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Delhi Police Head Constable 2025-26 10 January 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 18 GK / GS questions asked in Delhi Police Head Constable 2025-26 on 10 January 2026 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Ancient History, Static GK, Polity, Biology, Economics, Geography.

📚 18 questions🗓️ 10 January 2026⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Ancient History (2) · Static GK (7) · Polity (3) · Biology (1) · Economics (1) · Geography (1) · Current Affairs (1) · Medieval History (1) · Physics (1)

Ancient History (2)

Sources and Prehistoric India · Sources of ancient history

Q1. What do prehistoric stone tools primarily help historians understand?

  1. (a) Construction of megalithic structures.
  2. (b) Early human lifestyle and survival techniques.
  3. (c) Development of written scripts.
  4. (d) Ancient trade routes.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Early human lifestyle and survival techniques.

Prehistoric stone tools provide direct physical evidence of how early humans lived, hunted, and survived. They help historians understand early human lifestyle, food procurement, tool-making skills, and adaptive survival techniques.
(1) Megalithic structures are studied separately and are not revealed through stone tools.
(3) Development of written scripts is documented through inscriptions and manuscripts, not stone tools.
(4) Ancient trade routes are studied through traded goods, coins, and archaeological sites, not stone tools.
Ancient Art, Culture and Science · Cave architecture (Ajanta, Ellora, Elephanta, etc.)

Q2. Which feature makes Ajanta murals architecturally significant in Indian art history?

  1. (a) Their placement in temple courtyards
  2. (b) Their Islamic miniature style
  3. (c) Their preservation inside Buddhist rock-cut caves
  4. (d) Their decoration of palace halls
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Their preservation inside Buddhist rock-cut caves

The Ajanta Caves, a UNESCO World Heritage Site in Maharashtra, contain extraordinary murals that are architecturally significant because they are preserved inside Buddhist rock-cut caves carved into basalt cliffs. These 2nd century BCE to 5th century CE paintings depict Jataka tales and scenes from the life of the Buddha, representing a pinnacle of ancient Indian painting.
(1) Ajanta murals are in rock-cut Buddhist caves, not temple courtyards.
(2) Ajanta murals are ancient Buddhist art, entirely unrelated to Islamic miniature style.
(4) The Ajanta caves are rock-cut monasteries and prayer halls, not palace halls.

Static GK (7)

Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q3. In which Indian classical dance form is the technique of Chhauka and Tribhangi central to its performance?

  1. (a) Kathak
  2. (b) Odissi
  3. (c) Sattriya
  4. (d) Mohiniyattam
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Odissi

Chhauka (a square, angular geometric body movement) and Tribhangi (a three-fold body bend at the neck, torso, and knees) are fundamental techniques of Odissi — one of the eight classical dance forms of India, originating in Odisha.
(1) Kathak is known for fast spins (chakkar) and intricate footwork.
(3) Sattriya is a classical dance from Assam with its own distinct postures and movements.
(4) Mohiniyattam from Kerala uses gentle, swaying movements and is not associated with Chhauka or Tribhangi.
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q4. What is the primary purpose of the IMEC (India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor) launched during G20 India 2023?

  1. (a) Military base establishment
  2. (b) Climate change resolution
  3. (c) Creating a trade route connecting India to Europe via Middle East
  4. (d) Promoting sports diplomacy
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Creating a trade route connecting India to Europe via Middle East

IMEC (India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor) was announced at the G20 New Delhi Summit in September 2023. Its primary purpose is to establish a new multi-modal trade route connecting India to Europe via the Middle East using a combination of rail and sea links, reducing transit time and costs compared to existing routes.
(1) IMEC is a trade and economic initiative, not a military alliance.
(2) Climate change is addressed through separate agreements like the Paris Accord, not through IMEC.
(4) Sports diplomacy is entirely unrelated to IMEC's trade corridor purpose.
Sports · National championships - venues and winners

Q5. In which year did Goa win the bid to host the National Games but failed to conduct them due to infrastructure and administrative delays, pushing the event several years forward?

