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SSC Selection Post 2025 31 July 2025 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 23 GK / GS questions asked in SSC Selection Post 2025 on 31 July 2025 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Chemistry, Economics, Static GK, Physics, Biology, Geography.

📚 23 questions🗓️ 31 July 2025⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Chemistry (1) · Economics (4) · Static GK (6) · Physics (1) · Biology (2) · Geography (4) · Polity (2) · Ancient History (1) · Medieval History (1) · Current Affairs (1)

Chemistry (1)

Environmental Chemistry · Air quality management (AQI, NAAQS, NCAP, GRAP)

Q1. Which Indian government body is primarily responsible for monitoring and regulating the Air Quality Index (AQI) in India?

  1. (a) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  2. (b) Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
  3. (c) National Green Tribunal (NGT)
  4. (d) Indian Meteorological Department (IMD)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), established under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, is the primary statutory body responsible for monitoring and regulating air quality in India, including the Air Quality Index (AQI). CPCB operates the National Air Quality Monitoring Programme (NAMP) and maintains the real-time air quality data portal (AQI India). The CPCB-developed AQI considers eight pollutants: PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3, and Pb. States have State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) working under CPCB's guidance.
Option 1 (Ministry of Health and Family Welfare): Deals with public health policy — not the primary AQI regulatory body.
Option 3 (National Green Tribunal): The NGT is a judicial body that adjudicates environmental disputes and can issue orders on pollution — but it is not the monitoring/regulatory authority for AQI.
Option 4 (Indian Meteorological Department): IMD monitors weather, forecasts rainfall, and issues cyclone warnings — not AQI.

Economics (4)

Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Economic laws and terms (Gresham's, Say's, Engel's, etc.)

Q2. Which of the following is another name for the Cambridge approach to quantity theory?

  1. (a) Cash balance approach
  2. (b) Fisher's theory
  3. (c) Keynesian approach
  4. (d) Classical approach
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Cash balance approach

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Cash balance approach
The Cambridge approach to the Quantity Theory of Money — developed by economists at Cambridge University (Alfred Marshall, A.C. Pigou, John Maynard Keynes) — is also known as the Cash Balance approach. Unlike Fisher's transaction approach (MV = PT), the Cambridge approach focuses on money as a store of value and the proportion of income people wish to hold as cash (Cambridge equation: M = kPY , where k is the proportion of nominal income held as money). The key difference is that the Cambridge approach emphasises the demand for money rather than the velocity of circulation.
Option 2 (Fisher's theory): Irving Fisher developed the Transaction Approach to the Quantity Theory (MV = PT) — this is a separate, different approach from Cambridge's.
Option 3 (Keynesian approach): While Keynes was associated with Cambridge, the Keynesian approach refers to his later, broader macroeconomic theory (IS-LM, multiplier, liquidity preference) — not the Cambridge quantity theory specifically.
Option 4 (Classical approach): A broader term for pre-Keynesian economics — not specifically the Cambridge quantity theory.
Agriculture and Food Security · Crop insurance and farmer schemes

Q3. Which government scheme aims to provide insurance coverage for crop losses due to natural calamities and pests?

  1. (a) National Food Security Mission (NFSM)
  2. (b) Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY)
  3. (c) Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY)
  4. (d) Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY)

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY)
Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY), launched on January 13, 2016, provides comprehensive crop insurance coverage to farmers against losses due to natural calamities (drought, floods, cyclones, hailstorms), pests, and diseases. Key features: premium rates are very low (2% for Kharif crops, 1.5% for Rabi crops, 5% for commercial/horticultural crops); remaining premium paid by State and Central governments; covers all stages of crop cycle; uses satellite data, drones, and remote sensing for yield estimation. Implemented by general insurance companies.
Option 1 (NFSM): National Food Security Mission aims to increase production of rice, wheat, pulses, and coarse cereals — a production enhancement scheme, not crop insurance.
Option 2 (PMKSY): Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana focuses on irrigation coverage ('Har Khet Ko Pani, More Crop Per Drop') — not crop insurance.
Option 4 (RKVY): Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana provides grants for agricultural development plans — not crop insurance.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q4. Which of the following sectors received major attention in the 7th Five-Year Plan for creating more jobs?

