SSC Selection Post 2025 28 July 2025 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Remote sensing and satellite data
Remote sensing and satellite data are increasingly used for real-time AQI monitoring in urban areas. Satellites like NASA's MODIS, Sentinel-5P (TROPOMI), and India's Cartosat/Resourcesat provide data on particulate matter (PM2.5, PM10), NO2, SO2, CO, and ozone concentrations over large urban regions. ISRO's satellite data is integrated with CPCB's (Central Pollution Control Board) ground monitoring network for comprehensive AQI assessment.
Option 2 (Seismic sensors): Seismic sensors detect ground vibrations and earthquakes; they have no application in air quality monitoring.
Option 3 (Sonar technology): Sonar uses sound waves to detect underwater objects; not used for AQI monitoring.
Option 4 (Ground penetrating radar): GPR uses radar pulses to image the subsurface; not applicable to air quality monitoring.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Liquidity preference theory
John Maynard Keynes presented his theory of demand for money in 'The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money' (1936) under the name 'Liquidity Preference Theory.' Keynes argued that people hold money (demand liquidity) for three motives: (1) Transactions motive — for day-to-day transactions, (2) Precautionary motive — for unforeseen expenses, and (3) Speculative motive — to take advantage of future changes in interest rates/bond prices. The demand for money is thus a demand for liquidity.
Option 2 (Cambridge theory): The Cambridge Cash Balance approach was developed by Marshall and Pigou at Cambridge — a neoclassical/quantity theory approach. It is NOT the Keynesian theory.
Option 3 (Cash balance approach): Same as Cambridge theory — a classical/neoclassical approach, not Keynesian.
Option 4 (Classical approach): The classical quantity theory of money (Fisher's equation MV=PT) precedes Keynes and differs fundamentally from liquidity preference theory.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY)
Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY), launched on May 1, 2016 from Ballia, Uttar Pradesh by PM Narendra Modi, aims to provide free LPG connections to women from BPL households, reducing dependence on traditional biomass fuels (wood, dung cakes) that cause indoor air pollution and health hazards. PMUY 2.0 was launched in 2021 extending coverage to migrants and additional BPL categories. Over 10 crore connections have been provided.
Option 1 (NFSA): The National Food Security Act (2013) provides subsidized food grains to BPL families; not related to cooking fuel.
Option 3 (DDUGJY): Deendayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana provides electricity to rural households; not LPG/cooking fuel.
Option 4 (NRHM): National Rural Health Mission provides healthcare services in rural areas; not cooking fuel.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Prakash Javadekar
The National Digital Library of India (NDLI) was launched in 2018 by Prakash Javadekar, who was the Union Minister for Human Resource Development (now Education) at the time. NDLI is developed by IIT Kharagpur under the National Mission on Education through ICT (NMEICT). It provides a single-window access to millions of academic resources — books, articles, videos, and research papers — for students and researchers across India, including content in multiple Indian languages.
Option 1 (Ramesh Pokhriyal): Was HRD/Education Minister from 2019–2021; not the minister at the time of NDLI launch in 2018.
Option 3 (Smriti Irani): Was HRD Minister from 2014–2016; not in office when NDLI was launched in 2018.
Option 4 (Dharmendra Pradhan): Became Education Minister in 2021; was not HRD Minister in 2018.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Privatization of PSUs
Liberalization refers to the relaxation of government restrictions on economic activity to allow greater free market operation. Privatization (transfer of ownership of Public Sector Undertakings from government to private sector) is a measure of PRIVATIZATION, not liberalization per se — it is one of the three pillars of the 1991 LPG reforms (Liberalization, Privatization, Globalization), but is classified as a privatization measure distinct from liberalization.
Option 1 (Deregulation of industries): A direct liberalization measure — removing licensing requirements (Industrial Licensing Policy 1991) to allow free entry and exit.
