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RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 7 May 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 39 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 on 7 May 2026 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Current Affairs, Polity, Geography, Medieval History, Ancient History, Static GK.

📚 39 questions🗓️ 7 May 2026⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Current Affairs (8) · Polity (4) · Geography (5) · Medieval History (2) · Ancient History (2) · Static GK (3) · Computer (4) · Modern History (3) · Chemistry (1) · Physics (2) · Economics (4) · Biology (1)

Current Affairs (8)

Awards and Honours - Current · Sports and film awards - current

Q1. Which football player was named the Professional Footballers’ Association (PFA) Player of the Year in August 2025, becoming the first player to win the award three times?

  1. (a) Lionel Messi
  2. (b) Neymar
  3. (c) Casemiro
  4. (d) Mohamed Salah
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Mohamed Salah

Topic: Sports Current Affairs - August 2025
PFA Player of the Year Award
Mohamed Salah won the PFA Player of the Year award in August 2025.
He became the first player in history to win this prestigious award three times.
This achievement highlights his consistent excellence in English football.
Answer: Option 4 → Mohamed Salah
International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q2. In which country was the International Conference on 'Reimagining Existence: Emerging Perspectives in World Literature and Language' held in March 2025?

  1. (a) India
  2. (b) China
  3. (c) Italy
  4. (d) Russia
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) India

Topic: International Conference March 2025
Conference Title:'Reimagining Existence: Emerging Perspectives in World Literature and Language'
Key Facts:
• Held in March 2025
• Focused on World Literature and Language perspectives
• Hosted by India
Answer: Option 1 → India
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q3. In November 2025, PM Modi chaired the 60th All India Conference of Directors General and Inspectors General of Police in which city of Chhattisgarh?

  1. (a) Bilaspur
  2. (b) Korba
  3. (c) Bhilai
  4. (d) Raipur
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Raipur

60th All India DGP/IGP Conference - November 2025
Event: PM Modi chaired the 60th All India Conference of Directors General and Inspectors General of Police.
Location: The conference was held inRaipur, Chhattisgarh.
Key Point: Raipur is the capital city of Chhattisgarh.
Answer: Option 4 → Raipur
Awards and Honours - Current · Sports and film awards - current

Q4. Which Indian actor was honored with the ‘Master Humor Award’ at the Macau International Comedy Festival 2025 held in China?

  1. (a) Ram Charan
  2. (b) Akshay Kumar
  3. (c) Hrithik Roshan
  4. (d) Aamir Khan
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Aamir Khan

Topic:Macau International Comedy Festival 2025
Aamir Khanwas honored with the'Master Humor Award'at the Macau International Comedy Festival 2025 held in China.
This award recognizes his contribution to cinema and his versatile acting skills, including comedy.
Answer: Option 4 → Aamir Khan
International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q5. With which country did the United Kingdom (UK) sign the Kensington Treaty, the first treaty between the two countries since the Second World War, in July 2025?

  1. (a) United States
  2. (b) France
  3. (c) Japan
  4. (d) Germany
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Germany

Kensington Treaty (July 2025)
First UK-Germany treaty since World War II.
Signed to strengthen bilateral relations and cooperation.
Named after Kensington Palace, London.
Answer: Option 4 → Germany
Environment and Climate - Current · Species discoveries and conservation news

Q6. Which wildlife sanctuary is set to host its inaugural female cheetah (Dheera) as part of a breeding/translocation initiative in 2025?

  1. (a) Gir Wildlife Sanctuary
  2. (b) Kuno National Park
  3. (c) Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary
  4. (d) Ranthambore National Park
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary

Topic: Wildlife Conservation & Cheetah Translocation
Key Facts:
• India's Cheetah Project began in 2022 at Kuno National Park (MP)
• Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary (MP) selected for expansion
•Dheera- first female cheetah to be translocated to Gandhi Sagar in 2025
• Part of breeding and habitat expansion initiative
Answer: Option 3 → Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Technology launches and AI

Q7. Which academic institution was responsible for designing the IRIS chip based on the SHAKTI microprocessor, India's push for self-reliance in semiconductor technology, in February 2025?