  1. (a) Heavy Industries
  2. (b) IT sector
  3. (c) Small and Cottage industries
  4. (d) Oil and Gas sector
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Small and Cottage industries

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Small and Cottage industries
The Seventh Five-Year Plan (1985–90), implemented under Rajiv Gandhi's government, placed major emphasis on Small and Cottage industries (Small Scale Industries/SSI and village industries) for employment generation. The plan's theme was 'Food, Work, and Productivity.' Small and cottage industries were prioritised because they are labour-intensive , require less capital per job created, are spread across rural and semi-urban areas, and help in decentralising economic activities. The plan significantly increased allocation for SSI development to absorb the large workforce.
Option 1 (Heavy Industries): Heavy industries were emphasised in the Second and Third Five-Year Plans — not specifically the 7th plan's focus for job creation.
Option 2 (IT sector): India's IT industry boom came in the 1990s–2000s, after the 7th Plan's period.
Option 4 (Oil and Gas sector): Not a primary focus for mass employment in the 7th Plan.

Q5. Which organization preceded the WTO?

  1. (a) UNOP
  2. (b) IMF
  3. (c) GATT
  4. (d) World Bank
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) GATT

Correct Answer: Option 3 – GATT
The World Trade Organization (WTO) was established on January 1, 1995, as the successor to the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT). GATT was a multilateral trade agreement signed in 1947 (Geneva) to reduce tariffs and other trade barriers and promote international trade. GATT was a provisional agreement (not a formal international organisation ) that evolved through eight rounds of negotiations (Kennedy Round, Tokyo Round, Uruguay Round, etc.). The Uruguay Round (1986–1994) culminated in the Marrakesh Agreement, which transformed GATT into the WTO — a permanent international organisation with stronger dispute settlement mechanisms.
Option 1 (UNOP): Not a real international trade organisation .
Option 2 (IMF): The International Monetary Fund (IMF) deals with international monetary cooperation and financial stability — not the predecessor to WTO.
Option 4 (World Bank): The World Bank provides development finance — not the predecessor to WTO.

Static GK (6)

Space, Defence and Technology · Launch vehicles and satellites

Q6. Which is the first private company to launch a rocket into space in India?

  1. (a) Skyroot Aerospace
  2. (b) Bellatrix Aerospace
  3. (c) Agnikul Cosmos
  4. (d) Pixxel
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Skyroot Aerospace

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Skyroot Aerospace
Skyroot Aerospace, a Hyderabad-based startup, became the first Indian private company to launch a rocket into space. On November 18, 2022, Skyroot successfully launched its Vikram-S rocket from the Sriharikota spaceport (SDSC-SHAR) under ISRO's IN- SPACe (Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre) framework — the mission was named 'Prarambh' (meaning 'beginning'). The sub-orbital rocket reached an altitude of approximately 89.5 km, crossing the Karman line threshold. This was a landmark moment for India's private space sector.
Option 2 (Bellatrix Aerospace): An Indian space propulsion startup working on electric and green propulsion systems — has not launched a rocket into space as of this context.
Option 3 ( Agnikul Cosmos): A Chennai-based startup that successfully launched its Agnibaan SOrTeD rocket (world's first single-piece 3D printed rocket engine) in May 2024 — after Skyroot's November 2022 milestone.
Option 4 ( Pixxel ): An earth-observation satellite startup — not a rocket launch company.
Dances · Classical dance exponents

Q7. Who played a significant role in the development of Mohiniyattam ?

  1. (a) Swati Tirunal
  2. (b) Rajendra Chola
  3. (c) Rukmini Devi Arundale
  4. (d) M.S. Subbulakshmi
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Swati Tirunal

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Swati Tirunal
Swati Tirunal (1813–1846), the Maharaja of Travancore, played a pivotal role in the development and patronage of Mohiniyattam — a classical dance form of Kerala associated with the enchanting ( mohini ) movements of a female dancer. He was a great music composer (Carnatic and Hindustani) and a major patron of fine arts at his Trivandrum court. He is credited with giving a more refined classical form to Mohiniyattam . Vadivelu (one of the Tanjore Quartet) also helped shape its choreography under Swati Tirunal's patronage.
Option 2 (Rajendra Chola): A medieval Chola emperor — not associated with Mohiniyattam development.
Option 3 (Rukmini Devi Arundale): Revived and popularised Bharatanatyam (not Mohiniyattam ); founded Kalakshetra in Chennai.
Option 4 (M.S. Subbulakshmi): The legendary Carnatic vocalist — not associated with Mohiniyattam development.
Sports · Number of players and field dimensions

