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RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 8 September 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 38 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 on 8 September 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Computer, Current Affairs, Polity, Ancient History, Static GK, Modern History.

📚 38 questions🗓️ 8 September 2025⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Computer (2) · Current Affairs (11) · Polity (5) · Ancient History (2) · Static GK (2) · Modern History (4) · Economics (3) · Geography (6) · Physics (2) · Biology (1)

Computer (2)

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · File extensions and formats

Q1. When renaming a file or folder in MS Windows, what happens if a user changes the file extension (e.g. from .txt to .doc)?

  1. (a) The file is converted into a different program's file format.
  2. (b) A warning is displayed to confirm the change in extension.
  3. (c) The file will no longer open or be accessible.
  4. (d) The file's format is changed automatically to match the new extension.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) A warning is displayed to confirm the change in extension.

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Windows features and utilities

Q2. Why is it important to organize files and folders?

  1. (a) To make the computer run faster
  2. (b) To easily locate and access files
  3. (c) To install new software
  4. (d) To keep the desktop clean
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To easily locate and access files

Current Affairs (11)

International Affairs and Summits · International organisations - current

Q3. What is the primary objective of the International Organization for Mediation (IOMed), established by China in 2025?

  1. (a) To provide a platform to conduct military peacekeeping operations
  2. (b) To provide a platform for peaceful dispute resolution through mediation
  3. (c) To provide a platform to enforce international trade agreements
  4. (d) To replace the United Nations Security Council
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To provide a platform for peaceful dispute resolution through mediation

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Health policy and programmes - current

Q4. What is the primary purpose of the 'Ayush Suraksha' portal launched by the Union Ayush Minister in 2025?

  1. (a) To promote exports of Ayurvedic drugs through global outreach
  2. (b) To monitor misleading ads and adverse drug reactions in real time
  3. (c) To certify traditional healers and standardise treatment protocols
  4. (d) To track AYUSH medicine imports through a digital interface
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To monitor misleading ads and adverse drug reactions in real time

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q5. Which Ministry organised the National Conference on 'Institutional Arbitration: An Effective Framework for Dispute Resolution' on 14 June 2025 at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi?

  1. (a) Ministry of Law and Justice
  2. (b) Ministry of Defence
  3. (c) Ministry of Home Affairs
  4. (d) Ministry of External Affairs
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ministry of Law and Justice

Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q6. Which of the following women players won three medals including one individual gold medal at the Archery World Cup Stage 2 at Shanghai, China in May 2025?

  1. (a) Deepika Kumari
  2. (b) Jyothi Surekha Vennam
  3. (c) Madhura Dhamangaonkar
  4. (d) Chikitha Taniparthi
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Madhura Dhamangaonkar

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Health and medical research

Q7. Which city in central India became the first to offer CAR T-cell therapy for blood cancer patients, marking a significant advancement in accessible cancer treatment in May 2025?

  1. (a) Indore
  2. (b) Nagpur
  3. (c) Raipur
  4. (d) Bhopal
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Nagpur

Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q8. In May 2025, DRDO achieved a significant milestone by conducting a long-duration ground test of which hypersonic technology component?

  1. (a) Supersonic Combustor
  2. (b) Ramjet Propulsion System
  3. (c) Scramjet Subscale Combustor
  4. (d) Hyperloop Module
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Scramjet Subscale Combustor

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Research breakthroughs - current

Q9. Which Indian institution collaborated with Inria Saclay in May 2025 to develop an AI tool aimed at combating antimicrobial resistance?

  1. (a) IIIT-Delhi
  2. (b) IISc Bangalore
  3. (c) IIT Madras
  4. (d) IIT Bombay
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) IIIT-Delhi

Awards and Honours - Current · Sports and film awards - current

Q10. How many players were honoured with the Arjuna Awards (Lifetime) for outstanding performance in Sports and Games in January 2025?

  1. (a) 3
  2. (b) 2
  3. (c) 5
  4. (d) 4
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2

Sports - Current · Records and achievements

Q11. Who among the following was the first Indian driver to secure a victory in a Formula 2 race at the Monaco Grand Prix in May 2025?

  1. (a) Arjun Maini
  2. (b) Jehan Daruvala
  3. (c) Kush Maini
  4. (d) Karun Chandhok
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kush Maini

International Affairs and Summits · International organisations - current

Q12. Which three countries' withdrawal was officially recognised by ECOWAS in 2025 following diplomatic tensions and military coups?

