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Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 3 January 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 48 GK / GS questions asked in Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 on 3 January 2026 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Current Affairs, Polity, Static GK, Computer, Modern History, Medieval History.

📚 48 questions🗓️ 3 January 2026⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Current Affairs (3) · Polity (6) · Static GK (19) · Computer (1) · Modern History (6) · Medieval History (3) · Economics (8) · Geography (2)

Current Affairs (3)

Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q1. Which individual received the Padma Shri in 2025 for their contributions to the upliftment of the Musahar community?

  1. (a) Sunita Williams
  2. (b) Bhim Singh Bhawesh
  3. (c) Nirmala Devi
  4. (d) Arundhati Bhattacharya
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Bhim Singh Bhawesh

Bhim Singh Bhawesh was awarded the Padma Shri in 2025 for his exemplary work in uplifting the Musahar community, a historically marginalized Dalit group in Bihar.
(a) Incorrect: Sunita Williams is a NASA astronaut of Indian origin, not a social reformer associated with the Musahar community.
(b) Incorrect: Nirmala Devi is associated with other social or political work, not specifically Musahar community upliftment recognized in 2025.
(c) Incorrect: Arundhati Bhattacharya is a former SBI chairperson and corporate leader, unrelated to this recognition.
State News · State elections and results

Q2. Mohan Charan Majhi became the first-ever BJP Chief Minister of Odisha in 2024. Whose 24-year-long tenure as CM did he end?

  1. (a) Mamata Banerjee
  2. (b) Naveen Patnaik
  3. (c) Jagan Mohan Reddy
  4. (d) Ashok Gehlot
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Naveen Patnaik

Naveen Patnaik served as Chief Minister of Odisha for 24 years (2000–2024), making him one of India's longest-serving CMs. Mohan Charan Majhi of BJP became CM after BJP's victory in 2024.
(a) Incorrect: Mamata Banerjee is the Chief Minister of West Bengal, not Odisha.
(b) Incorrect: Jagan Mohan Reddy was CM of Andhra Pradesh, not Odisha.
(c) Incorrect: Ashok Gehlot was the former CM of Rajasthan, unrelated to Odisha politics.
International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q3. During a high-level diplomatic visit in February 2025, which dignitary holding the title of 'Amir' was received in India by the Prime Minister?

  1. (a) Amir of Bahrain
  2. (b) Amir of Kuwait
  3. (c) Amir of Qatar
  4. (d) Amir of Oman
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Amir of Qatar

In February 2025, the Amir of Qatar, Sheikh Tamim bin Hamad Al Thani, visited India for high-level diplomatic talks with Prime Minister Narendra Modi, strengthening bilateral ties in energy, trade, and strategic matters.
(a) Incorrect: The Amir of Bahrain did not visit India for this particular diplomatic event in February 2025.
(b) Incorrect: The Amir of Kuwait visits India occasionally but was not the dignitary received in this specific February 2025 visit.
(c) Incorrect: Oman's head of state holds the title Sultan, not Amir, and was not the visiting dignitary in this instance.

Polity (6)

Parliament · Leader of Opposition and parliamentary terms

Q4. Rahul Gandhi was recognized as the Leader of the Opposition (LoP). This post was vacant for 10 years (2014-2024) because no opposition party had?

  1. (a) 10% of the total seats
  2. (b) 20% of the total seats
  3. (c) 50% of the total seats
  4. (d) A leader from a national party
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 10% of the total seats

Under Lok Sabha rules, to be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition, a political party must hold at least 10% of the total seats (i.e., 55 seats in a 543-member Lok Sabha). No party met this threshold from 2014–2024, leaving the post vacant.
(a) Incorrect: 20% is not the required threshold for LoP recognition under Parliamentary convention.
(b) Incorrect: 50% is far above the actual requirement; no single opposition party could hold half the seats.
(c) Incorrect: Being a national party is not the sole criterion; the 10% seat threshold is the key requirement.
Preamble, Features, Parts and Schedules · Schedules of the Constitution

Q5. How many schedules were originally included in the Indian Constitution at the time of its adoption, before later amendments increased their total number?

  1. (a) 6
  2. (b) 7
  3. (c) 8
  4. (d) 9
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 8

The Indian Constitution, when adopted on 26 November 1949 and enforced on 26 January 1950, originally contained 8 Schedules. Through various constitutional amendments, the total has grown to 12 Schedules currently.
(a) Incorrect: The original Constitution had 8 schedules, not 6.
(b) Incorrect: 7 is not the correct number of original schedules in the Constitution.
(c) Incorrect: 9 schedules is also incorrect; the 9th Schedule was added by the 1st Constitutional Amendment in 1951.
State Government · Governor - appointment and powers

Q6. Which Article outlines the Governor's discretionary powers, specifying circumstances where the Governor may act independently without the advice of the Council of Ministers?