Q8. Consider the following statements regarding the standard dimensions of a competitive swimming pool:
1. The minimum lane width in a standard Olympic swimming pool is 3 meters.
2. The water temperature for competitions must remain between 25°C and 28°C.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1 is Correct
  2. (b) Only 2 is Correct
  3. (c) 1 and 2 both are correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is Correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 2 is Correct

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Only 2 is Correct
Statement 1 (FALSE): In a standard FINA (now World Aquatics) Olympic swimming pool, the minimum lane width is 2.5 meters (not 3 meters). Olympic pools have 10 lanes, each 2.5 m wide, with additional buffer lanes of 0.5 m on each side. The total pool width is 25 m (10 × 2.5 m). So the 3-meter claim is incorrect.
Statement 2 (TRUE): World Aquatics (formerly FINA) regulations specify that the water temperature for competitive swimming must be maintained between 25°C and 28°C. This range ensures comfortable conditions for swimmers and standardised performance.
Sports · Olympic Games

Q9. Consider the following statements about Indian women at the Winter Olympics:
1) Shailaja Kumar was the first Indian woman to compete in 1988.
2) Neha Ahuja was the first to qualify by standards in 2006.
3) India has regularly sent multiple women athletes since 1988.
Which of the statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1 and 2 are Correct
  2. (b) Only 2 and 3 are Correct
  3. (c) Only 1 and 3 are Correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 are Correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1 and 2 are Correct

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Only 1 and 2 are Correct
Statement 1 (TRUE): Shailaja Kumari (also written as Shailaja Kumar) was indeed the first Indian woman to compete at the Winter Olympics, participating in the 1988 Calgary Winter Olympics in the Alpine skiing event.
Statement 2 (TRUE): Neha Ahuja became the first Indian woman to qualify for the Winter Olympics based on merit/qualifying standards in 2006 — a milestone for Indian women's participation in the Winter Games.
Statement 3 (FALSE): India has NOT regularly sent multiple women athletes since 1988. India's Winter Olympic participation has been sporadic and limited. Many editions had no Indian women competitors, and when present, it was typically one or two athletes. India does not have a strong, regular women's Winter Olympic tradition.
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q10. Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The Union Cabinet approved a MOU allowing India to withdraw 1.82 cusecs of water from the Feni River for Sabroom town in Tripura.
Reason (R): Sabroom town already receives sufficient groundwater supply with low iron content.
Mark the correct option.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – A is true, but R is false
Assertion (A) is TRUE: India and Bangladesh signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) during PM Modi's visit to Bangladesh (August 2019) allowing India to withdraw 1.82 cusecs of water from the Feni River (which flows through Tripura before entering Bangladesh) for the drinking water needs of Sabroom town in Tripura.
Reason (R) is FALSE: The reason given is factually incorrect. Sabroom town does NOT have sufficient groundwater with low iron content. On the contrary, the town has inadequate groundwater, and what groundwater exists has high iron content (making it unsuitable for drinking). This is precisely why India sought to draw water from the Feni River — to provide clean, safe drinking water. R incorrectly states the situation and is the opposite of the actual reason.
Therefore: A is true, R is false = Option 3.
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q11. Which of the following statements regarding India-Nepal water cooperation are correct?
1) Pancheshwar Development Authority (PDA) was created solely for the Gandak Project.
2) Flood Forecasting System uses jointly updated hydro-meteorological data during monsoons.
3) Sapta Kosi and Sun Kosi projects are jointly surveyed under a Joint Project Office.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) 1 and 2 only
  2. (b) 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 1 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2, and 3 all are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: Option 2 – 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 (FALSE): The Pancheshwar Development Authority (PDA) was NOT created for the Gandak Project. PDA was established to oversee the Pancheshwar Multipurpose Project on the Mahakali River (under the Mahakali Treaty/Treaty of Sharada, 1996). The Gandak Project has its own separate bilateral framework (Gandak Agreement, 1959). Statements conflating PDA with the Gandak Project are incorrect.
Statement 2 (TRUE): India and Nepal maintain a jointly operated Flood Forecasting System through which both countries update hydro-meteorological data during the monsoon season. This bilateral flood early warning system helps downstream areas in Nepal and India prepare for floods from Himalayan rivers.
Statement 3 (TRUE): The Sapta Kosi High Dam and Sun Kosi Storage-cum-Diversion Scheme are major bilateral water projects being jointly surveyed by India and Nepal under a Joint Project Office framework. These projects aim to harness the hydropower potential of the Kosi river system.