  1. (a) Mali, Burkina Faso, and Niger
  2. (b) Senegal, Guinea, and Sierra Leone
  3. (c) Liberia, Côte d’Ivoire, and Benin
  4. (d) Nigeria, Ghana, and Togo
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mali, Burkina Faso, and Niger

International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q13. The India–Chile joint statement (April 2025) announced talks toward upgrading their PTA into a comprehensive ___________.

  1. (a) Currency Union
  2. (b) Economic Partnership Agreement
  3. (c) Free Trade Agreement
  4. (d) NAFTA‑style bloc
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Economic Partnership Agreement

Polity (5)

Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Services under the Union and States (All India Services)

Q14. What is the administrative jurisdiction of Central Services officers?

  1. (a) Joint between the State and the Centre
  2. (b) Exclusive to the Central Government
  3. (c) Both Union and State
  4. (d) Elected Constitutional Authorities
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Exclusive to the Central Government

Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · Comptroller and Auditor General

Q15. Under which Article of the Constitution is the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) appointed?

  1. (a) Article 280
  2. (b) Article 148
  3. (c) Article 76
  4. (d) Article 324
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 148

Local Government · 73rd Amendment - Panchayati Raj

Q16. Women are guaranteed a minimum of _____ of seats in Panchayats.

  1. (a) 25%
  2. (b) 40%
  3. (c) 50%
  4. (d) 33%
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 33%

State Government · Governor - appointment and powers

Q17. Which of the following financial powers is NOT vested in the Governor of a state?

  1. (a) Administering the State Contingency Fund
  2. (b) Independently sanctioning taxes
  3. (c) Giving assent to Money Bills
  4. (d) Presenting the State Budget to the Legislature
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Independently sanctioning taxes

Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · Finance Commission

Q18. As on 1 May 2025, who among the following is NOT a full time member of the 16ᵗʰ Finance Commission?

  1. (a) Dr. Soumya Kanti Ghosh
  2. (b) Ajay Narayan Jha
  3. (c) Annie George Mathew
  4. (d) Dr. Manoj Panda
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Dr. Soumya Kanti Ghosh

Ancient History (2)

Mauryan Empire · Mauryan administration and economy

Q19. What was the Mauryan administrative head of city governance called, as mentioned in the Arthashastra?

  1. (a) Pradeshika
  2. (b) Nagarika
  3. (c) Gopa
  4. (d) Sthanika
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Nagarika

Sources and Prehistoric India · Palaeolithic Age

Q20. In which of the following states of India are the Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka located?

  1. (a) Haryana
  2. (b) Odisha
  3. (c) Bihar
  4. (d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Madhya Pradesh

Static GK (2)

Important Days and Themes · International days

Q21. On which date was World Health Day celebrated in 2025, marking the launch of the campaign titled "Healthy beginnings, hopeful futures"?

  1. (a) 7 April 2025
  2. (b) 5 April 2025
  3. (c) 10 April 2025
  4. (d) 12 April 2025
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 7 April 2025

Tribes, Languages and Religions · Classical and scheduled languages

Q22. How many Indian languages are officially recognised as Classical Languages by the Government of India as of January 2025?

  1. (a) 7
  2. (b) 5
  3. (c) 9
  4. (d) 11
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 11

Modern History (4)

Swadeshi, Revolutionaries and Home Rule · Partition of Bengal and Swadeshi Movement

Q23. Which of the following is INCORRECT with regard to the Swadeshi movement?

  1. (a) Women participated in large numbers.
  2. (b) Received wide support from upper class Muslims.
  3. (c) Labourers carried out strikes at different parts of the country.
  4. (d) Students participated in large numbers.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Received wide support from upper class Muslims.

Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Leaders of tribal movements

Q24. Which of the following is NOT a reform suggested by Birsa Munda to the Munda tribal community during the Munda rebellion?

  1. (a) Give up living in the past
  2. (b) Cultivate their lands
  3. (c) Give up believing in sorcery and witchcraft
  4. (d) Give up drinking liquor
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Give up living in the past

British Administration and Policies · Economic impact and drain of wealth

Q25. The export-led strategy of the British damaged the domestic economy. What was the impact of export-oriented policies on Indian food security?