  1. (a) Article 153
  2. (b) Article 154
  3. (c) Article 163
  4. (d) Article 167
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 163

Article 163 of the Indian Constitution provides for a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the Governor, and also specifies that in certain matters where the Governor is required to act in his discretion, his decision shall be final.
(a) Incorrect: Article 153 merely states that there shall be a Governor for each State.
(b) Incorrect: Article 154 vests executive power of the State in the Governor.
(c) Incorrect: Article 167 relates to the duties of the Chief Minister with respect to furnishing information to the Governor.
Fundamental Rights · Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22)

Q7. The 'Right to Privacy' was declared a 'Fundamental Right' by the Supreme Court. This right is now part of which Article?

  1. (a) Article 14 (Equality)
  2. (b) Article 19 (Freedom)
  3. (c) Article 21 (Life and Liberty)
  4. (d) Article 32 (Remedies)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 21 (Life and Liberty)

In the landmark judgment K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017), a 9-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court unanimously declared that the Right to Privacy is a fundamental right under Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty) of the Indian Constitution.
(a) Incorrect: Article 14 guarantees Right to Equality; it was not the basis for declaring Right to Privacy a fundamental right.
(b) Incorrect: Article 19 guarantees certain freedoms (speech, assembly, etc.); though related, the Right to Privacy was anchored under Article 21.
(c) Incorrect: Article 32 provides the right to constitutional remedies (to approach the Supreme Court), not the substantive right to privacy.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · President's Rule (Article 356)

Q8. Under which Article can the President impose President's Rule in a State if constitutional machinery fails, giving the Union government control over State administration?

  1. (a) 352
  2. (b) 356
  3. (c) 360
  4. (d) 365
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 356

Article 356 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to impose President's Rule (State Emergency) in a State if the President is satisfied, on the Governor's report or otherwise, that the constitutional machinery in the State has failed.
(a) Incorrect: Article 352 deals with National Emergency (Proclamation of Emergency due to war or armed rebellion), not President's Rule in a State.
(b) Incorrect: Article 360 deals with Financial Emergency, when India's financial stability is threatened.
(c) Incorrect: Article 365 deals with the consequences of a State's failure to comply with directions of the Union, but the actual imposition authority is under Article 356.
Union Executive · Council of Ministers and Cabinet

Q9. Which Article enshrines the principle of collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the Lok Sabha, making them accountable as a group for policy decisions?

  1. (a) Article 73
  2. (b) Article 75(3)
  3. (c) Article 74(1)
  4. (d) Article 77(1)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 75(3)

Article 75(3) of the Indian Constitution states that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha). This principle means that all ministers stand and fall together on matters of government policy.
(a) Incorrect: Article 73 defines the extent of executive power of the Union, not collective ministerial responsibility.
(b) Incorrect: Article 74(1) states there shall be a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President, but does not specifically codify collective responsibility.
(c) Incorrect: Article 77(1) deals with conduct of government business expressed in the President's name, not collective responsibility.

Static GK (19)

Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q10. Which festival in Tamil Nadu celebrates womanhood and involves swinging on decorated swings under mango trees?

  1. (a) Pongal
  2. (b) Karthigai Deepam
  3. (c) Thiruvathirai
  4. (d) Manjal Neerattu Vizha
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Thiruvathirai

Thiruvathirai is a Tamil festival celebrated primarily by women, involving swinging on decorated swings tied to mango trees, symbolizing womanhood and marking the auspicious Thiruvathirai star in the month of Margazhi.
(a) Incorrect: Pongal is a harvest festival celebrated by everyone, not specifically women swinging under mango trees.
(b) Incorrect: Karthigai Deepam is a festival of lamps celebrated in Tamil Nadu, not involving swings under mango trees.
(c) Incorrect: Manjal Neerattu Vizha is a turmeric-bathing ritual festival, different from the swings tradition.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Tribal festivals

Q11. In which state is the 'Myoko' festival, based on rotating village responsibility for rituals, celebrated?

  1. (a) Nagaland
  2. (b) Arunachal Pradesh
  3. (c) Mizoram
  4. (d) Meghalaya
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Arunachal Pradesh

The Myoko festival is celebrated by the Apatani tribe of Arunachal Pradesh. It involves rotating village responsibility for hosting rituals, feasting, and community bonding, usually held in spring.
(a) Incorrect: Nagaland hosts festivals like the Hornbill Festival, but not the Myoko festival.
(b) Incorrect: Mizoram has its own tribal festivals like Chapchar Kut, distinct from Myoko.
(c) Incorrect: Meghalaya has Wangala and other festivals, but Myoko belongs to Arunachal Pradesh.
Organisations and Headquarters · International organisations and headquarters

Q12. The headquarters of the 'International Solar Alliance' (ISA), an initiative led by India, is located in which city?

  1. (a) New Delhi
  2. (b) Mumbai
  3. (c) Gurugram
  4. (d) Bengaluru
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Gurugram

The headquarters of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) is located in Gurugram (Haryana), India, at the National Institute of Solar Energy (NISE) campus. ISA was co-founded by India and France in 2015.
(a) Incorrect: New Delhi is the political capital but ISA's HQ is specifically situated in Gurugram, not New Delhi.
(b) Incorrect: Mumbai is India's financial capital but has no connection to the ISA headquarters.
(c) Incorrect: Bengaluru hosts ISRO and tech companies, but ISA's HQ is in Gurugram.
Monuments and Heritage · Forts and palaces

Q13. Which Rajput palace is renowned for its 'mirror hall' called Sheesh Mahal, displaying intricate mirror mosaics throughout the hall?

