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RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 27 March 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 38 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 on 27 March 2026 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Economics, Computer, Ancient History, Geography, Current Affairs, Biology.

📚 38 questions🗓️ 27 March 2026⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Economics (3) · Computer (4) · Ancient History (3) · Geography (3) · Current Affairs (7) · Biology (2) · Modern History (3) · Static GK (4) · Polity (6) · Physics (3)

Economics (3)

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Housing, sanitation and rural development schemes

Q1. Which central government scheme is primarily aimed at providing road connectivity to rural and remote areas in India?

  1. (a) Rural Infrastructure Development Fund
  2. (b) Setu Bharatam Scheme
  3. (c) Bharatmala Pariyojana
  4. (d) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana

Topic: Central Government Rural Development Schemes
Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY)launched in 2000.
Primary objective: All-weather road connectivity to unconnected habitations in rural areas.
Other schemes: RIDF (funding), Setu Bharatam (bridge safety), Bharatmala (national highways).
Answer: Option 4 → Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Sectors of the economy (primary, secondary, tertiary)

Q2. Identify the tertiary activity from among the following.

  1. (a) Drink industry
  2. (b) Biotechnology
  3. (c) Real estate
  4. (d) Construction industry
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Real estate

Economic Activities Classification:
Primary:Extraction of natural resources (agriculture, mining, fishing)
Secondary:Manufacturing and processing (industries, construction)
Tertiary:Services sector (trade, transport, banking, real estate)
Analysis of Options:
• Drink industry → Secondary (manufacturing)
• Biotechnology → Secondary (processing/production)
• Real estate →Tertiary (service sector)
• Construction → Secondary (building/infrastructure)
Real estate involves buying, selling, renting properties — a service activity.
Answer: Option 3 → Real estate
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Housing, sanitation and rural development schemes

Q3. As of December 2025, under the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Gramin (PMAY-G), what is the minimum size required for a house unit provided to beneficiaries?

  1. (a) 25 sq. m
  2. (b) 15 sq. m
  3. (c) 20 sq. m
  4. (d) 35 sq. m
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 25 sq. m

Topic: Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Gramin (PMAY-G)
Key Facts:
PMAY-G aims to provide pucca houses with basic amenities to rural homeless and inadequate housing families.
Under PMAY-G guidelines, theminimum size of house unit = 25 sq. m(approx. 269 sq. ft).
This includes a cooking area and ensures adequate living space for beneficiary families.
Answer: Option 1 → 25 sq. m

Computer (4)

MS Office and Productivity Tools · Keyboard shortcuts

Q4. What is the primary function of the keyboard shortcut Alt + F4 in Windows?

  1. (a) To open File Explorer
  2. (b) To switch between open applications
  3. (c) To close the active window
  4. (d) To minimize the active window
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To close the active window

Keyboard Shortcut: Alt + F4
Alt + F4 is a universal Windows shortcut that closes the currently active window or application.
Other shortcuts:
• Windows + E → Opens File Explorer
• Alt + Tab → Switches between applications
• Windows + D → Minimizes all windows
Answer: Option 3 → To close the active window
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Popular operating systems

Q5. What is one way to monitor the real-time flow of activities on a Windows computer?

  1. (a) By viewing notifications in the Action Center
  2. (b) By checking system performance in the Settings app
  3. (c) By using Task Manager
  4. (d) By analyzing processes through File Explorer
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) By using Task Manager

Topic: Windows System Monitoring
Real-time Activity Monitoring:
Task Manager provides live monitoring of:
• Running processes and applications
• CPU, Memory, Disk, and Network usage
• Real-time performance graphs
• Active services and startup programs
Access:Ctrl+Shift+Esc or Ctrl+Alt+Del
Other Options:
Action Center → Shows notifications only
Settings app → Static system info
Answer: Option 3 → By using Task Manager
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Popular operating systems

Q6. Which Windows component helps users to install, remove, or manage software?

  1. (a) File Explorer
  2. (b) Task Bar
  3. (c) Recycle Bin
  4. (d) Control panel
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Control panel

Windows Software Management Component
Control Panelis the Windows component that manages software installation and removal.
Key Functions:
• Programs and Features - Install/Uninstall applications
• Add or Remove Programs - Manage installed software
• System settings and configurations
Other Options:
File Explorer - Browse files and folders
Task Bar - Quick access to running programs
Recycle Bin - Stores deleted files temporarily
Answer: Option 4 → Control panel
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Operating system - functions and types

Q7. Who is responsible for loading the operating system into memory during the booting process?