  1. (a) IISc Bangalore
  2. (b) NIT Trichy
  3. (c) IIT Madras
  4. (d) IIT Delhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) IIT Madras

Topic: SHAKTI Microprocessor & IRIS Chip
SHAKTI Project:Indigenous microprocessor initiative
Developed byIIT Madrasunder 'Make in India'
IRIS Chip (Feb 2025):Based on SHAKTI architecture
Designed byIIT Madrasfor semiconductor self-reliance
Part of India's Atmanirbhar Bharat mission
Answer: Option 3 → IIT Madras
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q8. Who presided over the National Level Conclave of Ministers of States/UTs for Minority Welfare held on 13 September 2025, at Vanijya Bhawan, New Delhi?

  1. (a) George Kurian
  2. (b) Om Prakash Rajbhar
  3. (c) Kiren Rijiju
  4. (d) Md. Zama Khan
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kiren Rijiju

National Level Conclave of Ministers - September 13, 2025
Event: Conclave for Minority Welfare
Venue: Vanijya Bhawan, New Delhi
Kiren Rijiju- Union Minister for Minority Affairs
He presided over this national-level ministerial conclave.
The conclave focused on welfare schemes and policies for minority communities across states and UTs.
Answer: Option 3 → Kiren Rijiju

Polity (4)

Preamble, Features, Parts and Schedules · Preamble - amendment and judicial views

Q9. By which Amendment Act were the words ‘socialist’, ‘secular’, and ‘integrity’ added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) 52nd Amendment Act
  2. (b) 62nd Amendment Act
  3. (c) 42nd Amendment Act
  4. (d) 32nd Amendment Act
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 42nd Amendment Act

Constitutional Amendment - Preamble
The42nd Amendment Act, 1976made significant changes to the Preamble.
Words added:
•Socialist- commitment to social and economic equality
•Secular- equal respect for all religions
•Integrity- replaced 'unity' with 'unity and integrity'
This amendment was passed during the Emergency period (1975-77).
Answer: Option 3 → 42nd Amendment Act
Local Government · 74th Amendment - urban local bodies

Q10. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the Constitution of municipalities?

  1. (a) Article 243R
  2. (b) Article 243Q
  3. (c) Article 243S
  4. (d) Article 243P
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 243Q

Topic:Indian Constitution - Municipalities
Part IX-Aof the Constitution deals with Municipalities (Articles 243P to 243ZG).
Article 243Qspecifically provides for theConstitution of Municipalities.
Other Articles:
• Article 243P → Definitions
• Article 243R → Composition of Municipalities
• Article 243S → Constitution and composition of Wards Committees
Answer: Option 2 → Article 243Q
Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Union Territories administration

Q11. Which of the following Union Territories has a Legislative Assembly?

  1. (a) Ladakh
  2. (b) Lakshadweep
  3. (c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
  4. (d) National Capital Territory of Delhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) National Capital Territory of Delhi

Union Territories with Legislative Assembly
Only 3 UTs have their own Legislative Assembly:
1. Delhi (NCT) - 70 members
2. Puducherry - 30 members
3. Jammu & Kashmir - 90 members
Ladakh, Lakshadweep, and Andaman & Nicobar Islands are governed directly by the Central Government through Lieutenant Governors.
Answer: Option 4 → National Capital Territory of Delhi
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · President's Rule (Article 356)

Q12. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution may the President of India proclaim President’s Rule when Constitutional machinery fails in a state?

  1. (a) Article 350
  2. (b) Article 249
  3. (c) Article 355
  4. (d) Article 356
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 356

Topic: President's Rule in India
Article 356empowers the President to impose President's Rule when constitutional machinery fails in a state.
Key provisions:
- Governor reports state government cannot function per Constitution
- President can assume state functions or dissolve assembly
- State comes under direct Central control
Other articles:
Article 355 → Centre's duty to protect states
Article 350 → Language of representation
Article 249 → Parliament's power on State List
Answer: Option 4 → Article 356

Geography (5)

India - States and Union Territories · Union Territories - facts

Q13. When did Ladakh become a union territory of India?