  1. (a) Amer Fort
  2. (b) Mehrangarh Fort
  3. (c) Udaipur City Palace
  4. (d) Chittorgarh
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Amer Fort

Amer Fort (Amber Fort) in Jaipur, Rajasthan, is renowned for its magnificent Sheesh Mahal (Hall of Mirrors), featuring thousands of tiny mirror pieces embedded in intricate mosaic patterns on its walls and ceiling.
(a) Incorrect: Mehrangarh Fort in Jodhpur is famous for its sheer walls and museum, not a mirror hall.
(b) Incorrect: Udaipur City Palace is a grand lakeside palace but its primary fame is not the Sheesh Mahal.
(c) Incorrect: Chittorgarh is known for its historical fort and Vijay Stambha (Tower of Victory), not a Sheesh Mahal.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Handicrafts, textiles and GI tags

Q14. 'Ratlam Riyawan Lahsun' (Garlic), which recently received a GI tag, is from which state?

  1. (a) Gujarat
  2. (b) Rajasthan
  3. (c) Madhya Pradesh
  4. (d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Madhya Pradesh

'Ratlam Riyawan Lahsun' is a distinct variety of garlic from Ratlam district, Madhya Pradesh, known for its high sulfur content and strong aroma. It recently received a Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
(a) Incorrect: Ratlam is a city in Madhya Pradesh, not Gujarat; this garlic variety is not from Gujarat.
(b) Incorrect: Rajasthan has its own agricultural products but Ratlam Riyawan Lahsun is specifically from Madhya Pradesh.
(c) Incorrect: Uttar Pradesh is not the origin of Ratlam Riyawan Lahsun; the name itself indicates Ratlam, MP.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Handicrafts, textiles and GI tags

Q15. 'Lakadong Turmeric', a variety known for its high curcumin content, received a GI tag. It belongs to which state?

  1. (a) Meghalaya
  2. (b) Sikkim
  3. (c) Assam
  4. (d) Nagaland
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Meghalaya

Lakadong Turmeric from Meghalaya's Jaintia Hills is known for having one of the world's highest curcumin content (6–9%), significantly higher than regular turmeric. It received a GI tag recognizing its unique origin and quality.
(a) Incorrect: Sikkim is known for organic farming and cardamom, but Lakadong Turmeric is from Meghalaya.
(b) Incorrect: Assam is known for tea, but Lakadong Turmeric is specifically cultivated in the Jaintia Hills of Meghalaya.
(c) Incorrect: Nagaland has the Naga King Chilli (GI tagged), but Lakadong Turmeric belongs to Meghalaya.
Monuments and Heritage · Temples and religious places

Q16. The 'Lingaraja Temple', one of the finest examples of Hindu temple architecture, is located in which city?

  1. (a) Puri
  2. (b) Konark
  3. (c) Bhubaneswar
  4. (d) Khajuraho
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Bhubaneswar

The Lingaraja Temple, dedicated to Lord Shiva, is located in Bhubaneswar, the capital of Odisha. Built in the Kalinga style of architecture in the 11th century, it is one of the finest examples of Hindu temple architecture.
(a) Incorrect: Puri is home to the famous Jagannath Temple, not the Lingaraja Temple.
(b) Incorrect: Konark is famous for the Sun Temple (Konark Sun Temple), not Lingaraja.
(c) Incorrect: Khajuraho is known for the group of medieval Hindu and Jain temples in Madhya Pradesh, not Lingaraja.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q17. 'Gidda' is a traditional folk dance of India. Which group of people traditionally performs Gidda as part of cultural and festive celebrations?

  1. (a) Women in Punjab
  2. (b) Men in Rajasthan
  3. (c) Women in Gujarat
  4. (d) Men in Assam
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Women in Punjab

Gidda is a vibrant folk dance traditionally performed by women in Punjab during festivals, fairs, and celebrations. It features rhythmic clapping, twirling, and singing of 'bolis' (folk couplets).
(a) Incorrect: Men in Rajasthan perform different folk dances; Gidda is Punjab-specific and performed by women.
(b) Incorrect: Women in Gujarat perform Garba and Dandiya Raas, not Gidda.
(c) Incorrect: Men in Assam perform Bihu dance, not Gidda.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q18. 'Dalkhai' is a folk dance performed in which Indian state, showcasing women's rhythmic movements during festivals and celebrations?

  1. (a) Odisha
  2. (b) Assam
  3. (c) Gujarat
  4. (d) Rajasthan
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Odisha

Dalkhai is a popular folk dance of Odisha, especially performed by women of the Sambalpur region. It is presented during festivals like Dussehra, Nuakhai, and Bhaidooj, featuring rhythmic movements and songs.
(a) Incorrect: Assam is known for the Bihu dance, not Dalkhai.
(b) Incorrect: Gujarat is associated with Garba and Dandiya, not Dalkhai.
(c) Incorrect: Rajasthan has folk dances like Ghoomar and Kalbelia, distinct from Dalkhai.
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q19. Who authored 'Midnight is a Place', a historical novel set in Victorian England, focusing on society, class, and human relationships?

