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SSC Selection Post 2025 31 July 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 24 GK / GS questions asked in SSC Selection Post 2025 on 31 July 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Polity, Static GK, Economics, Biology, Physics, Geography.

📚 24 questions🗓️ 31 July 2025⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Polity (3) · Static GK (8) · Economics (4) · Biology (1) · Physics (1) · Geography (3) · Current Affairs (2) · Ancient History (2)

Polity (3)

Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q1. Given below are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read and mark the correct options:
Assertion (A): The Bharatiya Nyaya Samhita includes a specific provision for 'community service' as a punishment.
Reason (R): This reform aims to reduce jail time by introducing community service for petty offences.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Assertion (A) is TRUE: The Bharatiya Nyaya Samhita (BNS), 2023 — which replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860 — introduced 'community service' as a new category of punishment (Section 4 of BNS lists punishments including community service). This is a significant reform making India one of the few countries to formally recognise community service as a criminal punishment.
Reason (R) is TRUE and correctly explains A: The rationale behind introducing community service as a punishment is precisely to reduce jail overcrowding and provide an alternative to imprisonment for petty/minor offences. It allows offenders to contribute positively to society rather than serving short jail terms, which can be counterproductive. R directly and correctly explains why community service was included in BNS (Assertion A).
Therefore, both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A = Option 1.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q2. Which law prevails in case of a conflict between Union and State laws on a subject in the Concurrent List?

  1. (a) Union law
  2. (b) State law
  3. (c) The latest law
  4. (d) Supreme Court decides every time
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Union law

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Union law
Under Article 254 of the Indian Constitution, if there is a repugnancy (conflict) between a law made by Parliament and a law made by a State Legislature on a subject in the Concurrent List (Schedule 7), the Parliamentary (Union) law shall prevail and the State law shall be void to the extent of repugnancy. Exception: If a State law on a Concurrent List subject has received the President's assent, the State law may prevail in that state — but Parliament can still override it by making a subsequent law. This principle of 'Union law prevails' maintains national uniformity on subjects listed in the Concurrent List (which includes criminal law, marriage, education, etc.).
Option 2 (State law): State law does NOT generally prevail over Union law on Concurrent List subjects.
Option 3 (The latest law): The 'latest law' doctrine applies only when the State law has received Presidential assent (Article 254(2)) — but even then Parliament can override it later.
Option 4 (Supreme Court decides every time): The Constitution has a clear rule (Article 254) — the Supreme Court interprets it but does not 'decide every time' as a matter of course.
Union Executive · Council of Ministers and Cabinet

Q3. If someone becomes a minister or the Prime Minister without being a Member of Parliament, they must get elected to the Parliament within ______ months or they will have to vacate the office.

  1. (a) Three
  2. (b) Six
  3. (c) Nine
  4. (d) Eight
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Six

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Six
Under Article 75(5) of the Indian Constitution (for Union ministers) and Article 164(4) (for state ministers), a person who is not a member of either House of Parliament (or the State Legislature) can be appointed as a Minister (including Prime Minister/Chief Minister) for a maximum period of six months. Within these six months, they must get elected/nominated to Parliament; otherwise, they must vacate the ministerial office. This provision allows eminent non-politicians to be inducted into the Cabinet without immediately requiring them to win an election.
Option 1 (Three): The constitutional provision specifies six months — not three.
Option 3 (Nine): Incorrect — the limit is six months, not nine.
Option 4 (Eight): Incorrect — the limit is six months.

Static GK (8)

Space, Defence and Technology · Indian space missions

Q4. The Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS), India's planned space station, is proposed to orbit at what approximate altitude above the Earth's surface?

  1. (a) 200–250 km
  2. (b) 400–450 km
  3. (c) 600–650 km
  4. (d) 850–900 km
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 400–450 km

Correct Answer: Option 2 – 400–450 km
The Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS) — India's planned indigenous space station — is proposed to be established at an altitude of approximately 400–450 km above the Earth's surface. ISRO aims to have BAS operational by 2035. The station will be built in phases, with the first module expected to be launched around 2028. For context, the International Space Station (ISS) orbits at approximately 400–420 km altitude, and the Chinese Tiangong station orbits at approximately 340–450 km. The 400–450 km range is optimal for Low Earth Orbit (LEO) space stations — high enough to avoid excessive atmospheric drag but low enough for regular resupply missions.
Option 1 (200–250 km): Too low — at this altitude, significant atmospheric drag would cause the station to deorbit quickly.
Option 3 (600–650 km): Higher than the standard operational altitude for space stations; increased radiation exposure.
Option 4 (850–900 km): This is within the Van Allen radiation belt region — too high and too hazardous for a crewed space station.
National Symbols, Firsts and Superlatives · First in India - persons

Q5. Who is the first woman to become the Chief Minister of an Indian state?