Option 3 (Simplification of tax structures): Reducing tax rates and simplifying compliance (GST, direct tax reforms) is a liberalization measure facilitating ease of business.
Option 4 (Removal of import licensing): Abolishing import licenses (QR restrictions) is a trade liberalization measure — part of globalization/liberalization reforms.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – By using satellite data for weather forecasting, crop monitoring, and resource mapping
ISRO's satellites contribute to national development through: (a) Disaster Management — RISAT, Cartosat, and INSAT satellites provide early warnings for cyclones, floods, droughts, and earthquakes; NDMA uses satellite imagery for relief operations; (b) Agriculture — Resourcesat and LISS sensors monitor crop health, estimate acreage, detect pest outbreaks, and support the Fasal Bima Yojana (crop insurance); (c) Resource mapping — National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC) maps groundwater, forests, land use, and minerals using satellite data.
Option 2 (Manned missions for physical data): India's manned missions (Gaganyaan) are for scientific research and national prestige, not for collecting agricultural or disaster management data.
Option 3 (Social media alerts): Social media platforms are managed by private companies; ISRO does not operate social media alert systems.
Option 4 (Laser-based ground scanning from space stations): India does not have a space station; this technology description does not apply to India's operational space applications.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Oppana
Oppana is a traditional Muslim folk dance of Kerala, performed primarily at weddings and other celebrations. It is performed by women around the bride — friends and relatives clap, sing, and dance in a semicircle around the seated bride. Oppana songs are typically in Mappila (Kerala Muslim) style, expressing joy and blessings for the bride. It is an important cultural tradition in Kerala's Muslim community.
Option 2 (Hojagiri): A traditional folk dance of the Reang (Bru) tribe of Tripura — performed on the occasion of Hojagiri festival; not from Kerala.
Option 3 (Giddha): A lively folk dance of Punjab women, performed at festivals and celebrations; not from Kerala.
Option 4 (Dhamyal): A folk music and dance tradition from Punjab/Rajasthan associated with Sufi culture; not a Kerala wedding tradition.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
A. Hajime (3 – Start the bout): 'Hajime' means 'begin' in Japanese; it is the referee's command to start or resume a Judo contest.
B. Mate (1 – Temporarily stop a contest): 'Mate' means 'wait' or 'stop'; the referee calls 'Mate' to temporarily halt the contest (e.g., when players go out of bounds, for injury, or to reset).
C. Toketa (4 – If the pinned opponent successfully breaks the pin): 'Toketa' is called by the referee when the player being held/pinned (osaekomi) successfully escapes or breaks free from the hold-down.
D. Kuzushi (2 – Breaking the balance of the opponent): 'Kuzushi' refers to the technique of breaking the opponent's balance/posture as the first phase of a Judo throw (before the entry/tsukuri and execution/kake).
Correct matching: A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 = Option A.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – 1 and 2 only
Statement 1 (TRUE): Japan is indeed among India's top FDI sources. The India-Japan Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA, 2011) and Special Strategic and Global Partnership have driven Japanese investment. Japan has key roles in Delhi Metro, Mumbai-Ahmedabad High Speed Rail (Shinkansen/bullet train), DMIC (Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor), and other infrastructure projects.
Statement 2 (TRUE): The CEPA (2011) catalyzed Japanese industrial investment in India through dedicated Japanese industrial townships/zones across multiple states, with over 1,400 Japanese companies operating in India (as per JETRO data).
Statement 3 (FALSE): The India-Japan CEPA does not include a specific 'Digital Skills Exchange Program on AI and Kaizen-based public governance' as a formal provision. While India-Japan digital cooperation exists under various bilateral frameworks, this specific program is not a CEPA provision.
Only Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Correct Answer: Option 4 – A denser medium to a rarer medium at an angle of incidence greater than the critical angle
Total Internal Reflection (TIR) requires two conditions: (1) Light must travel from a denser (optically denser, higher refractive index) medium to a rarer (optically rarer, lower refractive index) medium. (2) The angle of incidence must be greater than the critical angle (θc). When both conditions are met, no refraction occurs and all light is reflected back into the denser medium. Applications: optical fibres, mirages, diamonds' brilliance, endoscopes.
