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RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 14 June 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 37 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 on 14 June 2025 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Chemistry, Current Affairs, Geography, Economics, Modern History, Polity.

📚 37 questions🗓️ 14 June 2025⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Chemistry (2) · Current Affairs (8) · Geography (5) · Economics (4) · Modern History (5) · Polity (4) · Static GK (2) · Computer (4) · Ancient History (1) · Biology (1) · Medieval History (1)

Chemistry (2)

Acids, Bases and Salts · pH scale and its importance

Q1. A buffer solution has [CH₃COOH] = 0.1 M and [CH₃COO⁻] = 0.1 M. If pKa of CH₃COOH is 4.76, then what is its pH?

  1. (a) 4.76
  2. (b) 3.76
  3. (c) 5.76
  4. (d) 7.00
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 4.76

Periodic Classification of Elements · Groups and periods - position of elements

Q2. What is another name for representative elements?

  1. (a) Inner-Transition elements
  2. (b) Transuranium elements
  3. (c) Transition elements
  4. (d) Main group elements
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Main group elements

Current Affairs (8)

Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q3. Who among the following was appointed the new Director General of the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) in January 2025?

  1. (a) Gyanendra Pratap Singh
  2. (b) Anish Dayal Singh
  3. (c) Kuldeep Singh
  4. (d) Vitul Kumar
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Gyanendra Pratap Singh

Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q4. Which drama received the 2025 Pulitzer Prize for Drama?

  1. (a) The Minutes
  2. (b) Fat Ham
  3. (c) English
  4. (d) Purpose
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Purpose

International Affairs and Summits · International organisations - current

Q5. When did Algeria officially become a member of the New Development Bank (NDB)?

  1. (a) March 2025
  2. (b) May 2025
  3. (c) January 2025
  4. (d) February 2025
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) May 2025

Defence and Security - Current · Defence personnel, firsts and ceremonial events

Q6. In March 2025, where was the main event of the 56ᵗʰ Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) Raising Day celebrated?

  1. (a) Thakkolam, Tamil Nadu
  2. (b) Pune, Maharashtra
  3. (c) Gurugram, Haryana
  4. (d) Mumbai, Maharashtra
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Thakkolam, Tamil Nadu

Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q7. Who won the Champions of the Earth Award, 2024, the UN’s highest environmental recognition?

  1. (a) Sunderlal Bahuguna
  2. (b) Madhav Gadgil
  3. (c) Ramdeo Misra
  4. (d) Zeeshan Khan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Madhav Gadgil

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Health policy and programmes - current

Q8. In February 2025, the Indian government imposed a ban on the manufacture and export of which two opioid drugs due to concerns over their misuse and associated health risks in West African countries?

  1. (a) Tapentadol and Carisoprodol
  2. (b) Oxycodone and Hydrocodone
  3. (c) Codeine and Tramadol
  4. (d) Morphine and Fentanyl
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Tapentadol and Carisoprodol

Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q9. Who won the 2025 Asian Snooker Championship men's title?

  1. (a) Amir Sarkosh
  2. (b) Habib Shalaby
  3. (c) Pankaj Advani
  4. (d) Ahsan Ramzan
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Pankaj Advani

Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q10. Who won the 2025 Pulitzer for Poetry with New and Selected Poems?

  1. (a) Ada Limón
  2. (b) Tracy K Smith
  3. (c) Ocean Vuong
  4. (d) Marie Howe
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Marie Howe

Geography (5)

Environment and Protected Areas · Tiger reserves and Project Tiger

Q11. In January 2025, a camera trap in Namdapha Tiger Reserve captured an elephant after 12 years, indicating the presence of elephants in which Indian state?

  1. (a) Meghalaya
  2. (b) Arunachal Pradesh
  3. (c) Nagaland
  4. (d) Assam
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Arunachal Pradesh

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Northern Plains

Q12. What is the Great Plain of Northern India popularly known as?

  1. (a) Northern Deccan Plain
  2. (b) Himalayan Foothill Plain
  3. (c) Yamuna Valley Plain
  4. (d) Indo-Ganga-Brahmaputra Plain
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Indo-Ganga-Brahmaputra Plain

Geography Miscellaneous · Nicknames of places

Q13. Which of the following is known as the 'Steel City of India'?

