricilla Tragedy' refers to a wave of suicides by powerloom workers in Siricilla (in present-day Telangana, then Andhra Pradesh) in the late 1990s and early 2000s. The primary cause was severe power tariff hikes and frequent power cuts imposed by the government, which drastically reduced the working hours and consequently the wages of powerloom workers who were paid by the amount of cloth woven. Unable to meet daily expenses and repay debts, dozens of workers died by suicide.
Option 1 (Migration to urban areas): Not the cause; the workers were already in Siricilla and did not migrate.
Option 2 (Lack of export opportunities): Not the primary cited cause; the crisis was due to power supply issues affecting production.
Option 4 (Chinese competition): While Chinese textile imports affected the broader Indian textile sector, the specific Siricilla tragedy was directly linked to the local power crisis.

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN)
PM-KISAN, launched in February 2019, provides direct income support of ₹6,000 per year (in three instalments of ₹2,000 each) to eligible farmer families. This assured income support helps small and marginal farmers meet expenses related to agricultural inputs and household needs, and is transferred directly to bank accounts via DBT.
Option 1 (PM Fasal Bima Yojana): A crop insurance scheme providing financial support against crop losses due to natural calamities, pests, and diseases — not direct income support.
Option 2 ( Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana): Promotes organic farming through cluster-based approaches; not an income support scheme.
Option 3 (PM Krishi Sinchayee Yojana): Focuses on irrigation infrastructure — 'Har Khet Ko Pani, More Crop Per Drop'; not a direct income support scheme.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Protein synthesis
Ribosomes are cellular organelles (composed of rRNA and proteins) that serve as the site of protein synthesis. They translate the genetic information from mRNA (messenger RNA) into a specific sequence of amino acids, forming polypeptide chains (proteins). Ribosomes can be free in the cytoplasm or attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum. They are present in all living cells — both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
Option 1 (Energy production): Energy (ATP) is produced by mitochondria through cellular respiration; not ribosomes.
Option 3 (Cell division): Cell division involves the nucleus, centrioles, and spindle fibers; ribosomes have no direct role.
Option 4 (Transport of substances): Transport of substances is carried out by the cell membrane, vesicles, and endoplasmic reticulum; not ribosomes.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – The stone experiences a constant acceleration directed towards the centre of the circle
In uniform circular motion, the speed is constant but the direction of velocity continuously changes. Since velocity (a vector) changes direction, there IS acceleration — called centripetal acceleration — directed towards the centre of the circular path. The magnitude of centripetal acceleration = v²/r (constant, since v and r are constant), but its direction continuously changes as the stone moves around the circle.
Option 1 (Zero acceleration): Incorrect. Although speed is constant, the change in direction of velocity means acceleration exists (centripetal acceleration).
Option 2 (Direction unchanged): Incorrect. In circular motion, the direction of velocity (tangent to the circle) continuously changes at every point.
Option 4 (Non-uniform speed): Incorrect. In uniform circular motion, speed is constant (only direction changes); the motion is uniform in terms of speed.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – PM₁₀ and PM₂.₅
The WHO Ambient Air Quality Database tracks ground-level measurements of particulate matter: PM₁₀ (particles ≤10 micrometres in diameter) and PM₂.₅ (fine particles ≤2.5 micrometres ). These are the most harmful air pollutants tracked globally for public health purposes. The database covers thousands of cities worldwide and is used to assess compliance with WHO Air Quality Guidelines.
Option 1 (CO₂ and ozone): CO₂ is a greenhouse gas tracked separately by climate bodies; ground-level ozone is a pollutant but is not the primary focus of the WHO Ambient Air Quality Database.
Option 3 (Methane and CO): Methane is a greenhouse gas; CO (carbon monoxide) is a pollutant but not the focus of this specific WHO database.
Option 4 (Lead and arsenic): These are heavy metal pollutants tracked in specific contexts; not the primary pollutants in the WHO Ambient Air Quality Database.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Both birth and death rates decline
The Demographic Transition Model (DTM) describes population changes through stages: Stage I — both birth and death rates are high; Stage II — death rate falls sharply (medical advances) while birth rate remains high → rapid population growth; Stage III — both birth and death rates begin to decline as countries develop economically, urbanize, and improve education/family planning; Stage IV — both rates are low, stabilizing population. Stage III is thus characterized by declining birth AND death rates.
Option 2 (High infant mortality): Characteristic of Stage I or early Stage II; infant mortality is declining by Stage III.
Option 3 (Rapidly rising death rate): Death rates fall (not rise) in Stage II onward; rapidly rising death rate does not describe Stage III.
Option 4 (Low but fluctuating birth rate): More characteristic of Stage IV, where both rates are low and stable.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – High domes and minarets
Mughal architecture (16th–18th century CE) is best known for its characteristic high bulbous domes (onion domes), tall slender minarets, intricate inlay work ( pietra dura), red sandstone and white marble construction, and large formal gardens. Iconic examples include the Taj Mahal (with its massive central dome and four minarets), Jama Masjid, Humayun's Tomb, and Fatehpur Sikri. The style blends Persian, Central Asian, and Indian architectural traditions.
Option 1 (Wooden beams): Associated with vernacular, tribal, or some medieval Hindu temple architecture; not a feature of Mughal architecture.
Option 3 (Flat roofs): Some Mughal structures have flat terraces (like Akbar's palace buildings), but the defining feature is the high dome, not flat roofs.
Option 4 (Simple stone walls): Mughal architecture is famous for ornate decorations, inlay work, and calligraphy — the opposite of simple stone walls.