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RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 22 August 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 40 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 on 22 August 2025 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Ancient History, Polity, Modern History, Physics, Geography, Medieval History.

📚 40 questions🗓️ 22 August 2025⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Ancient History (2) · Polity (6) · Modern History (4) · Physics (3) · Geography (6) · Medieval History (1) · Current Affairs (11) · Economics (3) · Computer (2) · Static GK (2)

Ancient History (2)

Sources and Prehistoric India · Palaeolithic Age

Q1. Which of the following was NOT a reason for the Paleolithic people to move from place to place?

  1. (a) Failure of crops
  2. (b) Resource exhaustion
  3. (c) Seasonal changes
  4. (d) Movement of prey animals
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Failure of crops

Gupta Empire · Gupta rulers

Q2. What was the other name of Chandragupta II, the renowned ruler of the Gupta dynasty?

  1. (a) Suryadeva
  2. (b) Dhruvasena
  3. (c) Vikramaditya
  4. (d) Karmaputra
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Vikramaditya

Polity (6)

Judiciary · Landmark judgments

Q3. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court uphold the Right to Privacy as a Fundamental Right in 2017?

  1. (a) Puttaswamy vs. Union of India
  2. (b) Indira Sawhney vs. Union of India
  3. (c) Navtej Singh Johar vs. Union of India
  4. (d) Shreya Singhal vs. Union of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Puttaswamy vs. Union of India

Amendments and Important Articles · Basic structure doctrine

Q4. What did the Supreme Court decide in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) about the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution of India?

  1. (a) The Parliament cannot amend any part of the Constitution under any circumstances.
  2. (b) The Parliament can amend the Constitution, but it cannot change or destroy its basic structure or essential features.
  3. (c) The President of India has the ultimate authority to approve or reject constitutional amendments independently.
  4. (d) The Parliament has unlimited power to amend any part of the Constitution, including the Fundamental Rights.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The Parliament can amend the Constitution, but it cannot change or destroy its basic structure or essential features.

DPSP and Fundamental Duties · DPSP - features and classification

Q5. Which Article of the Indian Constitution states that Directive Principles are not enforceable by any court?

  1. (a) Article 36
  2. (b) Article 39
  3. (c) Article 37
  4. (d) Article 38
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 37

Fundamental Rights · Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32) and writs

Q6. Which constitutional Articles ensure the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and High Courts for enforcing fundamental rights, including RTI?

  1. (a) Articles 21 and 39
  2. (b) Articles 51 and 356
  3. (c) Articles 14 and 15
  4. (d) Articles 32 and 226
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Articles 32 and 226

Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Special provisions for SCs, STs and backward classes (Articles 330-342)

Q7. According to Article 335 of the Constitution of India, claims of SCs and STs shall be taken into consideration in matters of:

  1. (a) public employment
  2. (b) land acquisition
  3. (c) taxation policies
  4. (d) religious freedom
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) public employment

Parliament · Parliamentary committees

Q8. Which of the following Committees is a Standing Committee of the Parliament?

  1. (a) Joint Parliamentary Committee on 2G Spectrum
  2. (b) Delimitation Commission
  3. (c) Select Committee on a Bill
  4. (d) Public Accounts Committee
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Public Accounts Committee

Modern History (4)

British Administration and Policies · Economic impact and drain of wealth

Q9. What was the main motive of British colonial rule in India?

  1. (a) Social development of India
  2. (b) Welfare of Indian farmers
  3. (c) Industrialisation of India
  4. (d) Economic exploitation of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Economic exploitation of India

British Administration and Policies · Land revenue systems (Permanent, Ryotwari, Mahalwari)

Q10. Which of the following statements regarding the Ryotwari settlement is correct? It was developed by Thomas Munro. The settlement was made directly with the cultivators, not zamindars. It was tested on a small scale in the annexed territories of Tipu. Finding it successful, it was then applied in the Ganga plains.Select the correct combination:

  1. (a) 1 and 2 only
  2. (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
  4. (d) 1 only
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3 only

Advent of Europeans and British Expansion · Dutch, Danish and French

Q11. Pondicherry was captured by the Dutch in 1693 but was returned to the French company by the Treaty of Ryswick in _______.

  1. (a) 1704
  2. (b) 1741
  3. (c) 1699
  4. (d) 1696
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1699

British Administration and Policies · Education policies and commissions

Q12. The introduction of English education in India was promoted through which of the following documents?