  1. (a) CPU
  2. (b) RAM
  3. (c) ROM
  4. (d) BIOS
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) BIOS

Topic: Computer Booting Process
BIOS (Basic Input/Output System)is firmware stored in ROM.
During boot, BIOS performs POST (Power-On Self-Test).
Then locates and loads the bootloader from storage.
Bootloader then loads the OS into RAM.
BIOS initiates and controls the entire boot sequence.
Answer: Option 4 → BIOS

Ancient History (3)

Post-Mauryan Period · Shakas and Parthians

Q8. Which Shaka ruler is credited with repairing the Sudarshana Lake without imposing any tax?

  1. (a) Harsha
  2. (b) Kanishka
  3. (c) Rudradaman
  4. (d) Nahapana
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Rudradaman

Topic: Shaka Dynasty - Rudradaman I
Sudarshana Lakewas an ancient reservoir in Gujarat built during Mauryan period by Pushyagupta (Chandragupta's governor).
Rudradaman I(130-150 CE) was the greatest Shaka ruler of Western Kshatrapas.
He repaired the damaged Sudarshana Lakewithout imposing any taxon his subjects, as mentioned in hisJunagadh Rock Inscription(150 CE).
This inscription is thefirst long Sanskrit inscriptionin India.
Answer: Option 3 → Rudradaman
Indus Valley Civilisation · Major sites and their locations

Q9. In which district of Gujarat is the Harappan archaeological site of Dholavira, recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site, situated?

  1. (a) Kutch District
  2. (b) Banaskantha District
  3. (c) Patan District
  4. (d) Jamnagar District
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Kutch District

Dholavira - Harappan Archaeological Site
Location:Kutch District, Gujarat
Key Facts:
• One of the largest Harappan sites in India
• Located on Khadir Beyt island in Great Rann of Kutch
• Inscribed as UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2021
• Known for advanced water conservation system
Answer: Option 1 → Kutch District
Ancient Art, Culture and Science · Temple architecture styles (Nagara, Dravida, Vesara)

Q10. Which of the following temples is an example of Dravidian architecture?

  1. (a) Meenakshi Temple, Madurai
  2. (b) Lingaraja Temple, Bhubaneshwar
  3. (c) Sun Temple, Konark
  4. (d) Kandariya Mahadeva Temple, Madhya Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Meenakshi Temple, Madurai

Topic: Temple Architecture Styles
Dravidian Architecture:South Indian style with pyramid-shaped towers (vimanas), gopurams, and pillared halls.
Meenakshi Temple, Madurai:Classic Dravidian style temple in Tamil Nadu with towering gopurams.
Other Options:
Lingaraja & Sun Temple → Kalinga style (Odisha)
Kandariya Mahadeva → Nagara style (North India)
Answer: Option 1 → Meenakshi Temple, Madurai

Geography (3)

India - Transport and Communication · Roadways and National Highways

Q11. As of March 31, 2025, the length of National Highways in India was reported to be:

  1. (a) 91,287 km
  2. (b) 1,46,204 km
  3. (c) 1,20,076 km
  4. (d) 1,75,123 km
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1,46,204 km

National Highways Length in India
As of March 31, 2025, India's National Highway
network has expanded significantly.
The total length reported is1,46,204 km.
This represents continuous growth in road
infrastructure under various government schemes
like Bharatmala Pariyojana.
Answer: Option 2 → 1,46,204 km
India - Drainage System · East-flowing peninsular rivers

Q12. Which of the following rivers of India forms a delta on the eastern coastal plains?

  1. (a) Narmada
  2. (b) Tapi
  3. (c) Mahi
  4. (d) Godavari
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Godavari

Topic: River Deltas of India
Eastern Coast Deltas:
Godavari, Krishna, Mahanadi, Cauvery form deltas on eastern coast (Bay of Bengal).
Western Coast:
Narmada, Tapi, Mahi form estuaries on western coast (Arabian Sea).
Reason:Eastern coast has gentle slope and low wave action → delta formation.
Western coast has steep slope and high tidal activity → estuary formation.
Answer: Option 4 → Godavari
India - Drainage System · Lakes of India

Q13. Which coastal region of India is associated with the Vembanad Lagoon being separated from the Arabian Sea by narrow barrier islands?