  1. (a) 2011
  2. (b) 2015
  3. (c) 2019
  4. (d) 2022
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2015

Goa was awarded the 36th National Games in 2015 but repeatedly failed to conduct them due to severe infrastructure gaps and administrative delays. The games were postponed multiple times and were finally held in Goa in October-November 2023, nearly 8 years after the original allocation.
(1) 2011 was when the National Games were held in Jharkhand (34th edition).
(3) 2019 is incorrect; delays were already well underway by this time.
(4) 2022 was when the 36th National Games were held in Gujarat after Goa's repeated failures.
Awards and Honours · Sports awards (Khel Ratna, Arjuna, Dronacharya, Dhyan Chand)

Q6. The Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award was renamed after which athlete?

  1. (a) Milkha Singh
  2. (b) Dhyan Chand
  3. (c) Major Somnath Sharma
  4. (d) Dhanraj Pillay
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Dhyan Chand

The Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award — India's highest sporting honour — was renamed as the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in August 2021, honouring the legendary Indian hockey wizard Major Dhyan Chand, who won three Olympic gold medals for India (1928, 1932, 1936).
(1) Milkha Singh was a celebrated sprinter (the Flying Sikh); the award was not named after him.
(3) Major Somnath Sharma was the first recipient of the Param Vir Chakra; unrelated to sports awards renamed.
(4) Dhanraj Pillay is a renowned hockey player but the Khel Ratna was not renamed after him.
Space, Defence and Technology · Indian space missions

Q7. What is the main payload of Aditya-L1 to study the solar corona?

  1. (a) SUIT
  2. (b) XPoSat
  3. (c) VELC
  4. (d) RHESSI
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) VELC

The Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC) is the primary and largest payload of India's Aditya-L1 solar mission (launched September 2023). It is specifically designed to continuously image the solar corona and study coronal mass ejections (CMEs) and solar dynamics.
(1) SUIT (Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope) is another Aditya-L1 payload but studies the Sun in UV wavelengths, not primarily the corona.
(2) XPoSat is a separate ISRO mission for X-ray polarimetry and is not a payload on Aditya-L1.
(4) RHESSI (Reuven Ramaty High Energy Solar Spectroscopic Imager) is a NASA mission, not part of Aditya-L1.
Music and Musical Instruments · Musical instruments and exponents

Q8. Which of the following is a key difference in playing technique between Pakhawaj and Tabla?

  1. (a) Tabla is played standing, Pakhawaj is played sitting.
  2. (b) Pakhawaj uses flat hand strokes, Tabla uses fingertips.
  3. (c) Pakhawaj uses a mallet, while Tabla uses hands.
  4. (d) Pakhawaj uses open notes only, Tabla uses closed notes only.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Pakhawaj uses flat hand strokes, Tabla uses fingertips.

A key technical difference is that Pakhawaj (a barrel-shaped drum) is played using the full flat palm and broad hand strokes to produce deep, resonant tones, while Tabla is played using precise fingertip techniques on two separate drums (dayan and bayan) to produce a wide range of distinct tones.
(1) Both Pakhawaj and Tabla are played in a seated position; neither is played standing.
(3) Neither instrument uses a mallet; both are played entirely with the hands.
(4) Both instruments can produce various tonal qualities; neither is limited to exclusively open or closed notes.
Sports · Sports bodies and headquarters

Q9. Match the following sports federations in Column A with the correct sport in Column B. Choose the correct option.
[TABLE]
Column A: A. AIFF B. HI C. BFI | Column B: 1. Hockey 2. Football 3. Boxing
[/TABLE]

  1. (a) A-2, B-1, C-3
  2. (b) A-1, B-2, C-3
  3. (c) A-2, B-3, C-1
  4. (d) A-3, B-2, C-1
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) A-2, B-1, C-3

The correct matches are:
A. AIFF (All India Football Federation) — 2. Football
B. HI (Hockey India) — 1. Hockey
C. BFI (Boxing Federation of India) — 3. Boxing
Therefore, A-2, B-1, C-3 is the correct answer.
(2) A-1, B-2, C-3 is wrong as AIFF governs football, not hockey.
(3) A-2, B-3, C-1 is wrong as HI governs hockey, not boxing.
(4) A-3, B-2, C-1 is completely incorrect.

Polity (3)

Union, Territory and Citizenship · OCI, NRI and CAA

Q10. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the Citizenship (Amendment) Rules, 2024, and their application under the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019?