  1. (a) 2017
  2. (b) 2019
  3. (c) 2020
  4. (d) 2021
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2019

Topic:Reorganisation of Jammu and Kashmir
The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 was passed by Parliament in August 2019.
This Act bifurcated the state of Jammu and Kashmir into two separate Union Territories:
1. Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir (with legislature)
2. Union Territory of Ladakh (without legislature)
Both UTs came into existence on31st October 2019.
Answer: Option 2 → 2019
Environment and Protected Areas · Environmental conventions and protocols (Montreal, Kyoto, Paris, CBD)

Q14. Which of the following was the first international agreement to establish legally binding emission reduction targets specifically for developed countries?

  1. (a) Basel Convention
  2. (b) Kyoto Protocol
  3. (c) Rio Declaration
  4. (d) Paris Agreement
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Kyoto Protocol

Topic: International Environmental Agreements
Kyoto Protocol (1997)was the first legally binding international treaty that set specific emission reduction targets for developed countries.
Other options:
Basel Convention → Controls hazardous waste movement
Rio Declaration → Non-binding principles (1992)
Paris Agreement → Came later (2015), applies to all countries
Answer: Option 2 → Kyoto Protocol
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Power plants (thermal, hydro, nuclear, solar, wind)

Q15. The Vindhyachal Super Thermal Power Station is located in __________.

  1. (a) Madhya Pradesh
  2. (b) Chhattisgarh
  3. (c) Rajasthan
  4. (d) Gujarat
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Madhya Pradesh

Vindhyachal Super Thermal Power Station
Location: Vindhyanagar, Singrauli district,Madhya Pradesh
Key Facts:
• One of India's largest thermal power stations
• Capacity: 4,760 MW
• Operated by NTPC Limited
Answer: Option 1 → Madhya Pradesh
India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Forest types and distribution

Q16. Which type of natural vegetation covers the largest geographical area in India?

  1. (a) Tropical Deciduous vegetation
  2. (b) Dry Tropical Thorn vegetation
  3. (c) Mountain vegetation
  4. (d) Tidal mangrove vegetation
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Tropical Deciduous vegetation

Natural Vegetation Coverage in India
Tropical Deciduous Forests (Monsoon Forests) cover thelargest areain India.
Coverage: Approximately40-45%of total forest area
Distribution: Found in regions with70-200 cm rainfall
Major areas: Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Maharashtra
Characteristics: Trees shed leaves in dry season (6-8 months)
Examples: Teak, Sal, Shisham, Sandalwood
Answer: Option 1 → Tropical Deciduous vegetation
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Northern Plains

Q17. Which of the following belts of the Northern Plains consists of porous rocky soil where stream water seeps underground?

  1. (a) Delta belt
  2. (b) Khadar belt
  3. (c) Terai belt
  4. (d) Bhabar belt
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bhabar belt

Northern Plains - Soil Belts
Bhabar Belt:Located at the foothills of Himalayas
Consists of pebbles and coarse sediments
Highly porous and rocky in nature
Rivers deposit debris and disappear underground
Stream water seeps through porous rocks
Other Belts:
Terai - Marshy, wet region south of Bhabar
Khadar - New alluvial deposits near rivers
Delta - Triangular landform at river mouth
Answer: Option 4 → Bhabar belt

Medieval History (2)

Mughal Empire · Mughal administration (mansabdari, zabt)

Q18. The Mansabdari System, introduced by Akbar in 1571, was mainly a system of __________.

  1. (a) Land Revenue Collection
  2. (b) Judicial Reforms
  3. (c) Military Administration
  4. (d) Religious Reformation
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Military Administration

Mansabdari System (1571)
Introduced byAkbarto organize military and civil administration.
Key Features:
• Mansab = Rank assigned to nobles and officers
• Determined military obligations and salary
• Two ranks:Zat(personal status) andSawar(cavalry)
• Officers maintained troops based on their rank
Primary purpose:Military organization and administration
Answer: Option 3 → Military Administration
Mughal Empire · Mughal administration (mansabdari, zabt)

Q19. Consider the following statements regarding the provincial administration in the Mughal period and select the correct option.Statement I: Each Suba was placed under a Subedar or provincial governor who was directly appointed by the Emperor.Statement II: Daroga-i-Dak was responsible for maintaining the communication channel.