  1. (a) Charter Act of 1813
  2. (b) Regulating Act
  3. (c) Macaulay’s Minute
  4. (d) Pitts India Act
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Macaulay’s Minute

Physics (3)

Light - Refraction and Lenses · Total internal reflection and optical fibre

Q13. What is the condition for total internal reflection to occur?

  1. (a) Light must travel from a denser to a rarer medium at an angle greater than the critical angle.
  2. (b) Light must travel from a rarer medium to a denser medium at an angle of 90°.
  3. (c) Light must strike the boundary at 90° to the normal separating any two mediums of different refractive indices.
  4. (d) The refractive indices of both media must be equal.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Light must travel from a denser to a rarer medium at an angle greater than the critical angle.

Force and Laws of Motion · Impulse

Q14. Which of the following best defines impulse in mechanics?

  1. (a) The product of force and the time for which it acts
  2. (b) The product of mass and velocity
  3. (c) The rate of change of momentum multiplied by the distance
  4. (d) The change in displacement over time
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The product of force and the time for which it acts

Modern Physics and Electronics · Radioactivity (alpha, beta, gamma) and half-life

Q15. What is the value of one roentgen (R) when expressed in SI units?

  1. (a) 1.6×10−¹⁹ coulombs
  2. (b) 1.0×10−³ grays
  3. (c) 2.58×10−⁴ coulombs per kilogram
  4. (d) 3.7×10¹⁰ disintegrations per second
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2.58×10−⁴ coulombs per kilogram

Geography (6)

India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Forest types and distribution

Q16. Littoral forests are most associated with which kind of ecosystem?

  1. (a) Tundra ecosystem
  2. (b) Grassland ecosystem
  3. (c) Desert ecosystem
  4. (d) Wetland ecosystem
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Wetland ecosystem

India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Indian monsoon - mechanism

Q17. What is the primary cause of southwest monsoon in India?

  1. (a) Tidal effects
  2. (b) Local winds from the desert
  3. (c) Westerly winds from the Atlantic
  4. (d) Differential heating of land and sea
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Differential heating of land and sea

India - Transport and Communication · Transport geography - modes and networks

Q18. Which mode of transport is most suitable for transporting heavy and bulky goods over long distances?

  1. (a) Railways
  2. (b) Roadways
  3. (c) Pipelines
  4. (d) Airways
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Railways

Atmosphere and Climate · Humidity, clouds and precipitation

Q19. Which of the following is responsible for causing convectional rainfall?

  1. (a) Intense surface heating causing air to rise
  2. (b) Mountains forcing air to rise
  3. (c) Cold and warm air masses meeting
  4. (d) Cyclonic movements
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Intense surface heating causing air to rise

Geography Miscellaneous · Disaster management

Q20. Which of the following is the most effective step for mitigating the impact of an earthquake?

  1. (a) Water harvesting
  2. (b) Deforestation
  3. (c) Flood barriers
  4. (d) Seismic zoning and earthquake-resistant buildings
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Seismic zoning and earthquake-resistant buildings

India - Agriculture · Food crops and leading states

Q21. Why is wheat grown in the north-western plains of India?

  1. (a) Because the region has red soil with limited annual rainfall
  2. (b) Because it receives heavy rainfall during the monsoon
  3. (c) Because it lies close to the coastal water bodies
  4. (d) Because the region has fertile alluvial soil and cool winters
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Because the region has fertile alluvial soil and cool winters

Medieval History (1)

Delhi Sultanate · Sultanate literature and scholars

Q22. Amir Khusrau is known for contributing to which two languages?

  1. (a) Bengali and Punjabi
  2. (b) Marathi and Gujarati
  3. (c) Persian and Hindavi
  4. (d) Sanskrit and Tamil
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Persian and Hindavi

Current Affairs (11)

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Research breakthroughs - current

Q23. Which of the following institutes proposed development of world’s smallest semiconductors chip in 2025?

  1. (a) BARC
  2. (b) IIT Delhi
  3. (c) DRDO Research Lab
  4. (d) Indian Institute of Science
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Indian Institute of Science

Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q24. The Women’s Kabaddi World Cup scheduled for June 2025, was announced to be hosted in which location in India?

  1. (a) Kolkata
  2. (b) Ahmedabad
  3. (c) Rajgir
  4. (d) Chennai
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Rajgir

Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q25. On 25 April 2025, DRDO achieved a significant milestone by conducting a long-duration ground test of an active cooled scramjet subscale combustor. How long did this test last?

  1. (a) 500 seconds
  2. (b) 1,500 seconds
  3. (c) 1,000 seconds
  4. (d) 120 seconds
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1,000 seconds

Reports, Indices and Rankings · Reports and their publishers

Q26. The 12ᵗʰ edition of the Global Terrorism Report Index (GTI) 2025 was published by _____.