Physics (1)

Motion · Numericals on motion

Q12. A car accelerates uniformly from rest to a speed of 20 m/s in 5 seconds. What is the magnitude of its acceleration?

  1. (a) 2 m/s²
  2. (b) 4 m/s²
  3. (c) 10 m/s²
  4. (d) 25 m/s²
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 4 m/s²

Correct Answer: Option 2 – 4 m/s²
Using the formula for uniform acceleration: a = (v − u) / t
Where: v = final velocity = 20 m/s; u = initial velocity = 0 m/s (starts from rest); t = time = 5 seconds
a = (20 − 0) / 5 = 20 / 5 = 4 m/s²
Option 1 (2 m/s²): Would require 10 seconds to reach 20 m/s — not the correct calculation.
Option 3 (10 m/s²): Would require only 2 seconds to reach 20 m/s — not the correct calculation.
Option 4 (25 m/s²): This would be the final speed (25 m/s) confused with acceleration, or an incorrect formula application.

Biology (2)

Q13. Which of the following is NOT a disease caused by prions?

  1. (a) Scrapie in sheep
  2. (b) Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) or 'mad cow' disease
  3. (c) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) in humans
  4. (d) Influenza in humans
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Influenza in humans

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Influenza in humans
Influenza (flu) is caused by the Influenza virus (a RNA virus of the Orthomyxoviridae family) — NOT by prions. Prions are misfolded proteins (not viruses or bacteria) that cause transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSEs) — progressive, fatal neurodegenerative diseases that cause sponge-like holes in brain tissue.
Option 1 (Scrapie in sheep): A prion disease — the first known TSE, affecting sheep and goats. Caused by misfolded prion proteins ( PrPSc ).
Option 2 (BSE/mad cow disease): A prion disease in cattle. The misfolded bovine prion can be transmitted to humans (via contaminated beef) causing variant CJD (vCJD) — this was a major public health crisis in the UK in the 1980s–90s.
Option 3 (CJD in humans): Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a rare but fatal human prion disease, causing rapid dementia. Variant CJD (vCJD) is linked to BSE exposure; sporadic CJD occurs spontaneously.
Nutrition and Digestion · Balanced diet and roughage

Q14. Read the following two statements carefully and choose the correct option:
Statement 1: Poor nutrition among adolescents can result in stunted growth and deficiency diseases.
Statement 2: Proper diet plays a critical role in the healthy development of adolescents.

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2 are correct

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Both 1 and 2 are correct
Statement 1 (TRUE): Poor nutrition during adolescence can indeed result in stunted growth (linear growth faltering due to insufficient protein, calories, zinc, and other micronutrients), as well as deficiency diseases — iron deficiency anaemia , Vitamin D deficiency (rickets/weak bones), iodine deficiency disorders, Vitamin A deficiency (night blindness), etc. Adolescence is a critical period of rapid growth and development requiring adequate nutrition.
Statement 2 (TRUE): A balanced, proper diet provides essential macronutrients (proteins, carbohydrates, fats) and micronutrients (vitamins, minerals) that are critical for healthy physical growth, brain development, hormonal changes, immune function, and overall well-being during adolescence. Both statements are factually accurate and well-supported by nutritional science.
Both statements correctly describe the importance of nutrition for adolescent health.

Geography (4)

India - Agriculture · Agricultural research institutes

Q15. The Central Arid Zone Research Institute (CAZRI) is engaged in the development of dryland farming techniques to raise the productivity of crops in the drier areas of the country.
The headquarters of CAZRI is located at which of the following places?

  1. (a) New Delhi
  2. (b) Bhopal
  3. (c) Jaipur
  4. (d) Jodhpur
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Jodhpur

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Jodhpur
The Central Arid Zone Research Institute (CAZRI), established in 1959, is headquartered in Jodhpur, Rajasthan. It is one of the premier research institutes under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR). CAZRI focuses on: development of dryland and arid zone farming technologies; desertification control and land restoration; wind erosion management; conservation and utilisation of scarce water resources in arid regions; development of drought-resistant crop varieties; pasture management in arid zones. Jodhpur is strategically located at the edge of the Thar Desert, making it ideal for arid zone research.
Option 1 (New Delhi): Home to ICAR headquarters and several agricultural institutes — not CAZRI.
Option 2 (Bhopal): Home to IIFM (Indian Institute of Forest Management) and other research institutes — not CAZRI.
Option 3 (Jaipur): The capital of Rajasthan — CAZRI is not located here; it is in Jodhpur.
Atmosphere and Climate · Composition and layers of the atmosphere

Q16. Which of the following atmospheric layers contains the ozone layer, vital for absorbing harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun?

