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RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 14 June 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 39 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 on 14 June 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Economics, Biology, Current Affairs, Modern History, Ancient History, Computer.

📚 39 questions🗓️ 14 June 2025⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Economics (4) · Biology (1) · Current Affairs (10) · Modern History (3) · Ancient History (2) · Computer (4) · Polity (5) · Static GK (2) · Chemistry (2) · Medieval History (1) · Geography (5)

Economics (4)

Agriculture and Food Security · Green Revolution and other agricultural revolutions

Q1. Green Revolution technologies heavily relied on inputs and were scale-sensitive. Why did small and marginal farmers face challenges in adopting Green Revolution technologies?

  1. (a) Limited demand for food grains
  2. (b) Scarcity of agricultural labourers
  3. (c) High input costs and credit inaccessibility
  4. (d) Excess availability of land
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) High input costs and credit inaccessibility

Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q2. Globalisation refers to the integration of economies worldwide. Which of the following was a major globalisation strategy adopted by the Indian government in 1991?

  1. (a) Reducing trade barriers and encouraging foreign investment
  2. (b) Promoting import substitution industrialisation
  3. (c) Imposing high export tariffs
  4. (d) Imposing high import tariffs
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Reducing trade barriers and encouraging foreign investment

External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Foreign exchange reserves and exchange rates

Q3. The exchange rate system was reformed to reflect market conditions. What type of exchange rate regime did India adopt post-1991?

  1. (a) Gold standard
  2. (b) Floating exchange rate
  3. (c) Managed floating exchange rate
  4. (d) Fixed exchange rate
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Managed floating exchange rate

Q4. As per the Ministry of Finance, what percentage of India's population filed income tax returns in FY 2023-24?

  1. (a) 66.8%
  2. (b) 16.68%
  3. (c) 36.68%
  4. (d) 6.68%
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 6.68%

Biology (1)

Cell - Structure and Function · Biomolecules and enzymes

Q5. Enzyme cofactors such as NAD⁺ function mainly by:

  1. (a) acting as a permanent structural component of the enzyme
  2. (b) providing a binding site for competitive inhibitors
  3. (c) lowering the activation energy by stabilising the transition state
  4. (d) increasing the overall concentration of the enzyme
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) lowering the activation energy by stabilising the transition state

Current Affairs (10)

Q6. What is the setting for Alice Feeney’s 2025 psychological thriller Beautiful Ugly?

  1. (a) A Nebraskan town during the Dust Bowl
  2. (b) East Gladness, Connecticut
  3. (c) Prague, Czech Republic
  4. (d) A remote Scottish island
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) A remote Scottish island

Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q7. During the 2025 defense expo, Gallium Nitride (GaN) Semiconductor Solutions was highlighted as a key advancement in which area of defense technology?

  1. (a) Space communications
  2. (b) Radar and electronic warfare systems
  3. (c) Combat navigation
  4. (d) Cybersecurity infrastructure
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Radar and electronic warfare systems

Q8. In March 2025, India's Parliament passed the Bills of Lading Bill, 2025. What was the primary objective of this legislation?

  1. (a) To establish new maritime boundaries
  2. (b) To regulate inland water transport
  3. (c) To modernise the 169 years old shipping law
  4. (d) To privatise major ports
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To modernise the 169 years old shipping law

State News · State schemes and events

Q9. In April 2025, in which city of India did the Central Zoo Authority (CZA) approve the city's first deer park?

  1. (a) Faridabad
  2. (b) Noida
  3. (c) Hisar
  4. (d) Moradabad
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Noida

Economy, Banking and Business · Budget and economic data - current

Q10. As per IMF’s January 2025 report, what is the projected global headline inflation rate for 2025?

  1. (a) 4.2%
  2. (b) 6.0%
  3. (c) 6.5%
  4. (d) 5.0%
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 4.2%

Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q11. Who among the following won the men’s singles title at the Indian Open 2025 Professional Squash Association (PSA) Copper event?

  1. (a) Kareem El Torkey
  2. (b) Abhay Singh
  3. (c) Marwan El Shorbagy
  4. (d) Saurav Ghosal
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Kareem El Torkey

Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q12. In January 2025, Libia Lobo Sardesai was honoured with the Padma Shri for her historical contributions. What role did she play in Indian history?

  1. (a) Leader in the anti-emergency protest movement
  2. (b) Leader in the Bhoodan land reform movement
  3. (c) Defence researcher in Post Independent India
  4. (d) Goa’s liberation movement activist
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Goa’s liberation movement activist

Economy, Banking and Business · Budget and economic data - current

Q13. In April 2025, India's trade deficit with which country widened to a record $99.2 billion?