  1. (a) Anwara Taimur
  2. (b) Sucheta Kriplalani
  3. (c) Shashikala Kakodkar
  4. (d) Nandini Satpathy
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sucheta Kriplalani

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Sucheta Kriplalani
Sucheta Kriplalani became India's first woman Chief Minister when she was elected as the Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh on October 2, 1963, and served until March 14, 1967. She was a veteran freedom fighter who participated in the Quit India Movement (1942) and was a member of the Constituent Assembly. She belonged to the Indian National Congress. Her tenure as CM of India's most populous state was a landmark moment for women's political representation in India.
Option 1 (Anwara Taimur): Anwara Taimur was the first woman Chief Minister of Assam (1980–81), and the first Muslim woman CM of an Indian state — but she came much later than Sucheta Kriplalani.
Option 3 (Shashikala Kakodkar): First woman Chief Minister of Goa (1973–1979) — after Sucheta Kriplalani.
Option 4 (Nandini Satpathy): First woman Chief Minister of Odisha (1972–73 and 1974–76) — after Sucheta Kriplalani.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q6. Who is the author of the book 'The Mahabharata: An Inquiry in the Human Condition', which offers a critical philosophical analysis of the epic?

  1. (a) Devdutt Pattanaik
  2. (b) Badrinath Chaturvedi
  3. (c) Radhakrishnan Pillai
  4. (d) C. Rajagopalachari
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Badrinath Chaturvedi

The author of the book 'The Mahabharata: An Inquiry in the Human Condition' is the Indian philosopher and former civil servantChaturvedi Badrinath. Published in 2006, the critically acclaimed book explores the epic's profound relevance to ethics, existential dilemmas, and modern life.
The work is celebrated for its deep philosophical analysis, drawing on over 500 original Sanskrit shlokas translated by Badrinath himself to examine the fundamental aspects of dharma, morality, and human freedom. Chaturvedi Badrinath was posthumously awarded the prestigious Sahitya Akademie Award in 2010 for this seminal contribution

Q7. Navreh is primarily celebrated by which of the following communities?

  1. (a) Dogras of Jammu
  2. (b) Kashmiri Pandits
  3. (c) Ladakhi Buddhists
  4. (d) Gujjars of Kashmir
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Kashmiri Pandits

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Kashmiri Pandits
Navreh (also spelled Navroh , Nauroz, or Navroz-e-Kashmir) is the traditional New Year festival of the Kashmiri Pandit community. It is celebrated on the first day of the month of Chaitra in the Saptarishi calendar (usually March/April) and marks the Kashmiri Hindu New Year. The celebration involves placing a thaali (plate) containing traditional items — a mirror, uncooked rice, salt, walnuts, flowers, an almanac ( panchang ), a pen/inkpot, and gold or silver — which the celebrant views first thing on New Year's morning, symbolising prosperity and knowledge for the coming year.
Option 1 ( Dogras of Jammu): Dogras celebrate their own festivals like Bahu Mela and share in broader Hindu festivals — Navreh is specifically Kashmiri Pandit.
Option 3 (Ladakhi Buddhists): Ladakhi Buddhists celebrate Losar (Tibetan Buddhist New Year) — not Navreh .
Option 4 (Gujjars of Kashmir): Gujjars are a pastoral Muslim community in Jammu & Kashmir — not the primary celebrants of Navreh .
Organisations and Headquarters · Regional groupings (SAARC, ASEAN, BIMSTEC, SCO, G20)

Q8. Which country hosted the first in-person Quad Leaders' Summit in 2021?

