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RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 28 August 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 39 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 on 28 August 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Geography, Ancient History, Current Affairs, Computer, Static GK, Biology.

📚 39 questions🗓️ 28 August 2025⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Geography (7) · Ancient History (2) · Current Affairs (9) · Computer (2) · Static GK (5) · Biology (2) · Polity (4) · Economics (4) · Chemistry (1) · Modern History (3)

Geography (7)

India - Drainage System · West-flowing rivers

Q1. Which of the following rivers flows through a small part of the Great Indian Desert?

  1. (a) Mahanadi
  2. (b) Luni
  3. (c) Satluj
  4. (d) Ravi
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Luni

Environment and Protected Areas · Biosphere reserves

Q2. Sharing borders with the states of Kerala and Karnataka, Mudumalai National Park of Tamil Nadu is a part of which biosphere reserve of India?

  1. (a) Nokrek Biosphere Reserve
  2. (b) Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve
  3. (c) Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve
  4. (d) Kangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve

Universe and Solar System · Universe, galaxies and Big Bang

Q3. Which theory suggests that planets were formed out of a cloud of material surrounding a young Sun?

  1. (a) Collision Theory
  2. (b) Binary Star Hypothesis
  3. (c) Big Bang Theory
  4. (d) Nebular Hypothesis
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Nebular Hypothesis

India - Drainage System · Dams and river valley projects

Q4. The Pochampad Dam is also known as _____________.

  1. (a) Sri Rama Sagar Project
  2. (b) Hirakud Project
  3. (c) Nagarjuna Sagar Project
  4. (d) Bhakra Nangal Project
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sri Rama Sagar Project

India - Drainage System · Dams and river valley projects

Q5. The Koyna Project is constructed on a tributary of the River Krishna in which state?

  1. (a) Tamil Nadu
  2. (b) Maharashtra
  3. (c) Karnataka
  4. (d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Maharashtra

India - Transport and Communication · Roadways and National Highways

Q6. In which of the following years was the Bharatmala Pariyojana approved by the Government of India covering a length of 34,800 km to improve connectivity and reduce logistics cost in the country?

  1. (a) 2022
  2. (b) 2014
  3. (c) 2017
  4. (d) 2024
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2017

India - Transport and Communication · Metro rail and urban transport

Q7. In which of the following years was Delhi Metro Rail Corporation established?

  1. (a) 1997
  2. (b) 1992
  3. (c) 1995
  4. (d) 1999
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1995

Ancient History (2)

Buddhism, Jainism and Other Sects · Gautama Buddha - life events

Q8. At what age did Gautama Buddha attain Enlightenment (Nirvana) at Bodh Gaya in Bihar?

  1. (a) 49 years
  2. (b) 42 years
  3. (c) 35 years
  4. (d) 29 years
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 35 years

Vedic Period · Later Vedic period

Q9. During the Later Vedic period, which of the following animals was specifically mentioned as useful for ploughing swampy land?

  1. (a) Horse
  2. (b) Elephant
  3. (c) Cow
  4. (d) Buffalo
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Buffalo

Current Affairs (9)

Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q10. Which advanced radar systems are being deployed under a ₹5,700-crore contract signed in March 2024 and operational from April 2025 to strengthen India's air defence network?

  1. (a) Passive electronically scanned array radars
  2. (b) High-Power Radars (HPR)
  3. (c) Synthetic aperture radars
  4. (d) Over-the-horizon radars
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) High-Power Radars (HPR)

Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Days and themes - current year

Q11. What was the theme for National Safety Day, observed on 4 March 2025?

  1. (a) Safety Awareness: A National Priority
  2. (b) Safety First: Every Day
  3. (c) Secure India: Secure Future
  4. (d) Safety & Well-being Crucial for Viksit Bharat
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Safety & Well-being Crucial for Viksit Bharat

Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q12. Who is the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India as of May 2025?

  1. (a) Shaktikanta Das
  2. (b) Sanjay Malhotra
  3. (c) Urjit Patel
  4. (d) Raghuram Rajan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sanjay Malhotra

Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q13. Who among the following was the runner-up defeated by Viktor Axelsen in his third India Open victory in the 2025 India Open Badminton Tournament in January 2025?