  1. (a) Germany
  2. (b) The UK
  3. (c) China
  4. (d) The US
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) China

Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q14. Who received a Special Citation in the 2025 Pulitzer Prizes for civil rights journalism?

  1. (a) Ida B Wells
  2. (b) Ta-Nehisi Coates
  3. (c) Nikole Hannah-Jones
  4. (d) Chuck Stone
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Chuck Stone

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q15. Which of the following statements regarding the Uttar Poorva Transformative Industrialization Scheme (UNNATI), as highlighted in Rajya Sabha Unstarred Question (answered on 20 December 2024), is/are correct? The total budget outlay for the UNNATI Scheme is ₹10,037 crores, with 60% of the outlay allocated to the North East Region. Capital Investment Incentives in Zone A districts are higher than in Zone B districts. The UNNATI Scheme is effective for 10 years, with an additional 8 years for meeting committed liabilities. The UNNATI Scheme is a Central sector scheme implemented under the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region.

  1. (a) 1 and 3 Only
  2. (b) 1 Only
  3. (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
  4. (d) 2 and 3 Only
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 Only

Modern History (3)

British Administration and Policies · Civil services, police and judiciary under the British

Q16. The Indian High Courts Act was passed in the year ______.

  1. (a) 1872
  2. (b) 1909
  3. (c) 1857
  4. (d) 1861
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1861

Personalities, Newspapers, Books and Slogans · Organisations and their founders

Q17. Which Indian freedom fighter was one of the first to openly support Marxist and communist ideologies, and played a pioneering role in the labour movement and the formation of the Communist Party of India?

  1. (a) Chidambaram Pillai
  2. (b) Pulin Das
  3. (c) Purushottamdas
  4. (d) M N Roy
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) M N Roy

Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Early civil and tribal revolts

Q18. Which of the given tribal uprisings did NOT take place around the unrest during the Revolt of 1857?

  1. (a) Rebellion of Sambalpur
  2. (b) Santhal Rebellion
  3. (c) Birsa Munda Revolt
  4. (d) Naikda Movement
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Birsa Munda Revolt

Ancient History (2)

Post-Mauryan Period · Art schools (Gandhara, Mathura, Amaravati)

Q19. The Amaravati Stupa had been built by which of the following rulers?

  1. (a) Shungas
  2. (b) Satavahana
  3. (c) Mauryas
  4. (d) Guptas
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Satavahana

Q20. The evidence of the earliest cotton cultivation in the Indus valley is found at which site?

  1. (a) Mehrgarh
  2. (b) Kalibangan
  3. (c) Harappa
  4. (d) Rakhigarhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mehrgarh

Computer (4)

Computer Organisation and Hardware · CPU - ALU, CU and registers

Q21. Which of the following components is/are NOT a part of the Central Processing Unit (CPU)?

  1. (a) Registers
  2. (b) Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU)
  3. (c) Control Unit (CU)
  4. (d) Graphic Card
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Graphic Card

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Operating system - functions and types

Q22. What is the primary advantage of using a Directory Acyclic Graph (DAG) structure for file systems compared to a simple tree structure?

  1. (a) DAGs reduce disk fragmentation and improve storage efficiency.
  2. (b) DAGs allow for faster traversal and searching of files.
  3. (c) DAGs inherently provide better data security and access control.
  4. (d) DAGs enable the creation of hard links, allowing a single file to have multiple directory entries.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) DAGs enable the creation of hard links, allowing a single file to have multiple directory entries.

MS Office and Productivity Tools · Keyboard shortcuts

Q23. Which of the following keyboard shortcuts is used to insert a new slide in PowerPoint 2019?

  1. (a) Ctrl + N
  2. (b) Ctrl + D
  3. (c) Ctrl + K
  4. (d) Ctrl + M
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ctrl + M

Q24. Which action best describes the effect of applying bullets or numbering to a selection of text in MS Word?

  1. (a) It hides the selected content to protect it from being viewed.
  2. (b) It automatically splits the document into multiple sections.
  3. (c) It applies a background color to highlight important paragraphs.
  4. (d) It converts the selected text into a structured list with symbols or numbers for better organization.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) It converts the selected text into a structured list with symbols or numbers for better organization.

Polity (5)

Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Official language (Part XVII) and Eighth Schedule languages

Q25. As of April 2025, how many languages are listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) 14
  2. (b) 18
  3. (c) 22
  4. (d) 20
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 22

Local Government · 11th and 12th Schedules

Q26. How many functional items are listed in the Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution for Panchayats?