  1. (a) India
  2. (b) Japan
  3. (c) Australia
  4. (d) United States
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) United States

Correct Answer: Option 4 – United States
The first in-person Quad Leaders' Summit was hosted by the United States in Washington D.C. on September 24, 2021. US President Joe Biden hosted Australian PM Scott Morrison, Indian PM Narendra Modi, and Japanese PM Yoshihide Suga. The Quad (Quadrilateral Security Dialogue) comprises India, USA, Australia, and Japan. Prior to this, a virtual Quad Leaders' Summit had been held in March 2021 (the first-ever at heads-of-government level). The 2021 in-person summit discussed COVID-19 vaccines, climate change, critical technologies, and Indo-Pacific security.
Option 1 (India): India hosted a later Quad summit in 2022 (New Delhi). The first in-person summit was in Washington D.C.
Option 2 (Japan): Japan hosted the Quad Foreign Ministers' meeting in 2022 and a Leaders' Summit in Tokyo (May 2022). The first in-person Leaders' Summit was in the US.
Option 3 (Australia): Australia hosted the Quad Leaders' Summit in Sydney in May 2023. The first in-person summit was in the US.
Sports · Olympic Games

Q9. Identify the correct option from given statements:
Assertion (A): India's hosting of the 141st IOC Session in Mumbai was a significant milestone that led to the inclusion of Kabaddi in the 2028 Los Angeles Olympic Games.
Reason (R): The IOC General Body approved the inclusion of Cricket during the session, and India also expressed its intention to host the Youth Olympics 2030 and Summer Olympics 2036.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) A is false, but R is true.

Correct Answer: Option 4 – A is false, but R is true
Assertion (A) is FALSE: The 141st IOC Session was held in Mumbai (October 2023). However, it did NOT lead to the inclusion of Kabaddi in the 2028 Los Angeles Olympics. What was approved were Cricket/T20, Squash, Lacrosse, Flag Football, and Baseball/Softball for the 2028 LA Olympics — not Kabaddi. The Assertion incorrectly states Kabaddi was included.
Reason (R) is TRUE: The IOC General Body at the 141st IOC Session did approve the inclusion of Cricket (T20 format) among the new sports for LA 2028. India also formally expressed its ambition to host the Youth Olympic Games 2030 and bid for the 2036 Summer Olympics (with Ahmedabad as the proposed host city). The Reason's content is factually accurate.
Since A is false and R is true = Option 4 (D).
Monuments and Heritage · UNESCO World Heritage Sites in India

Q10. The rock-cut caves of Ajanta and Ellora, famous for their murals and sculptures, are located in which present-day state of India?

  1. (a) Madhya Pradesh
  2. (b) Rajasthan
  3. (c) Maharashtra
  4. (d) Karnataka
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Maharashtra

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Maharashtra
Both the Ajanta Caves and Ellora Caves are located in the Aurangabad (now Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar ) district of Maharashtra. Ajanta Caves: approximately 30 rock-cut Buddhist cave monuments dating from 2nd century BCE to about 480 CE, famous for exquisite Buddhist paintings and sculptures; UNESCO World Heritage Site (1983). Ellora Caves: approximately 100 rock-cut caves (Buddhist, Hindu, and Jain) dating from 600–1000 CE, including the magnificent Kailasa Temple (Cave 16); UNESCO World Heritage Site (1983). Both sites are major archaeological and artistic treasures of ancient India.
Option 1 (Madhya Pradesh): MP has Sanchi Stupa, Khajuraho temples, and Bhimbetka rock shelters — not Ajanta or Ellora.
Option 2 (Rajasthan): Known for desert forts and palaces — Ajanta and Ellora are not in Rajasthan.
Option 4 (Karnataka): Known for Hampi ( Vijayanagara ruins), Badami caves, and Belur / Halebidu temples — Ajanta and Ellora are in Maharashtra.
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q11. MEC was announced on the sidelines of which major international summit in September 2023?

  1. (a) G7 Summit
  2. (b) ASEAN Summit
  3. (c) BRICS Summit
  4. (d) G20 Summit
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) G20 Summit

The MEC (also known as IMEC or the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor) was announced on the sidelines of theG20 Summitin September 2023.
The multinational infrastructure project was officially signed on September 9, 2023, during the New Delhi summit. It includes countries like India, theUS, Saudi Arabia, the UAE,France, Germany, Italy, and the European Union.

Economics (4)

Q12. Which of the following is an example of a direct tax in India?