  1. (a) Troposphere
  2. (b) Mesosphere
  3. (c) Stratosphere
  4. (d) Thermosphere
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Stratosphere

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Stratosphere
The ozone layer is located in the stratosphere, approximately 15–35 km above Earth's surface (with peak concentration around 20–25 km). The ozone (O₃) in the stratosphere absorbs 97–99% of the Sun's high-frequency ultraviolet radiation (UV-B and UV-C), protecting life on Earth from harmful UV exposure. Depletion of the ozone layer (ozone hole over Antarctica) is caused by Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and other ozone-depleting substances. The Montreal Protocol (1987) is the international treaty to phase out ozone-depleting substances.
Option 1 (Troposphere): The lowest layer (0–12 km), where weather occurs and we live. Ozone here is a pollutant (ground-level ozone in smog) — not the protective ozone layer.
Option 2 (Mesosphere): Extends from 50–85 km; the coldest layer where meteors burn up. No significant ozone concentration here.
Option 4 (Thermosphere): Extends from 85–600 km; absorbs X-rays and extreme UV, contains the ionosphere — not where the ozone layer is found.

Q17. Which of the following statements about rainfall and streams in the Indian Desert are correct?
1. Streams formed during rain reach the sea.
2. Rainfall is below 150 mm annually.

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) 1 and 2 both are correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 2

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Only 2
Statement 1 (FALSE): In the Indian Desert (Thar Desert), streams formed during the rare rainfall events do NOT reach the sea. The Thar Desert is largely an endorheic (internally draining) basin. Streams are ephemeral — they form temporarily during rain, but quickly evaporate or drain into inland depressions (like salt lakes/playas such as Sambhar Lake, Didwana , Pachpadra ) rather than flowing to the ocean. The region lacks perennial rivers and has no outlet to the sea.
Statement 2 (TRUE): The Thar Desert (Indian Desert) in Rajasthan receives very low annual rainfall — generally below 150 mm per year. Many areas of the desert (like Jaisalmer, Barmer) receive less than 100 mm annually, and some hyper-arid zones even less. The low rainfall defines its arid nature.
Hydrosphere - Oceans and Water · Ocean floor relief

Q18. About ocean floor features:
1. Abyssal plains are vast, flat deep-ocean floors.
2. Oceanic trenches are typically shallow depressions.
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Statement 1 only
  2. (b) Statement 2 only
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Statement 1 only

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Statement 1 only
Statement 1 (TRUE): Abyssal plains are extensive, remarkably flat regions of the deep ocean floor, typically found at depths of 3,000–6,000 metres . They cover approximately 50% of the Earth's surface, making them one of the most widespread environments on the planet. They are among the flattest, smoothest terrains on Earth, formed by the accumulation of fine sediments (oozes) that gradually bury the uneven underlying topography.
Statement 2 (FALSE): Oceanic trenches are NOT shallow depressions — they are the deepest parts of the ocean, forming elongated depressions that can reach extreme depths. The Mariana Trench in the Pacific Ocean is the world's deepest point (~11,034 metres / ~36,089 feet). Trenches form at subduction zones where one tectonic plate dives beneath another. They are deep (not shallow), narrow, and steep-sided.

Polity (2)

State Government · Legislative Council - creation and abolition

Q19. Which state has a bicameral legislature?

  1. (a) Tamil Nadu
  2. (b) West Bengal
  3. (c) Maharashtra
  4. (d) Gujarat
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Maharashtra

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Maharashtra
Maharashtra has a bicameral legislature consisting of: the Vidhan Sabha (Legislative Assembly — lower house, 288 members) and the Vidhan Parishad (Legislative Council — upper house, 78 members). As of 2025, only 6 states have bicameral legislatures: Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana, and Uttar Pradesh. All other states have unicameral (single house) legislatures.
Option 1 (Tamil Nadu): Tamil Nadu abolished its Legislative Council in 1986 and now has only the Vidhan Sabha (unicameral).
Option 2 (West Bengal): West Bengal has only the Vidhan Sabha (unicameral) since it abolished its upper house in 1969.
Option 4 (Gujarat): Gujarat has only the Vidhan Sabha (unicameral) since its creation in 1960.
Fundamental Rights · Articles 33-35 and suspension of Fundamental Rights