Option 1 (Rarer to denser, any angle): TIR cannot occur when going from rarer to denser — refraction always occurs as light bends toward the normal.
Option 2 (Denser to rarer, any angle): At angles less than the critical angle, refraction (not TIR) occurs; TIR requires angle GREATER than critical angle.
Option 3 (Rarer to denser, angle > critical angle): TIR never occurs going from rarer to denser medium regardless of angle.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Plants produce chemical compounds that help in growth of the plant (INCORRECT statement)
Allelopathy is a biological phenomenon where a plant produces biochemical compounds (allelochemicals) that INHIBIT or adversely affect the germination, growth, survival, or reproduction of other plants — NOT help the growth of the plant. The term 'allelopathy' comes from Greek: 'allelon' (of each other) + 'pathos' (to suffer). It is a form of chemical warfare between plants.
Option 2 (TRUE): Allelochemicals secreted by roots do block germination and inhibit growth of neighboring plants — this is the correct definition of allelopathy.
Option 3 (TRUE): By suppressing competitor plants, allelopathy reduces competition for water, nutrients, and light — giving the allelopathic plant a competitive advantage.
Option 4 (TRUE): Black walnut trees (Juglans nigra) produce juglone, a well-documented allelochemical that inhibits growth of many plants within the root zone — a classic example of allelopathy.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Advisory in nature, but holds persuasive value
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 (replacing the Indian Evidence Act, 1872), expert opinion (Section 39–44 of BSA) is treated as advisory in nature — the court is not bound by it — but it holds significant persuasive value. The court considers expert testimony (medical, forensic, handwriting, ballistics, etc.) alongside other evidence to form its judgment. Expert opinion helps the court understand technical matters beyond common knowledge.
Option 2 (Only civil trials): Expert opinion is admissible in both civil AND criminal trials under BSA; it is not restricted to civil proceedings.
Option 3 (Conclusive proof): Expert opinion is never conclusive — the court may accept or reject it. Only certain documentary and legal presumptions constitute conclusive proof.
Option 4 (Ignored by court): Courts actively consider expert testimony; ignoring it without reason would be grounds for appeal.

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Parliament of India
Under Article 3 of the Indian Constitution, Parliament has the exclusive power to alter the boundaries of states — by forming new states, increasing or diminishing the area of states, altering the boundaries of states, and altering the names of states. Such a bill can only be introduced in Parliament on the recommendation of the President. Before introduction, the President refers the bill to the affected state legislature(s) for their views (though their consent is not binding). Example: creation of Telangana (2014) by bifurcating Andhra Pradesh.
Option 1 (Supreme Court): The Supreme Court interprets the Constitution and resolves disputes; it cannot legislate to alter state boundaries.
Option 2 (State Legislative Assemblies): State legislatures have no power under Article 3 to alter their own or other states' boundaries; only Parliament can do so.
Option 3 (President of India): The President refers boundary bills to state legislatures and gives assent, but cannot unilaterally alter state boundaries — that power vests in Parliament.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – 1 and 2 only
Fundamental Rights are of two types: (a) Rights available to ALL PERSONS (including foreigners) — Articles 14, 20, 21, 21A, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 28; (b) Rights available only to CITIZENS — Articles 15, 16, 19, 29, 30.
Article 15 (Right against discrimination): Available only to CITIZENS — foreigners CANNOT claim protection under Article 15.
Article 19 (Freedom of speech and expression): Available only to CITIZENS — foreigners do NOT have Article 19 rights in India.
Article 20 (Protection in respect of conviction): Available to ALL PERSONS including foreigners — foreigners CAN claim Article 20 protection.