  1. (a) Lee Cheuk Yiu
  2. (b) Anthony Sinisuka Ginting
  3. (c) Lakshay Sen
  4. (d) Chou Tien Chen
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Lee Cheuk Yiu

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Technology launches and AI

Q14. In 2025, who launched 'Srjanam', India's first indigenous automated bio medical waste treatment plant?

  1. (a) Nitin Jairam Gadkari
  2. (b) HD Kumaraswamy
  3. (c) Manohar Lal
  4. (d) Dr. Jitendra Singh
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Dr. Jitendra Singh

Sports - Current · Records and achievements

Q15. In which event, at The Ten 2025 athletics meet in San Juan Capistrano, USA, did Gulveer Singh break his own national record in March 2025?

  1. (a) 10,000m race
  2. (b) Marathon
  3. (c) 5,000m race
  4. (d) 3,000m steeplechase
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 10,000m race

Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q16. Which country ranked 10ᵗʰ in the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2025 report released at the annual UN climate conference in Baku?

  1. (a) Brazil
  2. (b) China
  3. (c) India
  4. (d) South Africa
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) India

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Court judgments and rulings - current

Q17. What minimum legal practice experience did the Supreme Court mandate on 20 May 2025 for applicants to the Civil Judge (Junior Division) post?

  1. (a) Four years of legal practice experience
  2. (b) One year of legal practice experience
  3. (c) Two years of legal practice experience
  4. (d) Three years of legal practice experience
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Three years of legal practice experience

Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q18. According to the Climate Risk Index 2025, what is India's long-term rank (1993–2022) among the most affected countries by extreme weather events?

  1. (a) 9ᵗʰ
  2. (b) 3ʳᵈ
  3. (c) 6ᵗʰ
  4. (d) 12ᵗʰ
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 6ᵗʰ

Computer (2)

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Windows features and utilities

Q19. Which of the following is the correct method to rename a file or folder using the left mouse button?

  1. (a) Double-click the file name → Type the new name → Press Esc
  2. (b) Select the file → Press F2 or click once on the name → Type new name → Press Enter
  3. (c) Select the file → Press F1 → Type new name → Press Enter
  4. (d) Click and drag the file → Rename it in the pop-up window
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Select the file → Press F2 or click once on the name → Type new name → Press Enter

Computer Memory · Primary memory (RAM, ROM and their types)

Q20. Which of the following correctly differentiates between RAM and ROM?

  1. (a) ROM performs all logical operations, while RAM controls input devices
  2. (b) RAM is permanent memory while ROM is volatile
  3. (c) RAM loses its content when the computer is turned off, while ROM retains its data
  4. (d) ROM is used to store data temporarily during program execution
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) RAM loses its content when the computer is turned off, while ROM retains its data

Static GK (5)

Space, Defence and Technology · Military aircraft, warships and vehicles

Q21. As per the Ministry of Defence’s Year End Review 2024 (PIB), what is the number of C-295 aircraft to be indigenously built by TASL in India?

  1. (a) 56
  2. (b) 72
  3. (c) 40
  4. (d) 65
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 40

Sports · Sports schemes and campaigns (Khelo India, Fit India)

Q22. As of December 2024, what is the age eligibility of player to avail facility of Retired Sportsperson Empowerment Training (RESET) Programme?

  1. (a) 20-45 years
  2. (b) 25-55 years
  3. (c) 20-50 years
  4. (d) 18-40 years
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 20-50 years

Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q23. Which of the following Bengali writers composed the famous novel Anandamath?

  1. (a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
  2. (b) Kazi Nazrul Islam
  3. (c) Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay
  4. (d) Rabindranath Tagore
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

Space, Defence and Technology · Science and technology missions and schemes

Q24. The DBT‑funded project that first produced a GMP‑grade viral vector for Indian CAR‑T research was supported under which flagship scheme?

  1. (a) National Biopharma Mission
  2. (b) Biotechnology Ignition Grant
  3. (c) Atal Jai Anusandhan
  4. (d) PACE
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) National Biopharma Mission

Space, Defence and Technology · ISRO - history and centres

Q25. The _____ developed 32-bit microprocessors for space applications named VIKRAM3201 and KALPANA3201.

  1. (a) Indian Space Research Organization
  2. (b) European Space Agency
  3. (c) National Aeronautics and Space Administration
  4. (d) Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Indian Space Research Organization

Biology (2)

Human Body - General Facts · Skeletal system and bones

Q26. How many facial bones are there in the face skeleton, each with its own anatomical landmarks and stage of development?