  1. (a) Goods and Services Tax (GST)
  2. (b) Excise Duty
  3. (c) Corporate Income Tax
  4. (d) Customs Duty
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Corporate Income Tax

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Corporate Income Tax
Corporate Income Tax (also called Corporation Tax) is a direct tax — it is levied directly on the income/profits of companies and collected directly from them. The taxpayer (corporation) bears the tax burden themselves and cannot shift it to others. It is administered by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) under the Income Tax Act, 1961.
Option 1 (GST): Goods and Services Tax is an indirect tax — it is levied on goods and services, collected by businesses, but the burden is passed on to the final consumer. GST replaced multiple indirect taxes (VAT, Service Tax, Excise Duty) from July 1, 2017.
Option 2 (Excise Duty): Excise Duty (now largely subsumed into GST except for petroleum products, alcohol, and tobacco) is an indirect tax on the manufacture of goods — the burden is passed on to consumers.
Option 4 (Customs Duty): Customs Duty is an indirect tax on imported (and sometimes exported) goods — also passed on to buyers/consumers.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q13. Which institution played a key role in India's economic reforms by providing loans and policy guidance?

  1. (a) World Bank + IMF
  2. (b) SAARC + WTO
  3. (c) BRICS Bank + ADB
  4. (d) UNDP + UNESCO
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) World Bank + IMF

Correct Answer: Option 1 – World Bank + IMF
During India's landmark economic reforms of 1991, the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund (IMF) played pivotal roles. Context: India faced a severe balance of payments crisis in 1991 (foreign exchange reserves down to only 3 weeks of imports). The IMF provided emergency loans (Special Drawing Rights) to India on condition of structural adjustment and economic liberalisation . The World Bank provided Structural Adjustment Loans and policy guidance supporting LPG ( Liberalisation , Privatisation , Globalisation ) reforms. Finance Minister Manmohan Singh and PM Narasimha Rao implemented these IMF/World Bank-conditioned reforms.
Option 2 (SAARC + WTO): SAARC is a regional political forum; WTO governs international trade rules — neither provides emergency loans or played the same reform- catalysing role as the IMF/World Bank in 1991.
Option 3 (BRICS Bank + ADB): The BRICS New Development Bank was established only in 2015 — decades after the 1991 reforms. ADB (Asian Development Bank) plays a role but was not the primary institution for the 1991 reforms.
Option 4 (UNDP + UNESCO): These are UN agencies focused on development programs and education/culture — not financial crisis management.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q14. Which Five-Year Plan is also called the Mahalanobis Plan?

  1. (a) First Five Year Plan
  2. (b) Second Five Year Plan
  3. (c) Third Five Year Plan
  4. (d) Fifth Five Year Plan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Second Five Year Plan

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Second Five Year Plan
The Second Five-Year Plan (1956–61) is known as the Mahalanobis Plan, named after Prof. P.C. Mahalanobis (founder of the Indian Statistical Institute, Kolkata) who was its chief architect. The plan was based on the Mahalanobis two-sector model (or four-sector model), which emphasised rapid industrialisation with heavy industries and capital goods as the engine of growth. Key features: heavy investment in public sector industries (steel plants at Bhilai , Durgapur, Rourkela); development of infrastructure; import substitution. The Second Plan shifted India's development strategy from agriculture-first (First Plan) to industry-first.
Option 1 (First Five Year Plan): First Plan (1951–56) was agriculture-focused, based on the Harrod-Domar model, drafted by K.N. Raj — not called the Mahalanobis Plan.
Option 3 (Third Five Year Plan): Third Plan (1961–66) — 'Gadgil Plan' or 'Plan with a human face'; disrupted by 1962 Sino-India War and 1965 Indo-Pak War.
Option 4 (Fifth Five Year Plan): Fifth Plan (1974–79) focused on poverty alleviation ( Garibi Hatao) and self-reliance — not the Mahalanobis Plan.
Agriculture and Food Security · Public Distribution System and FCI

Q15. What is the aim of launching the 'One Nation, One Ration Card' scheme?

  1. (a) Unifying the voter list across states
  2. (b) Providing universal access to subsidized foodgrains
  3. (c) Creating a uniform syllabus for schools
  4. (d) Providing a single tax system across India
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Providing universal access to subsidized foodgrains

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Providing universal access to subsidized foodgrains
The 'One Nation, One Ration Card' (ONORC) scheme, launched in 2019 under the National Food Security Act (NFSA), aims to enable any beneficiary to access their entitled subsidized foodgrains (rice/wheat) from any Fair Price Shop (FPS) anywhere in India — regardless of the state where the ration card was issued. This portability is especially beneficial for migrant workers who move to different states for work. The scheme uses Aadhaar-linked biometric authentication and an electronic Point of Sale ( ePoS ) system at FPS shops. By 2022, all states and UTs had implemented ONORC.
Option 1 (Unifying voter list): The voter list/electoral roll is managed by the Election Commission of India — a completely separate system from ration cards.
Option 3 (Uniform syllabus): Education policy (NEP 2020) deals with curriculum — unrelated to ration card portability.
Option 4 (Single tax system): GST (Goods and Services Tax, 2017) unified India's indirect tax system — unrelated to ONORC.