  1. (a) The Institute of Economic and Peace
  2. (b) The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime
  3. (c) The United Nations Office to Counter Terrorism
  4. (d) The UN Counter-Terrorism Centre
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The Institute of Economic and Peace

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Policies, laws and bills

Q27. According to the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025, within how many days can an appeal be made in the High Court on the order of the Waqf Tribunal?

  1. (a) 70 days
  2. (b) 90 days
  3. (c) 50 days
  4. (d) 120 days
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 90 days

Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q28. Who was honoured with the Padma Bhushan in 2025 for their contributions to Indian cinema?

  1. (a) Shekhar Kapur
  2. (b) Mukesh Khanna
  3. (c) Subhash Ghai
  4. (d) Aamir Khan
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Shekhar Kapur

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Policies, laws and bills

Q29. The Union Territories Laws (Amendment) Bill, which was introduced in the Lok Sabha on 17 December 2024, amends how many Acts?

  1. (a) 3
  2. (b) 5
  3. (c) 4
  4. (d) 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 3

State News · State schemes and events

Q30. How many Khelo India centres did the Delhi government propose to establish in June 2025?

  1. (a) Six
  2. (b) Two
  3. (c) Eight
  4. (d) Ten
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Six

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Technology launches and AI

Q31. What is 'Google Beam' introduced under Project Starline?

  1. (a) An AI-powered video communication platform aiming to redefine virtual interactions
  2. (b) A hardware device for enhancing internet speed in rural areas
  3. (c) A new satellite launched by Google for global internet coverage
  4. (d) A language translation tool for real-time communication
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) An AI-powered video communication platform aiming to redefine virtual interactions

Awards and Honours - Current · Sports and film awards - current

Q32. Which of the following players was named the Men's Player of the Year at the All India Football Federation (AIFF) Awards in May 2025?

  1. (a) Sandesh Jhingan
  2. (b) Gurpreet Singh Sandhu
  3. (c) Subhasish Bose
  4. (d) Sunil Chhetri
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Subhasish Bose

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Technology launches and AI

Q33. What is the name of India's high-resolution weather forecasting system launched in May 2025?

  1. (a) Bharat Forecasting System
  2. (b) National Weather Grid
  3. (c) India Climate Monitor
  4. (d) Bharat Weather Network
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Bharat Forecasting System

Economics (3)

Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Poverty alleviation and employment programmes (MGNREGA, etc.)

Q34. In which of the following years was the Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY) launched with the aim to bring the assisted poor families (Swarozgaris) above the poverty line by organising them into Self Help Groups (SHGs) through a mix of bank credit and government subsidies?

  1. (a) 1994
  2. (b) 1991
  3. (c) 2003
  4. (d) 1999
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1999

Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q35. What was the main objective of India’s First Five Year Plan (1951–56)?

  1. (a) Agricultural development
  2. (b) Privatisation of PSUs
  3. (c) Growth of IT services
  4. (d) Heavy industrialisation
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Agricultural development

Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Human Development Index and UNDP

Q36. The Human Development Index emphasises people-centric development. Who is credited with creating the HDI alongside Amartya Sen?

  1. (a) Jean Drèze
  2. (b) Mahbub ul Haq
  3. (c) Kaushik Basu
  4. (d) Manmohan Singh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Mahbub ul Haq

Computer (2)

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Windows features and utilities

Q37. Which of the following elements provides access to system settings, installed programs, and power options from the desktop?

  1. (a) File Explorer
  2. (b) Notification Area
  3. (c) Start Menu
  4. (d) Taskbar
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Start Menu

MS Office and Productivity Tools · Keyboard shortcuts

Q38. Which keyboard button is used as a shortcut to rename a selected file or folder in Windows?

  1. (a) F5
  2. (b) F2
  3. (c) Ctrl
  4. (d) Esc
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) F2

Static GK (2)

Indian Railways · Railway Board and administration

Q39. Who introduced the Railways (Amendment) Bill that was passed in the Rajya Sabha in March 2025?

  1. (a) Sarbananda Sonowal
  2. (b) Hardeep Singh Puri
  3. (c) Kiren Rijiju
  4. (d) Ashwini Vaishnaw
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ashwini Vaishnaw

Dances · Folk dances by state

Q40. Jhumur, a traditional folk dance, originated in which of the following Indian states?

  1. (a) Gujarat
  2. (b) Assam
  3. (c) Punjab
  4. (d) Kerala
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Assam

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