  1. (a) Increased storage of grains
  2. (b) Improved food availability
  3. (c) Reduced food prices
  4. (d) Food shortages and famines
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Food shortages and famines

British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q26. Which of the following Acts abolished the dyarchy at provincial level during the colonial period in India?

  1. (a) Charter Act of 1853
  2. (b) Government of India Act, 1919
  3. (c) Indian Councils Act, 1909
  4. (d) Government of India Act, 1935
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Government of India Act, 1935

Economics (3)

Industry and Infrastructure · Industrial indices (IIP, core sectors)

Q27. Which of the following is NOT a component of India's core infrastructure sectors (as per Index of Eight Core Industries)?

  1. (a) Cement
  2. (b) Steel
  3. (c) Telecommunications
  4. (d) Electricity
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Telecommunications

External Sector and International Economic Organisations · FDI, FPI and FEMA

Q28. Globalisation has led to increased cross-border flows of technology. Which policy encourages technology transfer under globalisation?

  1. (a) Import substitution policy
  2. (b) Licensing raj
  3. (c) Nationalisation
  4. (d) Automatic route for FDI
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Automatic route for FDI

Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q29. How has globalisation helped India’s exports?

  1. (a) Increased exports to other countries
  2. (b) Decreased them
  3. (c) Made no change
  4. (d) Banned exports
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Increased exports to other countries

Geography (6)

India - Population and Census · Population density

Q30. Which Union Territory of India recorded the highest population density in 2011, as per Census data?

  1. (a) Lakshadweep
  2. (b) Chandigarh
  3. (c) Puducherry
  4. (d) Delhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Delhi

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Peninsular plateau and hills

Q31. Why is the Peninsular Plateau considered geologically stable?

  1. (a) It lies on an ancient shield area with low seismic activity.
  2. (b) It is part of a young fold mountain system with active faults.
  3. (c) It lies within the zone of frequent plate collisions.
  4. (d) It is formed by recent volcanic eruptions and earthquakes.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) It lies on an ancient shield area with low seismic activity.

India - Drainage System · Lakes of India

Q32. Which lake is an important geographical feature along the eastern coast of India?

  1. (a) Vembanad Lake
  2. (b) Wular Lake
  3. (c) Chilika Lake
  4. (d) Dal Lake
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Chilika Lake

India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Power plants (thermal, hydro, nuclear, solar, wind)

Q33. Which state had the highest installed renewable energy capacity as of 13 November 2024, as per the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy data?

  1. (a) Karnataka
  2. (b) Rajasthan
  3. (c) Uttar Pradesh
  4. (d) Tamil Nadu
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Rajasthan

Geography Miscellaneous · Disaster management

Q34. Biological disasters are mainly caused by:

  1. (a) earthquakes and volcanic eruptions
  2. (b) climate change
  3. (c) fire and smoke
  4. (d) infectious diseases and epidemics
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) infectious diseases and epidemics

Atmosphere and Climate · Cyclones (tropical and temperate)

Q35. Where do temperate cyclones commonly occur?

  1. (a) In mid-latitude regions
  2. (b) Near the equatorial belt
  3. (c) Over high-altitude deserts
  4. (d) In tropical low-pressure zones
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) In mid-latitude regions

Physics (2)

Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Electromagnetic induction and Faraday's laws

Q36. According to Lenz’s Law, the direction of induced current is such that _________.

  1. (a) it aids the change in magnetic flux
  2. (b) it opposes the change in magnetic flux
  3. (c) it strengthens the applied magnetic field
  4. (d) it neutralises the magnetic field completely
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) it opposes the change in magnetic flux

Force and Laws of Motion · Newton's third law and its applications

Q37. Which of the following statements about action and reaction forces is correct?

  1. (a) Action and reaction forces act on the same body and cancel each other.
  2. (b) The internal action and reaction forces between different parts of a body do not cancel out.
  3. (c) Action is always greater than reaction in magnitude.
  4. (d) Action and reaction forces are equal, opposite and act on different bodies.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Action and reaction forces are equal, opposite and act on different bodies.

Biology (1)

Cell - Structure and Function · Biomolecules and enzymes

Q38. Which macromolecule is primarily responsible for energy storage in plants?

  1. (a) Starch
  2. (b) Nucleic acids
  3. (c) Proteins
  4. (d) Vitamins
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Starch

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