Biology (1)

Nutrition and Digestion · Vitamins - sources, functions and deficiency

Q16. Which of the following combinations correctly matches the vitamin with its function and deficiency disorder?

  1. (a) Vitamin A → Promotes calcium absorption → Deficiency causes Scurvy
  2. (b) Vitamin D → Regulates vision pigments → Deficiency leads to Pellagra
  3. (c) Vitamin B₁₂ → Aids nerve function and red blood cell formation → Deficiency causes Pernicious anaemia
  4. (d) Vitamin C → Supports blood clotting → Deficiency leads to Night blindness
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Vitamin B₁₂ → Aids nerve function and red blood cell formation → Deficiency causes Pernicious anaemia

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Vitamin B₁₂ → Aids nerve function and red blood cell formation → Deficiency causes Pernicious anaemia
Vitamin B₁₂ (Cobalamin) is essential for: nerve function (formation of myelin sheath around nerve fibres ); production of red blood cells ( haematopoiesis in bone marrow); DNA synthesis. Deficiency causes Pernicious anaemia — a condition where the body cannot absorb B₁₂ due to lack of intrinsic factor (produced by stomach), leading to megaloblastic anaemia and neurological damage. This combination is entirely correct.
Option 1 (Vitamin A/Calcium/Scurvy): WRONG. Vitamin A (Retinol) regulates vision pigments (rhodopsin); its deficiency causes Night blindness (not Scurvy). Calcium absorption is promoted by Vitamin D. Scurvy is caused by Vitamin C deficiency.
Option 2 (Vitamin D/Vision/Pellagra): WRONG. Vitamin D promotes calcium absorption and bone formation; it does NOT regulate vision. Pellagra is caused by Vitamin B₃ (Niacin) deficiency, not Vitamin D. Vitamin D deficiency causes Rickets (children) and Osteomalacia (adults).
Option 4 (Vitamin C/Blood clotting/Night blindness): WRONG. Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid) is an antioxidant and essential for collagen synthesis; its deficiency causes Scurvy. Blood clotting is supported by Vitamin K. Night blindness is caused by Vitamin A deficiency.

Physics (1)

Electricity · Resistance, resistivity and their factors

Q17. What happens to the resistance of a conductor as temperature increases?

  1. (a) It decreases
  2. (b) It increases
  3. (c) It remains the same
  4. (d) It fluctuates
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It increases

Correct Answer: Option 2 – It increases
For metallic conductors, electrical resistance increases with increasing temperature. This is because: as temperature rises, the metal atoms/ions in the crystal lattice vibrate with greater amplitude; these increased vibrations impede the flow of free electrons (charge carriers) more frequently; this results in greater opposition to current flow = higher resistance. The relationship is approximately linear: R = R₀(1 + αΔT), where α is the temperature coefficient of resistance (positive for metals). This property is used in resistance thermometers (RTDs like platinum thermometers) to measure temperature.
Option 1 (It decreases): This is true for semiconductors (like silicon, germanium) — for semiconductors, resistance DECREASES with temperature because more electron-hole pairs are generated. But for metallic conductors, resistance increases.
Option 3 (It remains the same): Only true for special alloys like Nichrome or Manganin at specific temperature ranges (used in standard resistors).
Option 4 (It fluctuates): Resistance of a pure metallic conductor changes predictably with temperature — it does not fluctuate randomly.

Geography (3)

Q18. Why is the iron industry concentrated in the Chhottanagpur region, including Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal, and parts of Chhattisgarh?