  1. (a) Joan Aiken
  2. (b) Enid Blyton
  3. (c) J.K. Rowling
  4. (d) Philip Pullman
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Joan Aiken

'Midnight is a Place' (1974) is a historical novel by Joan Aiken, set in 19th-century industrial England. It explores themes of society, class disparity, and human relationships through the story of two children.
(a) Incorrect: Enid Blyton wrote children's fiction like Famous Five and Secret Seven, not 'Midnight is a Place'.
(b) Incorrect: J.K. Rowling is best known for the Harry Potter series, not for historical novels set in Victorian England.
(c) Incorrect: Philip Pullman is known for 'His Dark Materials' trilogy, not 'Midnight is a Place'.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q20. Who wrote 'The Namesake', a novel exploring the Indian diaspora in America, family identity, and generational conflicts?

  1. (a) Jhumpa Lahiri
  2. (b) Arundhati Roy
  3. (c) Kiran Desai
  4. (d) Anita Desai
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Jhumpa Lahiri

'The Namesake' (2003) is a novel by Jhumpa Lahiri, exploring the experiences of an Indian immigrant family in America, themes of cultural identity, belonging, and generational conflict.
(a) Incorrect: Arundhati Roy authored 'The God of Small Things' (1997), not 'The Namesake'.
(b) Incorrect: Kiran Desai won the Man Booker Prize for 'The Inheritance of Loss' (2006), not 'The Namesake'.
(c) Incorrect: Anita Desai is a renowned Indian writer known for works like 'Clear Light of Day', not 'The Namesake'.
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q21. Who authored 'Atonement', a novel adapted into an Oscar-winning film, exploring love, guilt, and the consequences of false accusations?

  1. (a) Ian McEwan
  2. (b) Salman Rushdie
  3. (c) Kazuo Ishiguro
  4. (d) Julian Barnes
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ian McEwan

'Atonement' (2001) is a celebrated novel by British author Ian McEwan. It was adapted into an Oscar-winning film (2007), exploring themes of love, guilt, false accusation, and the devastating consequences of a young girl's lie.
(a) Incorrect: Salman Rushdie is known for 'Midnight's Children' and 'The Satanic Verses', not 'Atonement'.
(b) Incorrect: Kazuo Ishiguro is famous for 'The Remains of the Day' and 'Never Let Me Go', not 'Atonement'.
(c) Incorrect: Julian Barnes is the author of 'The Sense of an Ending' and other works, not 'Atonement'.
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q22. The 'Kyaukpyu Port' project, aimed at strategic maritime connectivity, is being developed by which country in Myanmar?

  1. (a) Japan
  2. (b) India
  3. (c) China
  4. (d) USA
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) China

The Kyaukpyu Port project in Myanmar is a key component of China's Belt and Road Initiative (BRI). China is developing this deep-sea port to gain strategic maritime access in the Bay of Bengal and the Indian Ocean.
(a) Incorrect: Japan's strategic investments in Myanmar are limited and do not include the Kyaukpyu Port project.
(b) Incorrect: India has expressed interest in Myanmar's Sittwe Port (Kaladan project), not Kyaukpyu.
(c) Incorrect: The USA is not developing Kyaukpyu Port; this is a China-Myanmar bilateral project under BRI.
Organisations and Headquarters · Regional groupings (SAARC, ASEAN, BIMSTEC, SCO, G20)

Q23. Which country is not a member of the Indian Ocean Commission (IOC), a regional organization promoting maritime cooperation among island states?

  1. (a) Comoros
  2. (b) Mauritius
  3. (c) Seychelles
  4. (d) Saudi Arabia
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Saudi Arabia

The Indian Ocean Commission (IOC) is a regional intergovernmental organization comprising five island nations: Comoros, France (for Reunion), Madagascar, Mauritius, and Seychelles. Saudi Arabia is not a member.
(a) Incorrect: Comoros is a founding member of the Indian Ocean Commission.
(b) Incorrect: Mauritius is a founding member of the Indian Ocean Commission.
(c) Incorrect: Seychelles is a founding member of the Indian Ocean Commission.
Sports · National championships - venues and winners

Q24. The 1954 National Games involved multiple sporting events to enhance competitive athletics nationwide. Which city hosted these games in 1954?

  1. (a) Calcutta
  2. (b) New Delhi
  3. (c) Bombay
  4. (d) Madras
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) New Delhi

The 1954 National Games of India were hosted in New Delhi. The National Games feature multiple sports disciplines to promote competitive athletics and sporting excellence across India.
(a) Incorrect: Calcutta hosted National Games in other years but not in 1954.
(b) Incorrect: Bombay (now Mumbai) is associated with different editions of the National Games.
(c) Incorrect: Madras (now Chennai) hosted National Games in different years.
Sports · National championships - venues and winners

Q25. The 1956 National Games featured several sporting competitions to develop national athletics. Which city hosted the games in 1956?