Article 21 (Right to life and personal liberty): Available to ALL PERSONS including foreigners — foreigners CAN claim Article 21 protection.
Only Articles 15 and 19 (Options 1 and 2) are NOT available to foreigners.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Kharif Season
Kharif crops are sown at the beginning of the monsoon (June-July) and harvested in autumn (September-October). Groundnut, ragi (finger millet), jowar (sorghum), and rice are all classic Kharif crops that require warm temperatures and monsoon rainfall for growth. Other Kharif crops include maize, bajra, cotton, soybean, and sugarcane.
Option 1 (Rabi Season): Rabi crops are winter crops sown after monsoon (October-November) and harvested in spring (March-April). Key Rabi crops: wheat, barley, mustard, gram, linseed — all requiring cool, dry conditions.
Option 3 (Zaid Season): Zaid is a short summer season (March-June) between Rabi harvest and Kharif sowing. Crops: watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber, fodder crops. The crops listed in the question are not Zaid crops.
Option 4 (Both Rabi and Zaid): The crops mentioned are exclusively Kharif, not grown in both Rabi and Zaid.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Sorted, rounded sediments from meltwater streams
Outwash deposits (also called glaciofluvial deposits) are sediments deposited by meltwater streams that flow from the snout (terminus) of a glacier. As meltwater rushes beyond the glacier margin, it sorts and deposits sediments by size — coarser gravels near the glacier, finer sands and silts farther away. The water action rounds and sorts the particles, creating stratified, well-sorted, rounded sediment plains called outwash plains (sandur). Examples: Iceland's sandur plains.
Option 1 (Angular, unsorted debris by stagnant ice): Describes till — glacial sediment deposited directly by ice without water sorting. Till is angular, unsorted, and unstratified.
Option 3 (Fine clay blown by wind in dry glacial areas): Describes loess — wind-blown (aeolian) glacial dust deposited far from glaciers. Not outwash.
Option 4 (Large erratics on steep slopes): Glacial erratics are large boulders transported and deposited by glaciers far from their source; not outwash deposits.

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Statement 1 (FALSE): Death rates and birth rates are NOT reported as absolute numbers. They are reported as RATES — expressed per 1,000 of the population per year. For example, India's Crude Birth Rate (CBR) is ~18 per 1,000 population and Crude Death Rate (CDR) is ~6 per 1,000 population. Absolute numbers would simply be the count of births/deaths, which is different from the rate.
Statement 2 (FALSE): Demographic rates ARE relative to population size — that is precisely what makes them 'rates' rather than absolute counts. Birth rate = (Total live births in a year / Mid-year population) × 1,000. They are definitionally based on population size.
Both statements are factually incorrect, making Option 4 (Neither 1 nor 2) the correct answer.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Only 2 and 3 are correct
Statement 1 (FALSE): NAFCC does NOT provide direct financial support to individual farmers. It funds adaptation projects at the state/UT government level. Individual farmer support is handled by other schemes like PM Fasal Bima Yojana and NDRF.
Statement 2 (TRUE): NAFCC is managed by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) through the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) as the implementing entity.
Statement 3 (TRUE): NAFCC funds climate adaptation projects proposed by State and Union Territory governments, focusing on sectors like agriculture, water, forests, and coastal areas that are vulnerable to climate change impacts.
Only Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Wind & Density
Earth's large-scale ocean circulation is driven by two primary forces: (1) Wind — surface winds drive surface ocean currents (e.g., Trade winds drive equatorial currents; Westerlies drive mid-latitude currents). (2) Density differences (thermohaline circulation) — driven by variations in water temperature (thermo) and salinity (haline), which affect water density. Cold, salty water is denser and sinks, driving deep-ocean circulation (the global conveyor belt/AMOC). Together, wind-driven and density-driven circulations constitute the full ocean current system.
Option 1 (Tides & Moon): Tidal currents are driven by gravitational pull of Moon and Sun but are localized and oscillatory — not large-scale ocean circulation drivers.