Q20. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 35 is included in Part IV of the Constitution.
2. It empowers State legislatures to create special laws for Jammu and Kashmir.
3. It vests Parliament with the power to make laws for enforcing Fundamental Rights.
Which of the statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) 2 only
  2. (b) 1 only
  3. (c) 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 3 only

Correct Answer: Option 3 – 3 only
Statement 1 (FALSE): Article 35 is NOT in Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy). It is located in Part III of the Constitution, which deals with Fundamental Rights (Articles 12–35). Article 35 is the last article of Part III.
Statement 2 (FALSE): Article 35 does NOT empower State legislatures regarding Jammu and Kashmir. Article 35 gives Parliament (not state legislatures) the exclusive power to make laws for certain Fundamental Rights provisions. [Note: Article 35A, which was a special provision relating to J&K under the Presidential Order 1954, was abrogated by the Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 2019 — but that is different from Article 35 itself.]
Statement 3 (TRUE): Article 35 vests Parliament with the exclusive power to make laws for prescribing punishment for acts declared unconstitutional under Articles 17 (abolition of untouchability), 23 (prohibition of traffic in human beings), and 24 (prohibition of child labour ), and also for enforcing certain Fundamental Rights. It ensures Parliament (not state legislatures) has jurisdiction over these specific areas.

Ancient History (1)

Ancient Art, Culture and Science · Stupas and chaityas

Q21. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The construction of Stupas, Chaityas, and Viharas became a significant trend during 200 B.C.–300 A.D.
Statement II: These structures were primarily secular in nature and excluded religious significance.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) Both statements are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
  2. (b) Both statements are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
  3. (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  4. (d) Both statements are false.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Statement I (TRUE): The construction of Stupas (burial/relic mounds), Chaityas (prayer halls), and Viharas (monasteries) was indeed a major architectural trend during approximately 200 BCE–300 CE — the period corresponding to Buddhist patronage under rulers like Ashoka ( Mauryas ), Satavahanas, Kushanas , and early Guptas. Famous examples: Sanchi Stupa (Mauryan period), Ajanta and Ellora chaityas/viharas.
Statement II (FALSE): These structures were NOT secular — they were deeply religious Buddhist monuments. Stupas enshrined relics of the Buddha or Buddhist saints and were objects of veneration; Chaityas were Buddhist prayer halls with a stupa at the far end; Viharas were monasteries for Buddhist monks to live and study. These are quintessentially religious/sacred structures. Statement II is entirely incorrect.

Medieval History (1)

Delhi Sultanate · Khalji dynasty

Q22. Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Alauddin Khalji is remembered for administrative reforms and military expansion in the north.
Statement 2: Muhammad bin Tughlaq's project to transfer the capital from Delhi to Daulatabad ultimately failed.
Which of the statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2 are correct

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Both 1 and 2 are correct
Statement 1 (TRUE): Alauddin Khalji (r. 1296–1316) is indeed remembered for sweeping administrative and economic reforms (market control, price regulation, land revenue reforms, standing army reforms) and military expansion — he conquered Gujarat, Ranthambore, Chittor, Malwa (north) and also led successful campaigns in the Deccan and South India (through his general Malik Kafur). The statement is accurate.
Statement 2 (TRUE): Muhammad bin Tughlaq (r. 1325–1351) famously ordered the transfer of the capital from Delhi to Devagiri (renamed Daulatabad) in 1327, forcing the entire population of Delhi to march ~1,500 km south. The project was a catastrophic failure — thousands died during the journey, the new capital lacked water supply, and Tughlaq was forced to abandon it and return the capital to Delhi by 1335. Both statements are factually correct.

Current Affairs (1)

Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q23. PM Modi's honour in Namibia was his which number international award since 2014?

  1. (a) 25th
  2. (b) 26th
  3. (c) 27th
  4. (d) 28th
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 27th

Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s honour in Namibia was his27thinternational recognition from a foreign country or organization since he took office in 2014.
He was conferred withThe Order of the Most Ancient Welwitschia Mirabilis, which is Namibia's highest civilian award, recognizing his contributions to strengthening bilateral ties and elevating India's global stature.
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