  1. (a) Statement I is incorrect, while statement II is correct.
  2. (b) Statement I is correct, while statement II is incorrect.
  3. (c) Both statements I and II are incorrect.
  4. (d) Both statements I and II are correct.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Both statements I and II are correct.

Mughal Provincial Administration
Statement I Analysis:
Subedar (Provincial Governor) was the head of Suba (province).
Directly appointed by the Mughal Emperor.
Responsible for revenue, law & order, military affairs.
Statement I isCORRECT.
Statement II Analysis:
Daroga-i-Dak was the superintendent of postal system.
Maintained communication network across the empire.
Ensured efficient dispatch of royal orders and intelligence.
Statement II isCORRECT.
Answer: Option 4 → Both statements I and II are correct.

Ancient History (2)

Sources and Prehistoric India · Mesolithic Age

Q20. Which of the following sites contains prehistoric paintings ranging from the Mesolithic to the historic period?

  1. (a) Nalanda
  2. (b) Pattadakal
  3. (c) Bhimbetka
  4. (d) Hampi
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Bhimbetka

Topic: Prehistoric Rock Shelters of India
Bhimbetka Rock Shelters(Madhya Pradesh) contain prehistoric cave paintings dating fromMesolithic period to historic times.
These paintings span over30,000 yearsand depict hunting scenes, dancing, animals, and daily life.
UNESCO World Heritage Site since 2003.
Other options: Nalanda (ancient university), Pattadakal (temples), Hampi (Vijayanagara ruins) - none have Mesolithic paintings.
Answer: Option 3 → Bhimbetka
Buddhism, Jainism and Other Sects · Buddhist teachings and texts

Q21. Which of the following baskets of the Buddhist Tipitaka contains monastic rules?

  1. (a) Jataka Pitaka
  2. (b) Abhidhamma Pitaka
  3. (c) Vinaya Pitaka
  4. (d) Sutta Pitaka
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Vinaya Pitaka

Buddhist Tipitaka (Three Baskets)
1. Vinaya Pitaka→ Monastic rules and discipline for monks and nuns
2. Sutta Pitaka→ Buddha's teachings and discourses
3. Abhidhamma Pitaka→ Philosophical and psychological analysis
Jataka tales are part of Sutta Pitaka (birth stories of Buddha)
Answer: Option 3 → Vinaya Pitaka

Static GK (3)

Organisations and Headquarters · Founders and founding years

Q22. Which institution was founded by Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis?

  1. (a) Planning Commission
  2. (b) Reserve Bank of India
  3. (c) Indian Economic Forum
  4. (d) Indian Statistical Institute
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Indian Statistical Institute

Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis (1893-1972)
FoundedIndian Statistical Institute (ISI)in Kolkata in 1931.
Known as the 'Father of Indian Statistics'.
Also contributed to India's Second Five-Year Plan.
Answer: Option 4 → Indian Statistical Institute
Important Days and Themes · National days

Q23. Where does the Indian Prime Minister hoist the national flag on the occasion of Independence Day?

  1. (a) Jantar Mantar
  2. (b) Red Fort
  3. (c) India Gate
  4. (d) Qutb Minar
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Red Fort

Topic:Independence Day Celebration
The Prime Minister hoists the national flag at theRed Fortin Delhi on15th Augustevery year.
Note: OnRepublic Day (26th January), the flag is hoisted atRajpath (Kartavya Path).
Answer: Option 2 → Red Fort
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Painting styles and schools

Q24. In which state of India did Pattachitra paintings originate?