  1. (a) Jabalpur
  2. (b) Thane
  3. (c) Patiala
  4. (d) Calcutta
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Patiala

The 1956 National Games of India were hosted in Patiala, Punjab. Patiala has a rich sporting tradition and is home to the National Institute of Sports (NIS), India's premier sports training institution.
(a) Incorrect: Jabalpur hosted National Games in a different year, not 1956.
(b) Incorrect: Thane is not associated with hosting the 1956 National Games.
(c) Incorrect: Calcutta hosted National Games in other editions but not the 1956 edition.
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q26. 'Ayni Air Base' is an air facility that India uses for strategic purposes. In which country is this base located?

  1. (a) Kazakhstan
  2. (b) Tajikistan
  3. (c) Bhutan
  4. (d) Uzbekistan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Tajikistan

Ayni Air Base is located near Dushanbe in Tajikistan. India has used this facility for strategic purposes, making it a significant part of India's Central Asian security engagement.
(a) Incorrect: Kazakhstan hosts the Baikonur Cosmodrome (space launch facility), not Ayni Air Base.
(b) Incorrect: Bhutan does not host any Indian air bases; India-Bhutan cooperation is primarily ground-based.
(c) Incorrect: Uzbekistan does not host India's Ayni Air Base; the base is in Tajikistan.
Sports · Athletics - events, rules and specifications

Q27. What is the official weight of a men's shot put used in competitive events under international regulations?

  1. (a) 5 kg
  2. (b) 6 kg
  3. (c) 7.26 kg
  4. (d) 8 kg
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 7.26 kg

Under World Athletics (formerly IAAF) regulations, the official weight of the shot put for men's competitive events is 7.26 kg (16 pounds). For women's events, the weight is 4 kg.
(a) Incorrect: 5 kg is the weight used for some youth/junior competitions, not senior men's official events.
(b) Incorrect: 6 kg is used in some age-group categories but not the official weight for senior men's shot put.
(c) Incorrect: 8 kg exceeds the official weight; the standard men's shot put weighs 7.26 kg.
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q28. In baseball, how many strikes result in an out for the batter, following standard rules of the sport during an innings?

  1. (a) 2
  2. (b) 3
  3. (c) 4
  4. (d) 5
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 3

In baseball, a batter is called out after receiving three strikes (three missed or failed swing attempts, or pitches in the strike zone that are not swung at). This rule is fundamental to the sport and enforced in standard international baseball rules.
(a) Incorrect: 2 strikes do not result in an out; the batter gets three chances before being called out.
(b) Incorrect: 4 balls (not strikes) result in a walk (base on balls), not an out. 4 strikes is not the rule.
(c) Incorrect: 5 strikes is not a rule in baseball; the standard number of strikes for an out is always 3.

Computer (1)

Cyber Security and Viruses · Cyber laws (IT Act 2000) and CERT-In

Q29. As per the March 2025 update, which State had NOT established a Cyber Forensic-cum-Training Laboratory under the 'Cyber Crime Prevention against Women and Children (CCPWC)' Scheme?

  1. (a) Kerala
  2. (b) Rajasthan
  3. (c) Tamil Nadu
  4. (d) Haryana
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Tamil Nadu

As of March 2025, Tamil Nadu was the state that had NOT established a Cyber Forensic-cum-Training Laboratory under the CCPWC scheme, unlike most other states that had already set up such labs.
(a) Incorrect: Kerala had established a CCPWC Cyber Forensic Lab under the scheme by this period.
(b) Incorrect: Rajasthan had established its CCPWC lab, making it part of the 30 covered states.
(c) Incorrect: Haryana had also established a lab under the CCPWC scheme.

Modern History (6)

Socio-Religious Reform Movements · Ramakrishna Mission and Swami Vivekananda

Q30. Who established the Ramakrishna Mission to promote spiritual upliftment, education, and service inspired by the teachings of Sri Ramakrishna, emphasizing humanitarian and educational work across India?

  1. (a) Ramakrishna Paramahamsa
  2. (b) Vivekananda
  3. (c) Dayananda Saraswati
  4. (d) Raja Rammohan Roy
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Vivekananda

Swami Vivekananda founded the Ramakrishna Mission in 1897 to promote the teachings of his Guru, Sri Ramakrishna Paramahamsa, emphasizing spiritual upliftment, education, and humanitarian service.
(a) Incorrect: Ramakrishna Paramahamsa was Vivekananda's spiritual guru, not the founder of the Mission named after him.
(b) Incorrect: Dayananda Saraswati founded the Arya Samaj in 1875, a different reform movement.
(c) Incorrect: Raja Rammohan Roy founded the Brahmo Samaj in 1828, a separate reformist organization.
Personalities, Newspapers, Books and Slogans · Books and authors of the modern period

Q31. 'Gulamgiri', a critical work on caste oppression and social justice, was authored by which social reformer advocating equality and the upliftment of marginalized communities?