  1. (a) Pilani
  2. (b) Ankaleswar
  3. (c) Indore
  4. (d) Jamshedpur
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Jamshedpur

India - Population and Census · Human settlements - rural and urban types

Q14. According to the office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, a city with a population exceeding 10 million is classified as which type of urban settlement?

  1. (a) Metro town
  2. (b) Metropolitan City
  3. (c) Mega City
  4. (d) Town
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Mega City

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Islands (Andaman & Nicobar, Lakshadweep)

Q15. Which island was renamed as Swaraj Dweep?

  1. (a) Ross Island
  2. (b) Barren Island
  3. (c) Havelock Island
  4. (d) Neil Island
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Havelock Island

Economics (4)

Economics Miscellaneous · Economic reform committees

Q16. Capital account convertibility refers to free movement of capital across borders. Which of the following committees recommended full capital account convertibility?

  1. (a) Ashok Mehta Committee
  2. (b) Rangarajan Committee
  3. (c) Tarapore Committee
  4. (d) Suresh Tendulkar Committee
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Tarapore Committee

Financial Markets and Institutions · Development financial institutions (SIDBI, NHB, EXIM Bank, IFCI)

Q17. The Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI) was established in:

  1. (a) 1956
  2. (b) 1952
  3. (c) 1948
  4. (d) 1954
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1948

External Sector and International Economic Organisations · FDI, FPI and FEMA

Q18. Which sector is the largest recipient of foreign direct investment in the first half of financial year 2024-25?

  1. (a) Agricultural sector
  2. (b) Service sector
  3. (c) Manufacturing sector
  4. (d) Mining sector
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Service sector

Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · FRBM Act and fiscal policy

Q19. Fiscal consolidation has remained a target of macroeconomic reforms. What was the targeted fiscal deficit as a percentage of GDP under the original FRBM Act 2003 ?

  1. (a) 3%
  2. (b) 4%
  3. (c) 2%
  4. (d) 3.5%
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 3%

Modern History (5)

Gandhian Era · Khilafat and Non-Cooperation Movement

Q20. Mahatma Gandhi called off the Non-Cooperation Movement after the violent incident at Chauri Chaura. In which present-day state is Chauri Chaura located?

  1. (a) Rajasthan
  2. (b) Madhya Pradesh
  3. (c) Uttar Pradesh
  4. (d) Bihar
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Uttar Pradesh

British Administration and Policies · Economic impact and drain of wealth

Q21. Commercial crops were prioritised over food crops during colonial rule. Which of the following is an example of a commercial crop promoted by the British?

  1. (a) Millets
  2. (b) Rice
  3. (c) Indigo
  4. (d) Wheat
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Indigo

Socio-Religious Reform Movements · Prarthana Samaj and Satyashodhak Samaj

Q22. The Paramhansa Sabha was founded in:

  1. (a) 1849
  2. (b) 1865
  3. (c) 1875
  4. (d) 1857
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1849

British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q23. Which act stated that the Presidencies of Madras and Bombay were to be subordinate to the Presidency of Bengal in all matters of war, diplomatic relations and revenue?

  1. (a) Charter Act of 1793
  2. (b) Charter Act of 1833
  3. (c) Pitts' lndia Act, 1784
  4. (d) Charter Act of 1813
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Pitts' lndia Act, 1784

Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Early civil and tribal revolts

Q24. In 1820-21, which tribal group led a revolt against the authorities in the area now known as West Singhbhum district of Jharkhand, which was later suppressed by the British?

  1. (a) Santhal tribes
  2. (b) Ho tribes
  3. (c) Munda tribes
  4. (d) Khasi tribes
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ho tribes

Polity (4)

State Government · Chief Minister and State Council of Ministers

Q25. Under Article 164(3) of the Constitution of India, who administers the oath of office to the State Ministers?

  1. (a) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
  2. (b) President of India
  3. (c) Governor of the State
  4. (d) Chief Minister of the State
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Governor of the State

Fundamental Rights · Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22)

Q26. Which Constitutional Amendment recognised the right to form cooperative societies as a part of Fundamental Rights?