  1. (a) Northern Circar
  2. (b) Konkan Coast
  3. (c) Malabar Coast
  4. (d) Coromandal Coast
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Malabar Coast

Topic: Vembanad Lagoon - Coastal Geography
Location:Vembanad is India's longest lake, located in Kerala.
Key Facts:
• Separated from Arabian Sea by narrow barrier islands
• Part of the Malabar Coast (Kerala coastal region)
• Largest wetland system in India
Coastal Regions:
Malabar Coast → Kerala & Karnataka (West)
Konkan Coast → Maharashtra & Goa (West)
Coromandel Coast → Tamil Nadu & Andhra (East)
Answer: Option 3 → Malabar Coast

Current Affairs (7)

Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q14. In 2025, who was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize for her fearless advocacy of democracy, free elections, and peaceful transition from authoritarian rule in Venezuela?

  1. (a) Maria Corina Machado
  2. (b) Leopoldo López
  3. (c) Michelle Bachelet
  4. (d) Juan Guaidó
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Maria Corina Machado

Nobel Peace Prize 2025
Awarded to:Maria Corina Machado
Recognition: Fearless advocacy for democracy and free elections in Venezuela
Key Role: Leading opposition against authoritarian rule and promoting peaceful transition
Context: Venezuelan political crisis and fight for democratic restoration
Answer: Option 1 → Maria Corina Machado
International Affairs and Summits · Global events and elections

Q15. In October 2025, the broad-daylight heist involving the theft of royal jewellery from the Louvre Museum occurred in which country?

  1. (a) Belgium
  2. (b) Spain
  3. (c) Italy
  4. (d) France
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) France

Louvre Museum Location
The Louvre Museum is located inParis, France.
It is one of the world's largest and most visited art museums.
The October 2025 royal jewellery heist occurred at this famous French museum.
Answer: Option 4 → France
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q16. Which of the following states finished as the overall champions of the Khelo India Beach Games 2026, held in the Union Territory of Diu, by leading the medal tally with 11 awards?

  1. (a) Maharashtra
  2. (b) Karnataka
  3. (c) Tamil Nadu
  4. (d) Goa
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Karnataka

Khelo India Beach Games 2026
Event: Held in Union Territory of Diu
Overall Champions:Karnataka
Medal Tally: Led with11 awards
Karnataka dominated the beach games across various sports disciplines including beach volleyball, beach handball, and other coastal sports.
Answer: Option 2 → Karnataka
Environment and Climate - Current · Species discoveries and conservation news

Q17. What additional species (apart from cheetahs) were released into the wild during the announcement of the third cheetah habitat at Nauradehi in October 2025?

  1. (a) Indian rhinoceros
  2. (b) Leopards
  3. (c) Tigers
  4. (d) Crocodiles
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Crocodiles

Topic: Wildlife Conservation in India (2025)
In October 2025, during the announcement of the third cheetah habitat atNauradehi Wildlife Sanctuary, the government also releasedcrocodilesinto the wild as part of conservation efforts.
This was part of India's broader wildlife restoration program alongside the cheetah reintroduction project.
Answer: Option 4 → Crocodiles
Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Books released

Q18. Who released the book 'The Emergency Diaries-Years that Forged a Leader' in June 2025?

  1. (a) Indira Gandhi
  2. (b) Narendra Modi
  3. (c) Amit Shah
  4. (d) Ashvini Vaishnaw
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Amit Shah

Book: 'The Emergency Diaries-Years that Forged a Leader'
Released in:June 2025
Released by:Amit Shah(Union Home Minister)
The book documents experiences during the Emergency period (1975-77).
Answer: Option 3 → Amit Shah
Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q19. Which missile system successfully completed User Evaluation Trials conducted by the Defence Research and Development Organisation in 2025, marking a major boost to India’s defence preparedness?

  1. (a) Astra beyond-visual-range air-to-air missile system
  2. (b) Akash Next Generation (Akash-NG) missile system
  3. (c) Prithvi-II short-range ballistic missile system
  4. (d) BrahMos extended-range cruise missile system
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Akash Next Generation (Akash-NG) missile system

Topic: Defence & DRDO Developments 2025
Akash Next Generation (Akash-NG) Missile System
Successfully completed User Evaluation Trials by DRDO in 2025.
Key Features: Advanced surface-to-air missile with improved range and accuracy.
Significance: Major boost to India's air defence preparedness.
Answer: Option 2 → Akash Next Generation (Akash-NG) missile system
Defence and Security - Current · Military exercises - current

Q20. As part of a longstanding defence relationship, India participated in the Zapad-2025 military exercise with which country in September 2025?