  1. (a) Jyotiba Phule
  2. (b) B.R. Ambedkar
  3. (c) Gopal Baba Walangkar
  4. (d) Periyar
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Jyotiba Phule

'Gulamgiri' (meaning Slavery) was written by Jyotirao Phule in 1873. It is a seminal work critiquing the caste system and Brahminical dominance, advocating for the equality and liberation of the oppressed castes.
(a) Incorrect: B.R. Ambedkar wrote works like 'Annihilation of Caste' and 'Buddha and His Dhamma', not Gulamgiri.
(b) Incorrect: Gopal Baba Walangkar was an early Dalit activist but did not write Gulamgiri.
(c) Incorrect: Periyar (E.V. Ramasamy) was a Tamil social reformer and author of different works on rationalism and social justice.
British Administration and Policies · Governors-General and Viceroys - events

Q32. Who served as the first Indian Governor-General of independent India, leading the transition from British colonial administration to Indian sovereignty?

  1. (a) C. Rajagopalachari
  2. (b) S. Radhakrishnan
  3. (c) Rajendra Prasad
  4. (d) Vallabhbhai Patel
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) C. Rajagopalachari

C. Rajagopalachari (Rajaji) became the first and last Indian Governor-General of India, serving from 1948 to 1950, after Lord Mountbatten's tenure ended. He oversaw the transition to a republic.
(a) Incorrect: S. Radhakrishnan served as the first Vice President (1952–1962) and second President (1962–1967) of India.
(b) Incorrect: Rajendra Prasad was the first President of India (1950–1962), not the Governor-General.
(c) Incorrect: Vallabhbhai Patel was the first Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister of India, not the Governor-General.
Gandhian Era · Rowlatt Act and Jallianwala Bagh

Q33. The Jallianwala Bagh massacre, where General Dyer ordered troops to fire on a peaceful crowd, took place in which city?

  1. (a) Lahore
  2. (b) Chandigarh
  3. (c) Amritsar
  4. (d) Patiala
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Amritsar

The Jallianwala Bagh massacre occurred on 13 April 1919 in Amritsar, Punjab, when Brigadier-General Reginald Dyer ordered his troops to open fire on a peaceful gathering of civilians, killing hundreds and wounding thousands.
(a) Incorrect: Lahore was the provincial capital of Punjab but the massacre occurred in Amritsar.
(b) Incorrect: Chandigarh was not the capital of Punjab in 1919 and has no connection to this massacre.
(c) Incorrect: Patiala is a different city in Punjab with no connection to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
Gandhian Era · Rowlatt Act and Jallianwala Bagh

Q34. After the Jallianwala Bagh massacre, the British government appointed which committee to investigate the incident?

  1. (a) Simon Commission
  2. (b) Muddiman Committee
  3. (c) Hunter Commission
  4. (d) Butler Committee
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Hunter Commission

The British government appointed the Hunter Commission (officially the Disorders Inquiry Committee, chaired by Lord William Hunter) in 1919 to investigate the Jallianwala Bagh massacre and related events in Punjab.
(a) Incorrect: The Simon Commission (1927) was appointed to review constitutional reforms, not to investigate the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
(b) Incorrect: The Muddiman Committee (1924) reviewed the working of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, unrelated to Jallianwala Bagh.
(c) Incorrect: The Butler Committee (1927) was set up to examine relations between the Government of India and the Indian States, not the Jallianwala Bagh incident.
Gandhian Era · Swaraj Party

Q35. After Gandhi withdrew the Non-Cooperation Movement, which party was formed by C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru to advocate 'Council-entry'?

  1. (a) Ghadar Party
  2. (b) Swaraj Party
  3. (c) Justice Party
  4. (d) Congress Socialist Party
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Swaraj Party

The Swaraj Party was formed in December 1922 by Chittaranjan Das (C.R. Das) and Motilal Nehru, after Gandhi withdrew the Non-Cooperation Movement, to contest elections and obstruct British rule from within the legislative councils.
(a) Incorrect: The Ghadar Party was formed in 1913 by Indian immigrants in the USA to overthrow British rule, unrelated to the council-entry controversy.
(b) Incorrect: The Justice Party was a political party in South India formed in 1917 to represent non-Brahmin communities, not formed by C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru.
(c) Incorrect: The Congress Socialist Party was established in 1934 within the Congress by socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan, much later and for different reasons.

Medieval History (3)

Delhi Sultanate · Tughlaq dynasty

Q36. Which Sultan famously shifted his capital from Delhi to 'Daulatabad' (Devagiri) in the Deccan?

  1. (a) Alauddin Khalji
  2. (b) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
  3. (c) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
  4. (d) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Muhammad bin Tughlaq

Sultan Muhammad bin Tughlaq ordered the transfer of the capital from Delhi to Daulatabad (formerly Devagiri) in the Deccan around 1327, compelling the entire population of Delhi to relocate. The plan was later reversed due to practical difficulties.
(a) Incorrect: Alauddin Khalji is known for his market reforms and military campaigns, not for shifting the capital to Daulatabad.
(b) Incorrect: Firoz Shah Tughlaq was Muhammad bin Tughlaq's successor, known for public works, not the Daulatabad experiment.
(c) Incorrect: Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq was the founder of the Tughlaq dynasty and father of Muhammad bin Tughlaq; he did not shift the capital.
Medieval Culture, Literature and Travellers · Foreign travellers

Q37. Ibn Battuta's book of travels, which describes his journey to India, is titled?