  1. (a) Rajasthan
  2. (b) Bihar
  3. (c) Odisha
  4. (d) Punjab
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Odisha

Pattachitra Paintings
Origin:Odisha(also West Bengal)
Traditional cloth-based scroll painting.
Famous for Jagannath Temple themes.
Rich mythological and folk narratives.
Answer: Option 3 → Odisha

Computer (4)

Data Representation and Logic · Computer codes (ASCII, Unicode, BCD, EBCDIC)

Q25. Extended ASCII, an 8-bit evolution of the original 7-bit ASCII standard, supports international text by expanding the character set. How many total codes does it provide?

  1. (a) 512 codes for voice recordings
  2. (b) 128 codes limited to English letters
  3. (c) 256 codes including accented characters
  4. (d) 1024 codes for video compression
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 256 codes including accented characters

Extended ASCII - 8-bit Character Encoding
Original ASCII: 7-bit → 2⁷ = 128 codes
Extended ASCII: 8-bit → 2⁸ = 256 codes
Additional 128 codes (128-255) include:
• Accented characters (é, ñ, ü)
• Special symbols and graphics
• International language support
Answer: Option 3 → 256 codes including accented characters
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Operating system - functions and types

Q26. Which statement is True or False about the Windows 11 Operating System (OS)?(i) The OS loads program code directly onto the hard disk for execution, as the CPU can only execute code from permanent storage.(ii) For multitasking, the OS allocates small CPU time slices to processes, rapidly switching between them, a technique known as Time-Sharing.

  1. (a) (i) False, (ii) True
  2. (b) (i) True, (ii) False
  3. (c) (i) False, (ii) False
  4. (d) (i) True, (ii) True
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) (i) False, (ii) True

Statement (i): OS loads program code directly onto hard disk for execution
FALSE→ CPU executes code fromRAM (primary memory), not hard disk.
Hard disk is secondary storage; too slow for direct execution.
OS loads programs from disk to RAM, then CPU executes from RAM.
Statement (ii): OS allocates small CPU time slices for multitasking
TRUE→ This isTime-Sharing/Time-Slicingtechnique.
OS rapidly switches between processes (context switching).
Each process gets small time quantum (e.g., 10-100ms).
Creates illusion of simultaneous execution.
Answer: Option 1 → (i) False, (ii) True
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · File extensions and formats

Q27. In the Windows 11 File System, a file named mydriver.sys is found in the C:\Windows\System32\drivers folder. Based on its file extension and location, which of the following best describes the purpose and classification of this file?

  1. (a) It is an Operating System Log File that records system events and is only read by the Task Manager.
  2. (b) It is a System Driver File that allows the operating system to communicate with a specific hardware component.
  3. (c) It is an Application Data File used for temporary user settings and can be safely deleted to free up disk space.
  4. (d) It is a System Configuration File that holds graphical settings and can be edited with a standard text editor.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It is a System Driver File that allows the operating system to communicate with a specific hardware component.

Topic: Windows File System – Driver Files
File Extension Analysis:
.sys extension = System Driver File in Windows
Location Analysis:
C:\Windows\System32\drivers = Standard folder for hardware drivers
Purpose of .sys files:
Enable OS to communicate with hardware components (GPU, network card, etc.)
Loaded during boot or when hardware is accessed
Why other options are incorrect:
Log files use .log or .evt extensions
Answer: Option 2 → It is a System Driver File that allows the operating system to communicate with a specific hardware component.
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Types of software (system, application, utility)

Q28. Which of the following correctly differentiates system software from application software?

  1. (a) System software performs user tasks; application software controls hardware
  2. (b) Both perform the same functions
  3. (c) System software manages hardware; application software performs user tasks
  4. (d) Application software loads the operating system; system software performs user tasks
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) System software manages hardware; application software performs user tasks

System Software vs Application Software
System Software:
• Manages and controls hardware resources
• Examples: Operating System, Device Drivers, Utilities
• Acts as interface between hardware and user
Application Software:
• Performs specific user tasks and applications
• Examples: MS Word, Chrome, Photoshop, Games
• Runs on top of system software
Answer: Option 3 → System software manages hardware; application software performs user tasks

Modern History (3)

Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Early civil and tribal revolts

Q29. Which factor most directly contributed to the emergence of the Sanyasi–Fakir rebellion in Bengal?