  1. (a) France
  2. (b) USA
  3. (c) Russia
  4. (d) China
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Russia

Topic: India's Defence Relations & Military Exercises
Zapad Exercise:A strategic military exercise conducted by Russia in its western region.
India-Russia Defence Partnership:India has a longstanding defence relationship with Russia, participating in joint military exercises regularly.
Zapad-2025:India participated in this Russian military exercise in September 2025, strengthening bilateral defence cooperation.
Answer: Option 3 → Russia

Biology (2)

Ecology and Environment · Ecosystem and its components

Q21. What is the primary role of decomposers in an ecosystem?

  1. (a) Break down organic matter
  2. (b) Capture sunlight for energy
  3. (c) Produce oxygen
  4. (d) Act as primary consumers
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Break down organic matter

Decomposers in Ecosystem
Decomposers are organisms like bacteria and fungi.
Primary Role: Break down dead organic matter (plants, animals)
into simpler nutrients.
This returns nutrients to soil for plants to reuse.
Other options: Producers capture sunlight, produce oxygen.
Herbivores are primary consumers.
Answer: Option 1 → Break down organic matter
Ecology and Environment · Sustainable development and Earth's spheres

Q22. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about functions of the Natural environment?

  1. (a) Environment supplies resources.
  2. (b) The environment sustains life by providing genetics and biodiversity.
  3. (c) Environment does not provide aesthetic services.
  4. (d) Environment assimilates waste.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Environment does not provide aesthetic services.

Functions of Natural Environment:
1.Resource Supply:Provides air, water, minerals, forests, etc.
2.Life Support:Sustains life through genetics, biodiversity, and ecological balance.
3.Aesthetic Services:Provides beauty, recreation, and cultural values (scenic landscapes, wildlife).
4.Waste Assimilation:Absorbs and recycles waste through natural processes.
Analysis:Statement 3 claims environment does NOT provide aesthetic services, which is FALSE.
Answer: Option 3 → Environment does not provide aesthetic services.

Modern History (3)

Gandhian Era · Champaran, Kheda and Ahmedabad

Q23. Which of the following pairs is INCORRECTLY matched?

  1. (a) 1917 – Champaran Satyagraha
  2. (b) 1929 – Gandhi–Irwin Pact
  3. (c) 1918 – Kheda Satyagraha
  4. (d) 1928 – Bardoli Satyagraha
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1929 – Gandhi–Irwin Pact

Topic:Indian National Movement - Key Events
Verify each pair:
Option 1: 1917 – Champaran Satyagraha ✓ (Correct)
Gandhi's first Satyagraha in India against indigo planters
Option 2: 1929 – Gandhi–Irwin Pact ✗ (Incorrect)
Gandhi–Irwin Pact was signed in 1931, not 1929
Signed on March 5, 1931 after Civil Disobedience Movement
Option 3: 1918 – Kheda Satyagraha ✓ (Correct)
Against excessive land revenue during famine in Gujarat
Personalities, Newspapers, Books and Slogans · Newspapers, journals and their founders

Q24. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the newspaper “The Hitavada”?

  1. (a) It was an English daily newspaper
  2. (b) It was the mouthpiece of the Ghadar movement
  3. (c) It was founded by Gopal Krishna Gokhale
  4. (d) It was established at Nagpur in 1911
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It was the mouthpiece of the Ghadar movement

Topic: The Hitavada Newspaper
Facts about The Hitavada:
• Founded byGopal Krishna Gokhalein1911
• Established atNagpur
• It was anEnglish daily newspaper
• Promoted moderate nationalist views and social reforms
Ghadar Movement:
• The mouthpiece was'Ghadar'newspaper, not Hitavada
• Ghadar was published fromSan Francisco, USA
• Started by Indian revolutionaries abroad in 1913
Answer: Option 2 → It was the mouthpiece of the Ghadar movement
Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Early civil and tribal revolts

Q25. The Poligar Rebellion took place in which part of India?

