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RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 13 June 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 38 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 on 13 June 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Geography, Economics, Medieval History, Static GK, Current Affairs, Chemistry.

📚 38 questions🗓️ 13 June 2025⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Geography (5) · Economics (4) · Medieval History (2) · Static GK (3) · Current Affairs (8) · Chemistry (1) · Polity (5) · Computer (5) · Modern History (3) · Ancient History (1) · Biology (1)

Geography (5)

India - Agriculture · Types of farming (shifting, terrace, etc.)

Q1. In which state is the shifting agriculture known as ‘Jhum’?

  1. (a) Madhya Pradesh
  2. (b) Odisha
  3. (c) Assam
  4. (d) Kerala
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Assam

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Islands (Andaman & Nicobar, Lakshadweep)

Q2. According to the 2011 Census, which island in Lakshadweep has the smallest population?

  1. (a) Agatti
  2. (b) Kalpeni
  3. (c) Bitra
  4. (d) Kavaratti
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Bitra

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Himalayas - ranges and peaks

Q3. What is another name for the Great Himalayan range?

  1. (a) Shiwalik Range
  2. (b) Inner Himalayas
  3. (c) Northeastern Hills
  4. (d) Central Axial Range
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Inner Himalayas

India - Population and Census · Urbanisation and migration

Q4. Which of the following urban areas is identified as Million Plus Urban Agglomerations Cities as per Census of India 2001?

  1. (a) Chandigarh
  2. (b) Kannauj
  3. (c) Dehradun
  4. (d) Lucknow
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Lucknow

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Peninsular plateau and hills

Q5. Which plateau lies between the Aravali and the Vindhya Range?

  1. (a) Deccan
  2. (b) Meghalaya
  3. (c) Malwa
  4. (d) Chota Nagpur
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Malwa

Economics (4)

Agriculture and Food Security · Agricultural policies and missions

Q6. Agro-forestry was conceived on the recommendation of which policy to promote plantation on farmlands?

  1. (a) Protection of Plant Varieties & Farmers' Rights Act, 2001
  2. (b) National Agro-forestry Policy, 2014
  3. (c) National Agro-forestry Policy, 2019
  4. (d) National Forest Policy of 2018
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) National Agro-forestry Policy, 2014

Planning and NITI Aayog · Indian economy at independence and the 1950-90 phase

Q7. During the colonial period, India's industrial development was the result of British policies. Which of the following options best describes the nature of industrial development in India at the eve of independence?

  1. (a) Limited industrial activity, mainly concentrated in a few cities like Calcutta and Bombay
  2. (b) Widespread industrial growth across rural and urban areas
  3. (c) Balanced regional distribution of heavy industries
  4. (d) Strong domestic capital goods industry in all provinces
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Limited industrial activity, mainly concentrated in a few cities like Calcutta and Bombay

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Economic Survey and economic reports

Q8. According to the NITI Aayog's policy brief 'India’s Booming Gig and Platform Economy' (2022), what is the projected size of the gig workforce in India by 2029-30?

  1. (a) 35 million
  2. (b) 45 million
  3. (c) 23.5 million
  4. (d) 50 million
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 23.5 million

Industry and Infrastructure · Industrial productivity and growth performance

Q9. Which of the following statements regarding the Industrial Sector in India is/are correct?1. According to National Manufacturing Policy 2011, every job created in the manufacturing sector creates two-three additional jobs in related activities.2. Industries add value to the existing goods and also to the skill of labour employed in it; therefore, this sector is also considered a transformational sector.3. As industries employ a large part of the population, industrial development is one of the preconditions for the eradication of unemployment and poverty from our country.

  1. (a) 1, 2 and 3
  2. (b) Only 2 and 3
  3. (c) Only 1 and 2
  4. (d) Only 3
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

Medieval History (2)

Delhi Sultanate · Sultanate architecture

Q10. Under the reign of Islamic rulers, which among the following used to be a private building?

  1. (a) Sarai
  2. (b) Katra
  3. (c) Bridges
  4. (d) Diwan-i-khas
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Diwan-i-khas

South Indian Kingdoms · Rashtrakutas (Deccan)

Q11. The Rashtrakutas dominated which part of India after the Guptas?

  1. (a) Central India
  2. (b) Deccan
  3. (c) Bengal
  4. (d) Odisha
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Deccan

Static GK (3)

Important Days and Themes · National days

Q12. In January 2025, National Youth Day was celebrated to mark the birth anniversary of which Indian leader?