  1. (a) Increased protection from British officials improved rural living conditions.
  2. (b) Expansion of irrigated farming reduced dependence on religious leaders.
  3. (c) Stable land rights allowed peasants to negotiate with revenue contractors.
  4. (d) Forced taxation and famine pushed dispossessed peasants into rebel groups.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Forced taxation and famine pushed dispossessed peasants into rebel groups.

Sanyasi-Fakir Rebellion (1770s-1800s)
Context:Bengal under British East India Company rule
Key Causes:
• Great Bengal Famine of 1770 killed millions
• Heavy land revenue demands despite famine
• Restrictions on religious pilgrimages
• Dispossession of peasants and religious mendicants
Result:Sanyasis (Hindu monks) and Fakirs (Muslim ascetics)
joined dispossessed peasants in armed resistance
Answer: Option 4 → Forced taxation and famine pushed dispossessed peasants into rebel groups.
Advent of Europeans and British Expansion · Battles of Plassey and Buxar

Q30. What was the Dual Government system introduced after the Battle of Buxar?

  1. (a) A system where the French and British shared governance
  2. (b) A system where the British ruled directly
  3. (c) A system where the Company collected revenue, and Nawab handled administration
  4. (d) A system where the Nawab collected revenue and the Company maintained the army
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A system where the Company collected revenue, and Nawab handled administration

Dual Government System (1765-1772)
Introduced by:Robert Cliveafter Battle of Buxar (1764)
Key Features:
• East India Company gotDiwani rights(revenue collection)
• Nawab retainedNizamat(administration, law & order)
Result: Power without responsibility for Company,
Responsibility without power for Nawab
Answer: Option 3 → A system where the Company collected revenue, and Nawab handled administration
Swadeshi, Revolutionaries and Home Rule · Chittagong Armoury Raid and other revolutionaries

Q31. Who among the following led the large-scale armed attack on the Chittagong armoury in April 1930?

  1. (a) Jatin Das
  2. (b) Surya Sen
  3. (c) Bhagat Singh
  4. (d) Chandrasekhar Azad
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Surya Sen

Chittagong Armoury Raid (April 18, 1930)
Leader: Surya Sen(also known as Master Da)
Led by the Indian Republican Army, Chittagong branch.
Objective: Capture arms and ammunition to start armed revolution.
The raid temporarily paralyzed British administration in Chittagong.
Other revolutionaries: Jatin Das died during hunger strike (1929).
Bhagat Singh & Azad were active in northern India.
Answer: Option 2 → Surya Sen

Chemistry (1)

Chemical Reactions and Equations · Decomposition reactions (thermal, electrolytic, photolytic)

Q32. During the electrolysis of water, hydrogen and oxygen are released in which ratio?

  1. (a) 3:1
  2. (b) 2:1
  3. (c) 4:1
  4. (d) 1:1
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2:1

Electrolysis of Water: 2H₂O → 2H₂ + O₂
From the balanced equation:
2 molecules of H₂O produce 2 molecules of H₂ and 1 molecule of O₂
Volume ratio =H₂ : O₂ = 2 : 1
At cathode: Hydrogen gas (H₂) is released
At anode: Oxygen gas (O₂) is released
Answer: Option 2 → 2:1

Physics (2)

Sound and Waves · Loudness, pitch, quality and decibel

Q33. How does increasing the Amplitude of a sound wave affect the sound produced?

  1. (a) The speed of the sound increases
  2. (b) The frequency decreases
  3. (c) The pitch increases
  4. (d) The loudness increases
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The loudness increases

Sound Wave Properties:
Amplitude→ Determines the energy and intensity of sound
Higher amplitude = More energy = Louder sound
Lower amplitude = Less energy = Softer sound
Note:Amplitude does NOT affect:
• Speed (depends on medium)
• Frequency/Pitch (independent property)
Answer: Option 4 → The loudness increases
Light - Reflection and Mirrors · Nature and properties of light

Q34. Which of the following optical properties of light enables sunglasses to reduce glare from sunlight reflected off surfaces such as water or roads?