  1. (a) Bengal
  2. (b) Punjab
  3. (c) Maharashtra
  4. (d) Tamil Nadu
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Tamil Nadu

Topic: Poligar Rebellion (Polygar War)
The Poligar Rebellion occurred inTamil Nadu(1799-1805).
Poligars were feudal chieftains in southern India who resisted British expansion.
Major leaders: Veerapandiya Kattabomman, Marudu Brothers.
The rebellion was primarily concentrated in Tirunelveli and Madurai regions.
Answer: Option 4 → Tamil Nadu

Static GK (4)

Dances · Folk dances by state

Q26. Mayilattam is the traditional religious dance performed by the female dancers in Kerala and ________.

  1. (a) Maharashtra
  2. (b) Karnataka
  3. (c) Telangana
  4. (d) Tamil Nadu
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Tamil Nadu

Topic: Indian Classical Dance Forms
Mayilattam is a traditional folk dance form.
Mayil means 'peacock' in Tamil and Malayalam.
Performed by female dancers wearing peacock feathers.
Popular in Kerala and Tamil Nadu regions.
Answer: Option 4 → Tamil Nadu
Countries, Capitals and Currencies · Capitals of countries

Q27. Port Victoria, where the First Training Squadron completed its visit, serves as the capital port of which African island nation?

  1. (a) Comoros
  2. (b) Seychelles
  3. (c) Madagascar
  4. (d) Mauritius
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Seychelles

Topic: Geography - African Island Nations
Port Victoriais the capital and main port ofSeychelles.
Located on the island of Mahé, it is the only port and
the economic and political center of Seychelles.
Other capitals: Comoros → Moroni, Madagascar → Antananarivo,
Mauritius → Port Louis.
Answer: Option 2 → Seychelles
Music and Musical Instruments · Folk music and songs by state

Q28. Which of the following folk songs is specifically associated with Haryana?

  1. (a) Mand
  2. (b) Ragini
  3. (c) Bhatiali
  4. (d) Gulraj
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ragini

Folk Songs of Different Regions:
Mand→ Rajasthan (traditional folk music)
Ragini→ Haryana (popular folk song form)
Bhatiali→ Bengal (boatmen's song)
Gulraj→ Not a recognized folk form
Answer: Option 2 → Ragini
Sports · Olympic Games

Q29. Who won a silver medal in shooting at the 2004 Athens Olympics, India's first individual Olympic silver?

  1. (a) Sushil Kumar Panady
  2. (b) Abhinav Bindra
  3. (c) Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore
  4. (d) Rajendra Singh Shekhawat
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore

Topic: Indian Olympic History - Shooting
Rajyavardhan Singh Rathorewon silver medal inDouble Trap Shootingat 2004 Athens Olympics.
This was India's first individual Olympic silver medal.
Note: Abhinav Bindra won India's first individual Olympicgoldmedal in 2008 Beijing Olympics (10m Air Rifle).
Answer: Option 3 → Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore

Polity (6)

Local Government · 11th and 12th Schedules

Q30. The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, entrusted the Municipalities with ______ functional domains under the Twelfth Schedule of the Constitution.

  1. (a) 9
  2. (b) 10
  3. (c) 20
  4. (d) 18
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 18

74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
This amendment deals withUrban Local Bodies (Municipalities).
TheTwelfth Schedulewas added to the Constitution.
It lists18 functional domainsfor Municipalities including:
Urban planning, water supply, public health, slum improvement, urban forestry, etc.
Note:73rd Amendment (Panchayats) has 29 subjects in Eleventh Schedule.
Answer: Option 4 → 18
Union Executive · Council of Ministers and Cabinet

Q31. In what way does the Union Cabinet differ from other government committees?

  1. (a) It is elected by the public
  2. (b) It serves as the supreme decision-making body of the executive branch
  3. (c) It functions independently of the Prime Minister
  4. (d) It includes members of the judiciary
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It serves as the supreme decision-making body of the executive branch

Topic:Union Cabinet - Constitutional Position
Key Facts:
1. Union Cabinet is thecore decision- making bodyof the executive.
2. Consists of senior ministers headed by thePrime Minister.
3. All major policy decisions are taken by the Cabinet.
4. It isnot elected directlyby public but appointed by PM.
5. Works under PM's leadership, not independently.
6. No judiciary members - followsseparation of powers.
Answer: Option 2 → It serves as the supreme decision-making body of the executive branch
Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · Finance Commission

Q32. According to the Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951, the Finance Commission shall consist of:

  1. (a) A Chairman and six other members
  2. (b) A Chairman and two other members
  3. (c) A Chairman and four other members
  4. (d) A Chairman and eight other members
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A Chairman and four other members

Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951
The Act defines the composition of the Finance Commission.
Composition:A Chairman + Four other members = Total 5 members
The Chairman and members are appointed by the President of India.
Answer: Option 3 → A Chairman and four other members
DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Socialistic principles

Q33. Which Article of the Indian Constitution obligates the State to secure equal pay for men and women doing comparable work?