Option 2 (Earthquakes & Volcanoes): These are geological events that can trigger tsunamis — not the primary drivers of large-scale sustained ocean currents.
Option 4 (Salinity & Temperature): While salinity and temperature differences drive thermohaline (density) circulation, they represent only ONE of the two primary factors. Wind is the other — so this option is incomplete.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Assertion (A) is TRUE: During 200 BCE – 300 CE (early Buddhist art period), artists at Sanchi, Bharhut, Amaravati, and Nagarjunakonda carved extensive nature-inspired scenes on stupa railings, toranas (gateways), and panels — including trees, animals (elephants, lions, horses), rivers, lotus flowers, and yaksha/yakshi figures from nature.
Reason (R) is TRUE: These nature-inspired carvings reflect a blend of secular folk art traditions (fertility symbols, yaksha worship, nature spirits) with religious Buddhist themes. Early Buddhist art avoided direct depiction of the Buddha (aniconic period) and instead used symbolic and nature-based imagery, making R an accurate description of the artistic philosophy.
R correctly explains A: The prevalence of nature scenes on stupas is precisely because artists were blending secular folk traditions with Buddhist religious expression — making R the correct explanation of why such nature-inspired scenes were carved.

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Neither 1 nor Statement 2
Statement I is FALSE: The Kakatiyas (capital: Warangal, not Manyakheta) were successors of the Eastern Chalukyas in the eastern Deccan (present-day Telangana/Andhra). Manyakheta (Malkhed) was the capital of the Rashtrakutas and later the Western Chalukyas of Kalyani — not the Kakatiyas. The primary successors to the Later/Western Chalukyas in western Deccan were the Kalachuris and the Hoysalas, not the Kakatiyas.
Statement II is FALSE: The Hoysalas (capital: Dwarasamudra/Halebid, Karnataka) were NOT based in Devagiri — Devagiri was the capital of the Yadavas (Sevunas). Also, the Hoysalas were not the 'sole dynasty' responsible for overthrowing the Later Chalukyas — multiple dynasties (Kalachuris, Yadavas, Kakatiyas) contributed to the Chalukyan decline.
Both statements contain factual errors in the capitals/locations and roles attributed, making both incorrect.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Only 1 and 2 are Correct
Statement 1 (TRUE): Kapil Parmar won India's historic first Paralympic judo medal at Paris 2024 — a bronze in the men's 60kg J1 (visually impaired) category. This was a landmark achievement for Indian para-judo.
Statement 2 (TRUE): Praveen Kumar won gold in men's high jump T64 at Paris 2024 Paralympics with a jump of 2.08m, setting an Asian record. He had previously won silver at Tokyo 2020 Paralympics.
Statement 3 (FALSE): Hokato Hotozhe Sema won BRONZE (not silver) in men's shot put F57 at Paris 2024 Paralympics. His personal best throw was 20.75m — not 14.65m. The 14.65m figure is inaccurate for shot put F57 category (which regularly exceeds 18m at elite level).
Only Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Led action on IUU fishing in the Indian Ocean
The Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) is a regional intergovernmental organization of 23 member states bordering the Indian Ocean. At the 2024 IORA seminar in Goa, India led discussions and action on Illegal, Unreported and Unregulated (IUU) fishing in the Indian Ocean — a critical issue affecting maritime security, food security, and sustainable fisheries for all Indian Ocean littoral states. India used the IORA platform to position itself as a leader in blue economy governance and maritime security.
Option 1 (Indo-Pacific trade deals): IORA focuses on regional cooperation, not formal trade deal negotiations — those occur through bilateral/WTO frameworks.
Option 2 (Maritime border disputes): IORA operates on principles of non-interference and consensus; it does not address bilateral maritime boundary disputes.
Option 4 (Invited SAARC): SAARC and IORA are separate organizations with different memberships; IORA did not invite SAARC at the 2024 Goa seminar.