  1. (a) The Rules introduce a fixed 6-year residency requirement for naturalization, irrespective of the applicant's country of origin.
  2. (b) The Rules mandate that applicants must demonstrate proficiency in an Eighth Schedule language, with proficiency levels determined by the Central Government.
  3. (c) The Rules allow for automatic citizenship for eligible applicants upon application, without any requirement for verification or approval.
  4. (d) The Rules exclude applicants from the Inner Line Permit (ILP) regions and Sixth Schedule areas from the provisions of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The Rules exclude applicants from the Inner Line Permit (ILP) regions and Sixth Schedule areas from the provisions of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019.

The CAA Rules, 2024 specify that applicants from areas covered under the Inner Line Permit (ILP) regime and the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution are excluded from the CAA's provisions, preserving the rights of tribal communities in those regions.
(1) The CAA provides a 5-year residency requirement, not 6 years.
(2) The Rules do not mandate Eighth Schedule language proficiency levels set by the Central Government.
(3) Citizenship is not automatic — applications undergo a verification and approval process.
Judiciary · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q11. Which of the following best describes the legal mandate, jurisdiction, and functional philosophy of the National Green Tribunal (NGT) in India's environmental governance framework?

  1. (a) The NGT is a constitutional body established under Article 323A and exercises advisory jurisdiction over environmental matters, recommending actions to the Union government.
  2. (b) The NGT is empowered to hear original applications and appeals on a wide range of environmental issues, but its decisions are not legally binding and are subject to review by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
  3. (c) The NGT, established under the NGT Act, 2010, is a statutory adjudicatory body with powers equivalent to a civil court, guided by principles of sustainable development, polluter pays, and precautionary principle, and its orders are binding and appealable only in the Supreme Court.
  4. (d) The NGT is an executive tribunal under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, and functions as an appellate forum for pollution control board decisions under the direct supervision of the Central Pollution Control Board.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The NGT, established under the NGT Act, 2010, is a statutory adjudicatory body with powers equivalent to a civil court, guided by principles of sustainable development, polluter pays, and precautionary principle, and its orders are binding and appealable only in the Supreme Court.

The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established under the NGT Act, 2010. It is a statutory adjudicatory body with powers of a civil court. It is guided by principles of sustainable development, the polluter pays principle, and the precautionary principle. Its orders are legally binding and can only be challenged before the Supreme Court.
(1) NGT is not a constitutional body under Article 323A (which deals with Administrative Tribunals).
(2) NGT's decisions are legally binding, not merely advisory.
(4) NGT is not established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, nor under CPCB supervision.
Constitutional Development and Making · Drafting Committee and Dr B R Ambedkar

Q12. Who among the following played a critical role in drafting India's Constitution, was a social reformer, and is celebrated for his work toward the upliftment of Dalits?

  1. (a) Mahatma Gandhi
  2. (b) Rajendra Prasad
  3. (c) B.R. Ambedkar
  4. (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) B.R. Ambedkar

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution and is widely regarded as its chief architect. He was also a pioneering social reformer who fought against caste discrimination and dedicated his life to the upliftment of Dalits and marginalized communities.
(1) Mahatma Gandhi led the independence movement but was not the drafter of the Constitution.
(2) Rajendra Prasad was the first President of India and President of the Constituent Assembly, not its chief drafter.
(4) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel is known for integrating princely states into India, not for Constitution drafting.

Biology (1)

Diseases, Immunity and Health · Health organisations and programmes

Q13. Which of the following statements regarding hygiene practices and their role in disease prevention is incorrect?

  1. (a) Regular handwashing with soap and water is one of the most effective ways to reduce the transmission of respiratory and diarrheal diseases.
  2. (b) The use of antibiotics as a preventive hygiene measure is recommended to reduce bacterial infections in community settings.
  3. (c) Proper sanitation infrastructure, including safe disposal of human waste, is critical in preventing waterborne diseases.
  4. (d) Vaccination complements hygiene practices by providing immunity against specific infectious diseases.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The use of antibiotics as a preventive hygiene measure is recommended to reduce bacterial infections in community settings.

The use of antibiotics as a routine preventive hygiene measure is NOT recommended and is scientifically incorrect. Antibiotics are used to treat active bacterial infections — using them preventively in community settings promotes antibiotic resistance, a major global health crisis. This makes option (2) the incorrect statement.
(1) Handwashing with soap is one of the most effective ways to prevent disease transmission — correct.
(3) Proper sanitation is critical for preventing waterborne diseases — correct.
(4) Vaccination provides immunity and complements hygiene practices — correct.