  1. (a) The region has a cold climate suitable for industry
  2. (b) The region has high mineral availability, along with water resource and labor availability
  3. (c) The region is close to international ports
  4. (d) The region is mainly agricultural
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The region has high mineral availability, along with water resource and labor availability

Correct Answer: Option 2 – The region has high mineral availability, along with water resource and labor availability
The Chota Nagpur Plateau region (covering Jharkhand, parts of Odisha, West Bengal, and Chhattisgarh) is India's most mineral-rich zone — often called the 'Ruhr of India.' The iron and steel industry is concentrated here due to: abundant raw materials — high-grade iron ore (Jharkhand, Odisha), coking coal (Jharia, Raniganj coalfields), manganese, limestone, and dolomite; water availability — from the Damodar River system and other rivers; cheap labour ; and proximity to raw material sources ( minimising transportation costs). Major steel plants: Tata Steel (Jamshedpur), SAIL plants at Bokaro, Rourkela, Durgapur, Bhilai .
Option 1 (Cold climate): The region has a subtropical/tropical climate — not a 'cold climate.' Climate is not a locational factor for iron/steel industries.
Option 3 (Close to international ports): The Chota Nagpur Plateau is an inland region — not close to international ports. Coastal steel plants (like Vizag, Ennore) are near ports, but Chota Nagpur's advantage is minerals, not ports.
Option 4 (Mainly agricultural): The region is characterised by mineral wealth and tribal communities — it is not primarily known for agriculture.
India - Population and Census · Census 2011 - population and growth

Q19. What characterizes Stage II of demographic transition?

  1. (a) Birth and death rates are equal
  2. (b) Death rate declines, birth rate remains high
  3. (c) Birth rate falls below death rate
  4. (d) Population decreases
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Death rate declines, birth rate remains high

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Death rate declines, birth rate remains high
The Demographic Transition Model (DTM) describes population change through stages: Stage I (Pre-industrial): Both birth and death rates are high — population is stable/slow-growing. Stage II (Early Industrial/High Growth): Death rate declines rapidly (due to improved healthcare, sanitation, food supply) but birth rate remains high — this results in a 'population explosion' (high natural increase). Most developing countries historically passed through this stage. Stage III (Late Industrial): Birth rate begins to fall; death rate continues to decline — slower population growth. Stage IV (Post-Industrial): Both birth and death rates are low — stable or slow-growing population.
Option 1 (Birth and death rates equal): This describes Stage I (both high and roughly equal) and Stage IV (both low and roughly equal).
Option 3 (Birth rate falls below death rate): This would indicate Stage V (declining population) — not Stage II.
Option 4 (Population decreases): Population decrease characterises Stage V — not Stage II, where population grows rapidly.
India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Forest cover and mangroves

Q20. The Sundarbans, a large mangrove forest, is shared between which two South Asian countries?

  1. (a) India and Pakistan
  2. (b) India and Bangladesh
  3. (c) Bangladesh and Sri Lanka
  4. (d) Pakistan and Afghanistan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) India and Bangladesh

Correct Answer: Option 2 – India and Bangladesh
The Sundarbans is the world's largest mangrove forest (approximately 10,000 sq km total), shared between India and Bangladesh. The Indian portion (about 4,260 sq km) is located in West Bengal (South 24 Parganas district) and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site (1987) and a Tiger Reserve. The Bangladesh portion (about 6,017 sq km) is larger and is also a UNESCO World Heritage Site (1997). The Sundarbans lies at the mouth of the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna delta (Bay of Bengal). It is famous for the Royal Bengal Tiger, saltwater crocodiles, Irrawaddy dolphins, and Gangetic river dolphins.
Option 1 (India and Pakistan): Pakistan has no Sundarbans — it has mangroves in the Indus Delta region (Sindh), but not the Sundarbans.
Option 3 (Bangladesh and Sri Lanka): Sri Lanka is an island nation in the Indian Ocean — it shares no territory with the Sundarbans.
Option 4 (Pakistan and Afghanistan): Neither country is associated with the Sundarbans.

Current Affairs (2)

Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q21. According to the 2024 Global Hunger Index (GHI), what is India's child wasting rate, and how does it compare globally?

  1. (a) 12.5%
  2. (b) 15%
  3. (c) 18.7%
  4. (d) 20%
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 18.7%

Correct Answer: Option 3 – 18.7%
According to the Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2024, India's child wasting rate is 18.7% — the highest child wasting rate among all countries covered by the GHI. Child wasting (acute malnutrition) is defined as children under 5 years who are too thin for their height (low weight-for-height), reflecting acute undernutrition. India's GHI 2024 score was 27.3, placing it in the 'Serious' hunger category and ranking it 105th out of 127 countries. The 18.7% child wasting rate contributes significantly to India's poor GHI score and is a critical public health concern.
Option 1 (12.5%): Below India's actual rate — India's child wasting rate is higher.
Option 2 (15%): Also lower than the actual 18.7% figure reported in GHI 2024.
Option 4 (20%): Higher than the actual 18.7% — not the correct GHI 2024 figure.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q22. Who became the youngest undisputed World Chess Champion in history by defeating Ding Liren in 2024?