  1. (a) Kitab-ul-Hind
  2. (b) Shahnameh
  3. (c) Rihla
  4. (d) Tarikh-i-Hind
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Rihla

Ibn Battuta's famous travelogue is known as 'Rihla' (full title: A Gift to Those Who Contemplate the Wonders of Cities and the Marvels of Travelling), describing his extensive journeys including his time in India during the Tughlaq Sultanate.
(a) Incorrect: Kitab-ul-Hind is a work by Al-Biruni describing India, not Ibn Battuta's travel account.
(b) Incorrect: Shahnameh is a Persian epic poem by Firdausi, unrelated to Ibn Battuta.
(c) Incorrect: Tarikh-i-Hind is another name sometimes used for Al-Biruni's work on India, not Ibn Battuta's travelogue.
Delhi Sultanate · Tughlaq dynasty

Q38. Muhammad bin Tughlaq created a new department, 'Diwan-i-Kohi', to deal with what?

  1. (a) Tax collection
  2. (b) Agriculture
  3. (c) Justice
  4. (d) Foreign affairs
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Agriculture

The Diwan-i-Kohi (Department of Agriculture) was established by Muhammad bin Tughlaq to promote agriculture by bringing new areas under cultivation and providing peasants with monetary advances (takkavi loans).
(a) Incorrect: Tax collection was handled by the Diwan-i-Wizarat (revenue ministry), not the Diwan-i-Kohi.
(b) Incorrect: Justice was administered through the Diwan-i-Qaza (judicial department), not the Diwan-i-Kohi.
(c) Incorrect: Foreign affairs were managed by the Diwan-i-Insha (correspondence department), not the Diwan-i-Kohi.

Economics (8)

National Income · GDP, GNP, NDP and NNP

Q39. What is the full form of the economic term 'GDP'?

  1. (a) Gross Domestic Price
  2. (b) Gross Domestic Product
  3. (c) Government Dues Paid
  4. (d) General Development Plan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Gross Domestic Product

GDP stands for Gross Domestic Product, which measures the total monetary value of all finished goods and services produced within a country's borders in a specific time period. It is a key indicator of economic health.
(a) Incorrect: Gross Domestic Price is not an established economic term or acronym.
(b) Incorrect: Government Dues Paid is not what GDP stands for; it is unrelated to macroeconomic measurement.
(c) Incorrect: General Development Plan is not the expansion of GDP, which is strictly an economic output measure.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Sectors of the economy (primary, secondary, tertiary)

Q40. Which economic sector is alternatively known as the 'agricultural and related sector'?

  1. (a) Primary Sector
  2. (b) Secondary Sector
  3. (c) Tertiary Sector
  4. (d) Service Sector
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Primary Sector

The Primary Sector, which includes agriculture, forestry, fishing, and mining, is also known as the 'agricultural and related sector' because it directly involves extraction of natural resources and primary production.
(a) Incorrect: The Secondary Sector, also called the industrial sector, involves manufacturing and processing of primary goods.
(b) Incorrect: The Tertiary Sector, also called the service sector, includes banking, trade, transport, and services.
(c) Incorrect: The Service Sector is another name for the Tertiary Sector, not the Primary Sector.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Sectors of the economy (primary, secondary, tertiary)

Q41. Which economic sector is commonly referred to as the 'industrial sector'?

  1. (a) Primary Sector
  2. (b) Secondary Sector
  3. (c) Tertiary Sector
  4. (d) Service Sector
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Secondary Sector

The Secondary Sector, also called the industrial sector, involves the transformation of raw materials (from the primary sector) into finished goods through manufacturing, construction, and processing industries.
(a) Incorrect: The Primary Sector covers agriculture and natural resource extraction, not industrial manufacturing.
(b) Incorrect: The Tertiary Sector is the service sector, encompassing banking, trade, and services.
(c) Incorrect: The Service Sector is another name for the Tertiary Sector, not the Secondary (industrial) Sector.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Sectors of the economy (primary, secondary, tertiary)

Q42. Which economic sector is also known as the 'service sector'?

  1. (a) Primary Sector
  2. (b) Secondary Sector
  3. (c) Tertiary Sector
  4. (d) Agricultural Sector
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Tertiary Sector

The Tertiary Sector is also known as the 'Service Sector' because it provides services rather than producing physical goods. It encompasses banking, finance, trade, transport, communication, education, and healthcare.
(a) Incorrect: The Primary Sector is the agricultural sector, dealing with natural resource extraction and farming.
(b) Incorrect: The Secondary Sector is the industrial sector, focused on manufacturing and processing.
(c) Incorrect: The Agricultural Sector refers to the Primary Sector, which extracts and produces raw materials.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q43. To which sector did the First Five-Year Plan (1951-1956) accord the highest priority?