  1. (a) 99ᵗʰ Amendment Act
  2. (b) 93ʳᵈ Amendment Act
  3. (c) 97ᵗʰ Amendment Act
  4. (d) 11ᵗʰ Amendment Act
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 97ᵗʰ Amendment Act

Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Official language (Part XVII) and Eighth Schedule languages

Q27. Which Article of the Indian Constitution promotes the spread and development of Hindi?

  1. (a) Article 349
  2. (b) Article 348
  3. (c) Article 350
  4. (d) Article 351
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 351

Local Government · Gram Sabha and three-tier structure

Q28. Which of the following correctly represents the three levels/tiers in the Panchayati Raj system in India?

  1. (a) Gram Panchayat, Block Assemblies, State Assembly
  2. (b) Gram Sabha, Municipal Council, Cantonment Board
  3. (c) Village Panchayat, Block Samiti, Zilla Parishad
  4. (d) Village Panchayat, Municipal Corporation, Zilla Parishad
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Village Panchayat, Block Samiti, Zilla Parishad

Static GK (2)

Dances · Folk dances by state

Q29. Paika is the famous folk dance of which of the following states?

  1. (a) Punjab
  2. (b) Gujarat
  3. (c) Jharkhand
  4. (d) Rajasthan
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Jharkhand

Music and Musical Instruments · Hindustani music (ragas, gharanas)

Q30. 'Vilambit' and 'Drut' are two varieties of which of the following singing styles?

  1. (a) Khayal
  2. (b) Thumri
  3. (c) Tappa
  4. (d) Dhrupad
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Khayal

Computer (4)

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Windows features and utilities

Q31. Which feature in Windows allows you to recover files that were accidentally deleted?

  1. (a) Task Manager
  2. (b) Control Panel
  3. (c) Disk Cleanup
  4. (d) Recycle Bin
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Recycle Bin

Computer Organisation and Hardware · Other hardware (SMPS, UPS, etc.)

Q32. Consider a scenario where a user is interacting with a graphical application. Which component of the computer system is primarily responsible for rendering the visual elements displayed on the monitor?

  1. (a) Motherboard chipset
  2. (b) Random Access Memory (RAM)
  3. (c) Graphics Processing Unit (GPU)
  4. (d) Central Processing Unit (CPU)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Graphics Processing Unit (GPU)

MS Office and Productivity Tools · MS Excel

Q33. Which of the following is NOT a valid way to save a workbook in Microsoft Excel?

  1. (a) Pressing 'Ctrl + S'
  2. (b) Using 'File' → 'Close'
  3. (c) Clicking 'File' → 'Save'
  4. (d) Selecting 'File' → 'Save As'
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Using 'File' → 'Close'

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Operating system - functions and types

Q34. What is the primary advantage of using a virtual file system (VFS) layer within an operating system?

  1. (a) To directly manage the physical storage devices
  2. (b) To optimise disk access speeds for specific file system types
  3. (c) To provide a consistent interface for applications to access different file systems
  4. (d) To handle the low-level details of file storage and retrieval for a single file system
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To provide a consistent interface for applications to access different file systems

Ancient History (1)

Gupta Empire · Gupta rulers

Q35. What was the name of Ramagupta's widow whom Chandragupta II marry after defeating the Saka king?

  1. (a) Devatidevi
  2. (b) Dhruvadevi
  3. (c) Yasomati
  4. (d) Kubernaga
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Dhruvadevi

Biology (1)

Heredity and Evolution · Chromosomes, genes and DNA

Q36. The inability to isolate intact DNA for structural studies prior to the 1950s was primarily due to which molecular feature?

  1. (a) DNA’s large polymeric nature and fragility
  2. (b) DNA’s high melting point
  3. (c) DNA’s interaction with histone proteins
  4. (d) DNA’s susceptibility to UV degradation
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) DNA’s large polymeric nature and fragility

Medieval History (1)

Delhi Sultanate · Tughlaq dynasty

Q37. What was the name of the new department opened by Muhammad Tughlaq for the development of agriculture?

  1. (a) Diwan-i-Qaza
  2. (b) Diwan-i-Wizarat
  3. (c) Diwan-i-Kohi
  4. (d) Diwan-i-Risalat
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Diwan-i-Kohi

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