  1. (a) Magnus Carlsen
  2. (b) Viswanathan Anand
  3. (c) R. Praggnanandhaa
  4. (d) D. Gukesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) D. Gukesh

Correct Answer: Option 4 – D. Gukesh
Dommaraju Gukesh (D. Gukesh), an Indian chess grandmaster from Chennai, became the undisputed World Chess Champion on December 12, 2024, by defeating defending champion Ding Liren (China) in the World Chess Championship match held in Singapore. At age 18, Gukesh became the youngest World Chess Champion in history, surpassing the record previously held by Garry Kasparov (who became champion at 22 in 1985). Gukesh earned the right to challenge Ding Liren by winning the 2024 Candidates Tournament in Toronto, Canada.
Option 1 (Magnus Carlsen): The Norwegian chess legend and multiple world champion (2013–2023); he vacated the title without defending it — not the 2024 champion.
Option 2 (Viswanathan Anand): Indian chess legend and five-time World Champion (2000, 2007–2010, 2012) — not the 2024 champion.
Option 3 (R. Praggnanandhaa ): Another top Indian grandmaster (also from Chennai); he narrowly lost to Gukesh in the 2024 Candidates Tournament final tiebreaks.

Ancient History (2)

Ancient Art, Culture and Science · Sculpture and metal casting (bronzes, terracotta)

Q23. Which metal casting technique was mastered by ancient Indian sculptors?

  1. (a) Hammer forging
  2. (b) Die-casting
  3. (c) Cire-perdue
  4. (d) Sand casting
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Cire-perdue

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Cire-perdue
Cire-perdue (French for 'lost-wax casting') is the metal casting technique mastered by ancient Indian sculptors. In this technique: a wax model of the sculpture is created; it is encased in clay and fired; the wax melts and flows out ('lost wax') leaving a mould ; molten metal (bronze, brass, or copper) is poured in; after cooling, the clay mould is broken, revealing the cast metal sculpture. Indian sculptors have used this technique for thousands of years — the famous Nataraja (Dancing Shiva) bronze sculptures of the Chola period (9th–12th centuries CE) are supreme examples. This technique was also used in the Indus Valley Civilization (Dancing Girl statue, c. 2300 BCE).
Option 1 (Hammer forging): A metalworking technique for shaping metal by hammering — not the primary ancient Indian sculptural casting technique.
Option 2 (Die-casting): A modern industrial process using reusable metal dies and high-pressure injection — not available in ancient India.
Option 4 (Sand casting): Uses sand moulds — while used in some traditional metalwork, Cire-perdue is the technique specifically celebrated for Indian bronze sculptures.
Indus Valley Civilisation · Town planning and structures

Q24. Which of the following features is NOT characteristic of the Indus Valley Civilization (Harappan Civilization)?

  1. (a) Well-planned urban centers with grid patterns
  2. (b) Use of iron tools for agriculture
  3. (c) Advanced drainage and water management systems
  4. (d) Presence of a Great Bath and granaries
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Use of iron tools for agriculture

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Use of iron tools for agriculture
The Indus Valley Civilization (IVC) / Harappan Civilization (c. 3300–1300 BCE) was a Bronze Age civilization — it did NOT use iron tools. Iron technology came to India much later, during the Iron Age (c. 1200–600 BCE) with the Later Vedic period. The IVC used copper and bronze tools, terracotta items, and stone tools — but not iron. This is a key distinguishing feature: IVC = Bronze Age; iron = post-IVC period.
Option 1 (Well-planned urban centers with grid patterns): TRUE characteristic — Harappan cities like Mohenjo-daro and Harappa show highly planned layouts with orthogonal street grids, standard brick sizes, and zoning.
Option 3 (Advanced drainage and water management): TRUE characteristic — The IVC had the world's first known urban sanitation system, with covered drains, drainage channels, wells in nearly every house, and the Great Bath at Mohenjo-daro.
Option 4 (Great Bath and granaries): TRUE characteristic — The Great Bath (Mohenjo-daro) and large granary structures at Harappa and Mohenjo-daro are iconic features of the IVC.
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