Economics (1)

Industry and Infrastructure · Disinvestment

Q14. The concept of 'Minimum Government, Maximum Governance' can be traced to which aspect of the 1991 reforms?

  1. (a) Social sector expenditure increase
  2. (b) State-sponsored welfare capitalism
  3. (c) Disinvestment and reduced state role in business
  4. (d) Nationalization of critical industries
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Disinvestment and reduced state role in business

The concept of 'Minimum Government, Maximum Governance' refers to reducing the state's direct commercial role while improving governance quality. In the 1991 LPG reforms, this was reflected in disinvestment (selling government stakes in Public Sector Undertakings) and reducing state interference in business activities.
(1) Increasing social sector expenditure expands the state's role, contrary to 'minimum government'.
(2) State-sponsored welfare capitalism increases state dependency, not reduces it.
(4) Nationalization increases state control over industries — the opposite of this principle.

Geography (1)

India - Agriculture · Irrigation in India

Q15. Which is the longest irrigation canal in India?

  1. (a) East Kosi Canal
  2. (b) Sir Hind Canal
  3. (c) Yamuna Canal
  4. (d) Indira Gandhi Canal
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Indira Gandhi Canal

The Indira Gandhi Canal (formerly Rajasthan Canal) is the longest irrigation canal in India, stretching approximately 649 km from the Harike Barrage at the confluence of the Beas and Sutlej rivers in Punjab to the Jaisalmer district of Rajasthan. It has transformed the Thar Desert region into agricultural land.
(1) East Kosi Canal is in Bihar and is significantly shorter.
(2) Sir Hind Canal is in Punjab/Haryana and is shorter.
(3) Yamuna Canal serves Haryana and UP but is not the longest.

Current Affairs (1)

Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q16. The World Press Freedom Index 2024 has placed India in a relatively low rank. Which major issue is primarily responsible for this decline?

  1. (a) Closure of state-run newspapers
  2. (b) Government subsidies to media
  3. (c) Concerns over media autonomy, harassment of journalists, and online censorship
  4. (d) Increase in foreign media houses
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Concerns over media autonomy, harassment of journalists, and online censorship

India's low ranking in the World Press Freedom Index 2024 (published by Reporters Without Borders) is primarily due to concerns about restrictions on media autonomy, harassment, intimidation, and violence against journalists, detention of reporters, and increasing online censorship and curbs on digital media platforms.
(1) Closure of state-run newspapers is not specifically cited as the primary issue.
(2) Government subsidies to media do not directly explain press freedom decline.
(4) An increase in foreign media houses would generally improve, not decrease, press freedom.

Medieval History (1)

Vijayanagara and Bahmani Kingdoms · Vijayanagara administration and architecture

Q17. Which of the following statements about the administration and society of the Vijayanagara Kingdom is correct?

  1. (a) Fully centralized rule with no local control.
  2. (b) Economy relied only on subsistence farming.
  3. (c) Slavery was completely banned in the empire.
  4. (d) Nayaka chiefs managed territories under royal authority.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Nayaka chiefs managed territories under royal authority.

The Vijayanagara Empire used the Nayankara system in which Nayaka chiefs were granted administrative territories (amaram) to manage on behalf of the king. They maintained local control while rendering military service and tribute to the central royal authority — a form of decentralized feudal governance.
(1) The Vijayanagara empire had a decentralized structure through the Nayankara system, not fully centralized rule.
(2) The Vijayanagara economy was diverse — it included flourishing trade, crafts, and agriculture, not just subsistence farming.
(3) Slavery existed in Vijayanagara society and was never completely banned.

Physics (1)

Human Eye and the Colourful World · Rainbow formation

Q18. What is the main cause for the formation of a rainbow?

  1. (a) Reflection
  2. (b) Refraction and dispersion
  3. (c) Interference
  4. (d) Diffraction
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Refraction and dispersion

A rainbow is formed when sunlight enters water droplets in the atmosphere. The light undergoes refraction (bending) at entry, then internal reflection inside the droplet, and refraction again on exit. During refraction, white light is dispersed into its constituent colours (VIBGYOR — Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange, Red), creating the rainbow.
(1) Reflection alone does not cause a rainbow; refraction and dispersion are essential components.
(3) Interference is a wave phenomenon causing patterns like thin-film iridescence (e.g., soap bubbles), not rainbows.
(4) Diffraction involves bending of waves around obstacles or through slits, not the cause of rainbows.
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