  1. (a) Subhas Chandra Bose
  2. (b) Raja Rammohan Roy
  3. (c) Swami Vivekananda
  4. (d) Rabindranath Tagore
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Swami Vivekananda

Important Days and Themes · National days

Q13. On 24 January 2025, which day was celebrated to promote girls’ rights and welfare in India?

  1. (a) National Girl Equality Day
  2. (b) National Girl Child Day
  3. (c) National Girl Empowerment Day
  4. (d) National Girl Safety Day
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) National Girl Child Day

Music and Musical Instruments · Hindustani music (ragas, gharanas)

Q14. Which Hindustani music style has originated from the folk songs of the camel-riders of North-West India?

  1. (a) Dhrupad
  2. (b) Thumri
  3. (c) Tappa
  4. (d) Khayal
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Tappa

Current Affairs (8)

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q15. How many launches of the LVM-3 rocket are planned for the Chandrayaan-4 mission?

  1. (a) Two
  2. (b) Four
  3. (c) Three
  4. (d) One
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Two

Economy, Banking and Business · Business and corporate news

Q16. In February 2025, the Ministry of Corporate Affairs extended the deadline for private companies to dematerialise their securities. What is the new deadline?

  1. (a) 31 December 2025
  2. (b) 30 June 2025
  3. (c) 30 September 2025
  4. (d) 31 March 2025
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 30 June 2025

Environment and Climate - Current · Climate summits (COP)

Q17. What significant financial commitment was agreed upon during the extended session of COP16 in Rome?

  1. (a) $100 billion annually for climate adaptation
  2. (b) $150 billion annually for renewable energy
  3. (c) $250 billion annually for sustainable agriculture
  4. (d) $200 billion annually for biodiversity conservation
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) $200 billion annually for biodiversity conservation

Environment and Climate - Current · Species discoveries and conservation news

Q18. In February 2025, five cheetahs were released into which national park of India?

  1. (a) Kanha National Park
  2. (b) Gir National Park
  3. (c) Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary
  4. (d) Kuno National Park
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Kuno National Park

Environment and Climate - Current · Environmental rules, campaigns and summits - current

Q19. Which of the following authorities was strengthened in 2024 to enforce penalties and green clearances under India’s environmental regulations?

  1. (a) Central Pollution Control Board
  2. (b) Forest Advisory Council
  3. (c) National Biodiversity Authority
  4. (d) National Environment Management Authority
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Central Pollution Control Board

Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q20. What is India's Human Development Index (HDI) value in the 2025 Human Development Index Report?

  1. (a) 0.575
  2. (b) 0.675
  3. (c) 0.690
  4. (d) 0.685
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 0.685

Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Days and themes - current year

Q21. In March 2025, which anniversary of National Defence Day was observed to honour the sacrifices of India’s armed forces?

  1. (a) 87ᵗʰ Anniversary
  2. (b) 60ᵗʰ Anniversary
  3. (c) 65ᵗʰ Anniversary
  4. (d) 76ᵗʰ Anniversary
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 87ᵗʰ Anniversary

International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q22. Where was the 2024 International Conference of NGOs organised by UNESCO held?

  1. (a) Geneva, Switzerland
  2. (b) Paris, France
  3. (c) New York City, USA
  4. (d) Vienna, Austria
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Paris, France

Chemistry (1)

Chemical Reactions and Equations · Writing and balancing chemical equations

Q23. In the balanced reaction 2Al + 3Cl₂ → 2AlCl₃, what is the mole ratio of aluminium to aluminium chloride?

  1. (a) 2 : 2
  2. (b) 2 : 3
  3. (c) 3 : 2
  4. (d) 1 : 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 2 : 2

Polity (5)

Union Executive · Council of Ministers and Cabinet

Q24. In its advisory capacity, the Union Cabinet’s advice to the President of India is considered:

  1. (a) binding to the President
  2. (b) merely suggestive and non-binding
  3. (c) limited only to economic matters
  4. (d) overruled by the Speaker of the Lower House
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) binding to the President

Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Co-operative societies (Part IXB)

Q25. Who has the authority to make laws for multi-state co-operative societies?

  1. (a) State Legislature
  2. (b) High Court
  3. (c) District Collector
  4. (d) Parliament
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Parliament

Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Co-operative societies (Part IXB)

Q26. Under which List of the Indian Constitution are co-operative societies classified?