  1. (a) 21
  2. (b) 11
  3. (c) 36
  4. (d) 29
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 29

Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q27. By when must an employer deposit employee deductions with a co-operative society if wages are paid daily?

  1. (a) Before the weekly holiday
  2. (b) Within 7 days of deduction
  3. (c) Within 24 hours
  4. (d) Before the next working day
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Within 7 days of deduction

Union Executive · Council of Ministers and Cabinet

Q28. Which of the following statements best describes the Indian Union Cabinet’s role in legislation?

  1. (a) The Cabinet gives final shape to government bills and prepares the legislative agenda.
  2. (b) The Cabinet enacts laws without any involvement of any house of the Indian Parliament.
  3. (c) The Cabinet is the only law-making body in India.
  4. (d) The Cabinet has judicial authority over legislations surpassing the judiciary.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The Cabinet gives final shape to government bills and prepares the legislative agenda.

Union Executive · President - powers (executive, legislative, veto, pardon, ordinance)

Q29. How many times may the President of India ask the Prime Minister to have an executive recommendation reconsidered by the Cabinet?

  1. (a) As many times as needed
  2. (b) It is at the President's absolute discretion without limits.
  3. (c) Twice
  4. (d) Only once
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Only once

Static GK (2)

Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q30. Which of the following dance forms is often accompanied by the famous song form 'Thumri'?

  1. (a) Kuchipudi
  2. (b) Sattriya
  3. (c) Kathak
  4. (d) Chhau
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kathak

Sports · Khelo India Games editions

Q31. What are the names of the venues where the Khelo India Para Games (KIPG) 2025 was held?

  1. (a) Jawaharlal Nehru Indoor Stadium, Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium, and Talkatora Stadium
  2. (b) Jawaharlal Nehru Indoor Stadium and Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium
  3. (c) Major Dhyan Chand National Stadium, Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium, and Dr Karni Singh Shooting Range
  4. (d) Jawaharlal Nehru Indoor Stadium, Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium, and Dr Karni Singh Shooting Range
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Jawaharlal Nehru Indoor Stadium, Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium, and Dr Karni Singh Shooting Range

Chemistry (2)

Periodic Classification of Elements · Groups and periods - position of elements

Q32. Which of the following statements is NOT correct with reference to the distribution of elements in the periodic table?

  1. (a) Metals are located on the left side.
  2. (b) There is a zig-zag line separating metals and non-metals.
  3. (c) Non-metals are on the top right corner.
  4. (d) Metalloids are scattered randomly throughout the table.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Metalloids are scattered randomly throughout the table.

Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Laws of chemical combination

Q33. Which pair of compounds illustrates the Law of Multiple Proportions?

  1. (a) CaCO₃ and CaCl₂
  2. (b) NaOH and NaCl
  3. (c) HCl and HBr
  4. (d) CO and CO₂
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) CO and CO₂

Medieval History (1)

Early Medieval North India · Tripartite struggle (Palas, Pratiharas, Rashtrakutas)

Q34. The tripartite struggle for Kannauj was among the:

  1. (a) Cholas, Pandyas and Cheras
  2. (b) Chalukyas, Palas and Rashtrakutas
  3. (c) Guptas, Hunas and Palas
  4. (d) Palas, Gurjara-Pratiharas and Rashtrakutas
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Palas, Gurjara-Pratiharas and Rashtrakutas

Geography (5)

Q35. The total length of the Northern Plain of India from west to east is approximately ______.

  1. (a) 3200 km
  2. (b) 2400 km
  3. (c) 1600 km
  4. (d) 3500 km
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2400 km

Q36. The Great Plains of India were primarily formed due to the deposition by which of the following rivers?

  1. (a) Krishna, Godavari and Kaveri
  2. (b) Yamuna, Sutlej and Gomti
  3. (c) Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra
  4. (d) Narmada, Tapi and Mahanadi
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra

India - Drainage System · East-flowing peninsular rivers

Q37. Which of the following is the largest Peninsular river?

  1. (a) Kaveri
  2. (b) Mahanadi
  3. (c) Godavari
  4. (d) Narmada
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Godavari

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Islands (Andaman & Nicobar, Lakshadweep)

Q38. Narcondam Island is located in:

  1. (a) Andaman Sea
  2. (b) Lakshadweep
  3. (c) Gulf of Mannar
  4. (d) Arabian Sea
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Andaman Sea

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Islands (Andaman & Nicobar, Lakshadweep)

Q39. The channel between Minicoy and the Maldives is known as the:

  1. (a) Eight Degree Channel
  2. (b) Nine Degree Channel
  3. (c) Ten Degree Channel
  4. (d) Equatorial Channel
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Eight Degree Channel

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