  1. (a) Article 39(d)
  2. (b) Article 47(a)
  3. (c) Article 38(1)
  4. (d) Article 42
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 39(d)

Topic:Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
Article 39(d)- Equal pay for equal work
States that men and women workers shall have the right to equal pay for equal work.
Other options:
Article 47 - Raising nutrition levels and standard of living
Article 38(1) - Promoting welfare and social order
Article 42 - Just and humane conditions of work
Answer: Option 1 → Article 39(d)
Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · Finance Commission

Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the Finance Commission.
1. It is a quasi-judicial body.
2. It is related to Article 280.
3. It is constituted by the President.
4. It is constituted after each 6 years.
Which of the above statements is/are correct.

  1. (a) Only 4
  2. (b) 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 1 and 2 only
  4. (d) 1, 2, and 3 only
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1, 2, and 3 only

Finance Commission - Constitutional Provisions
Statement 1:It is a quasi-judicial body ✓
FC acts as an independent body making recommendations on distribution of finances between Centre and States.
Statement 2:Related to Article 280 ✓
Article 280 specifically deals with the Finance Commission.
Statement 3:Constituted by the President ✓
President constitutes FC under Article 280.
Statement 4:Constituted after each 6 years ✗
FC is constituted every5 years, not 6 years.
Answer: Option 4 → 1, 2, and 3 only
Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Co-operative societies (Part IXB)

Q35. Which Article of the Indian Constitution mandates regular elections to the board of Co-operative Societies?

  1. (a) Article 243ZL
  2. (b) Article 243ZI
  3. (c) Article 243ZG
  4. (d) Article 243ZK
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 243ZK

Topic:Co-operative Societies - Constitutional Provisions
The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011 added Part IXB
to the Constitution dealing with Co-operative Societies.
Article 243ZKspecifically deals with elections to
the board of Co-operative Societies.
It mandates that elections to the board shall be conducted
before the expiry of the term and within six months of
supersession in case of dissolution.
Answer: Option 4 → Article 243ZK

Physics (3)

Electricity · Heating effect of current and Joule's law

Q36. According to Joule’s law of heating, the heat produced in a resistor is _____________________.

  1. (a) inversely proportional to the square of resistance
  2. (b) inversely proportional to the square of current
  3. (c) directly proportional to the square of resistance
  4. (d) directly proportional to the square of current
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) directly proportional to the square of current

Joule's Law of Heating
Formula: H = I²Rt
Where:
H = Heat produced
I = Current through resistor
R = Resistance
t = Time
From the formula, heat H is directly proportional to:
• Square of current (I²)
• Resistance (R)
• Time (t)
Answer: Option 4 → directly proportional to the square of current
Electricity · Conductors, insulators and semiconductors

Q37. Which of the following materials is a good conductor of electricity?

  1. (a) Copper
  2. (b) Rubber
  3. (c) Wood
  4. (d) Glass
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Copper

Topic: Electrical Conductivity
Conductorsallow electric current to flow easily due to free electrons.
Copperis a metal with abundant free electrons, making it an excellent conductor.
Rubber, Wood, and Glass areinsulators— they resist current flow.
Answer: Option 1 → Copper
Light - Reflection and Mirrors · Spherical mirror terminology

Q38. Identify an example of a curved mirror.

  1. (a) Ladle
  2. (b) Prism
  3. (c) Wooden spatula
  4. (d) Shining spoon
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Shining spoon

Curved Mirror:A reflective surface that is curved inward or outward.
Analysis of Options:
Ladle → Usually has a curved bowl but not reflective
Prism → Transparent glass object, not a mirror
Wooden spatula → Non-reflective flat surface
Shining spoon → Polished curved reflective surface
A shining spoon acts as both concave (inner side) and convex (outer side) mirror.
Answer: Option 4 → Shining spoon
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