  1. (a) Residuary Powers
  2. (b) Union List
  3. (c) State List
  4. (d) Concurrent List
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) State List

Union Executive · Council of Ministers and Cabinet

Q27. Which of the following options best describes the principle of 'collective executive responsibility' as applicable to the Council of Ministers in India?

  1. (a) Ministers can opt out of collective responsibility if they disagree publicly.
  2. (b) All ministers share full responsibility for government decisions.
  3. (c) Each minister is independent and is solely accountable for his/her actions.
  4. (d) Only the Prime Minister is responsible for decision‑making.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) All ministers share full responsibility for government decisions.

DPSP and Fundamental Duties · DPSP - features and classification

Q28. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in Part IV of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Promotion of international peace and security
  2. (b) Promotion of Hindi language as a medium of expression
  3. (c) Provision for free and compulsory education for children
  4. (d) Organisation of agricultural and animal husbandry
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Promotion of Hindi language as a medium of expression

Computer (5)

Computer Memory · Memory hierarchy

Q29. In the context of computer memory hierarchy, which of the following statements regarding access speed and cost per bit is generally true as you move from registers towards secondary storage?

  1. (a) Access speed decreases and cost per bit decreases
  2. (b) Access speed decreases and cost per bit increases.
  3. (c) Access speed increases and cost per bit increases
  4. (d) Access speed increases and cost per bit decreases
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Access speed decreases and cost per bit decreases

Computer Organisation and Hardware · CPU - ALU, CU and registers

Q30. Consider a computer system with a multi-core processor. What is the primary advantage of having multiple cores compared to a single-core processor with the same clock speed when executing multiple independent tasks simultaneously?

  1. (a) Increased capacity for the system's main memory (RAM)
  2. (b) Improved ability to handle and execute multiple separate processes concurrently
  3. (c) Enhanced speed for executing a single, heavily threaded application
  4. (d) Reduced power consumption for the overall system
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Improved ability to handle and execute multiple separate processes concurrently

Computer Organisation and Hardware · Input devices

Q31. Which of the following devices can function as both input and output devices?

  1. (a) Touch Screen
  2. (b) Projector
  3. (c) Microphone
  4. (d) Scanner
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Touch Screen

Computer Organisation and Hardware · Input devices

Q32. Which of the following is an example of an input device that allows users to interact with a computer by typing text?

  1. (a) Keyboard
  2. (b) Monitor
  3. (c) Speaker
  4. (d) Printer
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Keyboard

MS Office and Productivity Tools · Keyboard shortcuts

Q33. In applications with multiple tabs (like browsers or MS Word), what does Ctrl + Tab do?

  1. (a) Switches to the next tab
  2. (b) Closes the current tab
  3. (c) Opens a new tab
  4. (d) Refreshes the tab
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Switches to the next tab

Modern History (3)

British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q34. What provision was sanctioned by the Charter Act of 1813?

  1. (a) Railways in India
  2. (b) Introduction of western sciences
  3. (c) Ban on child labour
  4. (d) Doctrine of Lapse
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Introduction of western sciences

Towards Independence and Partition · Integration of princely states

Q35. The Nizam of Hyderabad tried to project his rule as:

  1. (a) a Muslim sovereignty in Deccan
  2. (b) a Hindu monarchy
  3. (c) a secular republic
  4. (d) a British protectorate
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) a Muslim sovereignty in Deccan

Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Early civil and tribal revolts

Q36. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

  1. (a) Lushai Revolt - Assam
  2. (b) Ramosi Rebellion - Maharashtra
  3. (c) Kol Rebellion - Jharkhand
  4. (d) Heraka Movement - West Bengal
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Heraka Movement - West Bengal

Ancient History (1)

Indus Valley Civilisation · Artefacts and findings

Q37. Which material was used to make the famous 'Dancing Girl' statue that belonged to the Indus Valley Civilization?

  1. (a) Bronze
  2. (b) Cooper
  3. (c) Iron
  4. (d) Silver
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Bronze

Biology (1)

Nutrition and Digestion · Balanced diet and roughage

Q38. What is the primary reason that roughage is included in a balanced human diet?

  1. (a) It increases sugar absorption.
  2. (b) It aids digestion and prevents constipation.
  3. (c) It builds muscles.
  4. (d) It helps in fat storage.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It aids digestion and prevents constipation.

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