  1. (a) Heavy Industries
  2. (b) Agriculture
  3. (c) Services
  4. (d) Defence
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Agriculture

The First Five-Year Plan (1951–1956) of India accorded highest priority to Agriculture and Irrigation, aiming to solve food scarcity, rehabilitate the war-affected economy, and address partition displacement. It was largely based on the Harrod-Domar model.
(a) Incorrect: Heavy Industries were given priority in the Second Five-Year Plan (1956–1961), not the first.
(b) Incorrect: Services sector was not a major focus of the First Plan; the emphasis was on food production and agriculture.
(c) Incorrect: Defence was not a primary objective of the First Five-Year Plan; economic recovery and agriculture took precedence.
Agriculture and Food Security · Green Revolution and other agricultural revolutions

Q44. The 'Blue Revolution' is associated with an increase in the production of which commodity?

  1. (a) Fish and Marine products
  2. (b) Cotton
  3. (c) Jute
  4. (d) Indigo
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Fish and Marine products

The Blue Revolution in India refers to the rapid increase in fish and aquatic product production through modern fisheries development. It aims to double fish production, enhance fishermen's incomes, and boost exports.
(a) Incorrect: Cotton production is associated with specific agricultural schemes but not the Blue Revolution.
(b) Incorrect: Jute production growth is called the 'Golden Fibre Revolution', not the Blue Revolution.
(c) Incorrect: Indigo cultivation was a British colonial-era cash crop system, unrelated to the Blue Revolution.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Financial inclusion schemes (PMJDY, PMJJBY, PMSBY, APY)

Q45. Which scheme was launched to provide insurance cover against death or disability due to an accident?

  1. (a) Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY)
  2. (b) Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY)
  3. (c) Atal Pension Yojana (APY)
  4. (d) PM Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY)

The Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY), launched in 2015, is an accident insurance scheme providing coverage of Rs.2 lakh for accidental death/permanent total disability and Rs.1 lakh for partial permanent disability, at an annual premium of just Rs.20.
(a) Incorrect: PMJJBY (Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana) is a life insurance scheme covering death due to any reason (not specifically accidents), at Rs.330 annual premium.
(b) Incorrect: Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is a pension scheme for the unorganized sector, not an accident insurance scheme.
(c) Incorrect: PMFBY (PM Fasal Bima Yojana) is a crop insurance scheme for farmers, not an accident insurance cover.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q46. Which of the following was not a primary objective of the 1991 economic reforms?

  1. (a) To increase inflation
  2. (b) To integrate with the world economy
  3. (c) To reduce government control
  4. (d) To improve the Balance of Payments
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) To increase inflation

The 1991 economic reforms (LPG — Liberalization, Privatization, Globalization) aimed to integrate India with the world economy, reduce government control through privatization, and address the severe Balance of Payments crisis. Increasing inflation was never an objective — in fact, controlling inflation was a priority.
(a) Incorrect: Integrating with the world economy (Globalization) was a key pillar of the 1991 reforms.
(b) Incorrect: Reducing government control (Liberalization and Privatization) was central to the 1991 reform agenda.
(c) Incorrect: Improving the Balance of Payments was the immediate crisis trigger for the 1991 reforms.

Geography (2)

Hydrosphere - Oceans and Water · Coral reefs

Q47. The Great Barrier Reef, the largest coral reef system in the world, is located along the coast of which country, spanning over 2,300 kilometers?

  1. (a) Australia
  2. (b) Indonesia
  3. (c) Philippines
  4. (d) Maldives
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Australia

The Great Barrier Reef, the world's largest coral reef system spanning over 2,300 km, is located along the northeastern coast of Queensland, Australia. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and one of the most biodiverse marine ecosystems on Earth.
(a) Incorrect: Indonesia has coral reefs within the Coral Triangle but does not host the Great Barrier Reef.
(b) Incorrect: The Philippines is also part of the Coral Triangle but is not home to the Great Barrier Reef.
(c) Incorrect: The Maldives is known for its atolls and coral reefs, but the Great Barrier Reef is exclusively in Australia.
India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Soil erosion and conservation

Q48. Which is the main cause of desertification, leading to soil degradation, reduced vegetation, and expansion of arid regions?

  1. (a) Deforestation and overgrazing
  2. (b) Earthquakes
  3. (c) Ocean tides
  4. (d) Glacial melting
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Deforestation and overgrazing

Deforestation removes protective tree cover, exposing soil to erosion, while overgrazing strips vegetation and compacts soil, reducing its ability to retain moisture and support plant life. Together, they are the primary human-induced causes of desertification.
(a) Incorrect: Earthquakes are geological events that cause land disruptions but are not a primary cause of ongoing desertification.
(b) Incorrect: Ocean tides affect coastal areas through erosion but are not a direct cause of inland desertification.
(c) Incorrect: Glacial melting can lead to flooding and sea-level rise, but is not the main driver of desertification and soil degradation.
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