  1. (a) Diffraction
  2. (b) Polarization
  3. (c) Interference
  4. (d) Refraction
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Polarization

Topic:Optical Properties of Light - Polarization
Glare Formation:
Light reflected from flat surfaces (water, roads) becomes
partially polarized in horizontal plane.
Polarized Sunglasses:
Contain vertical polarizing filters that block horizontally
polarized light, thus reducing glare effectively.
Other Options:
Diffraction - bending around obstacles
Interference - wave superposition
Refraction - bending through media
Answer: Option 2 → Polarization

Economics (4)

External Sector and International Economic Organisations · FDI, FPI and FEMA

Q35. In which year did FEMA replace FERA?

  1. (a) 1998
  2. (b) 1994
  3. (c) 1990
  4. (d) 1999
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1999

FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management Act)
FERA (Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973) was replaced by FEMA in1999.
FEMA came into effect onJune 1, 2000.
Key difference: FERA was regulatory, FEMA is management-oriented.
Answer: Option 4 → 1999
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Sectors of the economy (primary, secondary, tertiary)

Q36. Which of the following services is a core component of the tourism industry?

  1. (a) Banking
  2. (b) Hospitality
  3. (c) Teaching
  4. (d) Insurance
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Hospitality

Tourism Industry Core Components
Tourism industry consists of services that directly support travelers and tourists.
Core Components:
1. Hospitality (hotels, restaurants, accommodation)
2. Transportation (airlines, railways, buses)
3. Travel agencies and tour operators
4. Entertainment and recreation facilities
Hospitality is theprimary serviceproviding accommodation, food, and guest services to tourists.
Banking, Teaching, Insurance aresupport services, not core tourism components.
Answer: Option 2 → Hospitality
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Sectors of the economy (primary, secondary, tertiary)

Q37. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of tertiary services?

  1. (a) Includes tourism, banking, and trade
  2. (b) Involves face-to-face or remote interaction
  3. (c) Directly processes natural resources
  4. (d) Often located in urban areas
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Directly processes natural resources

Topic: Tertiary Sector (Service Sector)
Characteristics of Tertiary Services:
• Provides services, not goods (banking, tourism, trade)
• Involves human interaction (face-to-face or remote)
• Concentrated in urban areas with infrastructure
NOT a characteristic:
• Processing natural resources is done byPrimary Sector
(agriculture, mining, forestry, fishing)
Tertiary sector supports primary and secondary sectors
through services, not direct resource processing.
Answer: Option 3 → Directly processes natural resources
Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Human Development Index and UNDP

Q38. Which of the following indicators is NOT a component of the Human Development Index (HDI)?

  1. (a) Gross National Income per capita
  2. (b) Life expectancy
  3. (c) Education index
  4. (d) Poverty line ratio
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Poverty line ratio

Human Development Index (HDI)
HDI measures average achievement in three basic dimensions:
1. Health:Life expectancy at birth
2. Education:Mean years of schooling + Expected years of schooling
3. Standard of Living:Gross National Income (GNI) per capita
Poverty line ratio is NOT a component of HDI.
It is measured separately by Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI).
Answer: Option 4 → Poverty line ratio

Biology (1)

Nutrition and Digestion · Vitamins - sources, functions and deficiency

Q39. Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin that helps in promotion of calcium absorption in the gut for bone health?

  1. (a) Vitamin A
  2. (b) Vitamin D
  3. (c) Vitamin B
  4. (d) Vitamin C
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Vitamin D

Topic: Fat-Soluble Vitamins and Bone Health
Fat-soluble vitamins:A, D, E, K
Vitamin D functions:
• Promotes calcium absorption in intestine
• Essential for bone mineralization
• Maintains calcium-phosphorus balance
Vitamin A → Vision, immunity
Vitamin B → Water-soluble, not fat-soluble
Vitamin C → Water-soluble, collagen synthesis
Answer: Option 2 → Vitamin D
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