  1. (a) 11
  2. (b) 14
  3. (c) 18
  4. (d) 21
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 14

Biotechnology and Applied Biology · Genetic engineering and recombinant DNA

Q27. The first human gene therapy experiment, which began in September 1990, used a retroviral vector against which deficiency?

  1. (a) Adenosine deaminase
  2. (b) X-Linked Adrenoleukodystrophy
  3. (c) 3-Methylglutaconic Aciduria
  4. (d) Mitochondrial encephalopathy
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Adenosine deaminase

Polity (4)

Fundamental Rights · Right to Property and Article 300A

Q28. Which Fundamental Right was removed from the Indian Constitution by the 44ᵗʰ Amendment Act, 1978?

  1. (a) Right to Equality
  2. (b) Right to Freedom
  3. (c) Right to Education
  4. (d) Right to Property
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Right to Property

Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Special provisions for SCs, STs and backward classes (Articles 330-342)

Q29. Which of the following constitutional mechanisms ensures political representation for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Indian Parliament?

  1. (a) Article 330 and 332
  2. (b) Article 341 and 342
  3. (c) Article 15 and 16
  4. (d) Article 338 and 339
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 330 and 332

Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Special provisions for SCs, STs and backward classes (Articles 330-342)

Q30. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with special provisions for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and other backwards classes?

  1. (a) Part XVI
  2. (b) Part IX
  3. (c) Part IV
  4. (d) Part III
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Part XVI

Fundamental Rights · Right to Property and Article 300A

Q31. Which of the following statements about the Right to Property in India is correct?

  1. (a) It was completely abolished by the Forty-Second Amendment (1976).
  2. (b) It is no longer a fundamental right.
  3. (c) It is a fundamental right under Article 31 (now omitted).
  4. (d) It is a fundamental right under Article 32 of the Constitution.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It is no longer a fundamental right.

Economics (4)

Agriculture and Food Security · Green Revolution and other agricultural revolutions

Q32. In the first phase of the Green Revolution (approximately mid 1960s upto mid 1970s), the use of HYV seeds was restricted to the more affluent states such as _________.

  1. (a) Punjab, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
  2. (b) Rajasthan, Gujarat and Kerala
  3. (c) Bihar, Odisha and West Bengal
  4. (d) Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh and Assam
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Punjab, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Poverty alleviation and employment programmes (MGNREGA, etc.)

Q33. What is the full name of MNREGA in the Indian policy context?

  1. (a) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
  2. (b) Mainstream National Rural Education Guarantee Act
  3. (c) Ministry for National Rural Employment Growth Agenda
  4. (d) Modern National Rural Employment Growth Act
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act

Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Sustainable Development Goals

Q34. In which year was the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development adopted by the United Nations Member States?

  1. (a) 2016
  2. (b) 2014
  3. (c) 2017
  4. (d) 2015
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 2015

Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q35. Which of the following sectors contributed significantly to India’s GDP growth after the 1991 reforms?

  1. (a) Public sector enterprises
  2. (b) Services sector
  3. (c) Cottage industries
  4. (d) Agriculture
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Services sector

Chemistry (1)

Physical Chemistry · Thermochemistry

Q36. For a spontaneous process at constant temperature and pressure, the Gibbs free energy change is ________.

  1. (a) ∆G = 0
  2. (b) ∆G > 0
  3. (c) ∆G < 0
  4. (d) ∆G = ∆H + T∆S
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) ∆G < 0

Modern History (3)

Revolt of 1857 · Causes of the revolt

Q37. After a hundred years of conquest and administration, the English East India Company faced a massive uprising that took place in _________.

  1. (a) 1857
  2. (b) 1854
  3. (c) 1855
  4. (d) 1856
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1857

Post-Independence India · Reorganisation of states (historical)

Q38. Andhra Pradesh was formed in 1953 by separating Telugu-speaking areas from which of the following states?

  1. (a) Kerala
  2. (b) Tamil Nadu
  3. (c) Madras
  4. (d) Karnataka
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Madras

Advent of Europeans and British Expansion · Portuguese

Q39. In which of the following years did Vasco da Gama land in Calicut on the Malabar Coast for the second time?

  1. (a) 1509
  2. (b) 1502
  3. (c) 1511
  4. (d) 1505
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1502

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