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RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 7 May 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 39 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 on 7 May 2026 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Static GK, Current Affairs, Computer, Polity, Physics, Ancient History.

📚 39 questions🗓️ 7 May 2026⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Static GK (2) · Current Affairs (8) · Computer (4) · Polity (6) · Physics (3) · Ancient History (2) · Economics (1) · Geography (5) · Medieval History (2) · Modern History (3) · Biology (2) · Miscellaneous (1)

Static GK (2)

Organisations and Headquarters · United Nations and its agencies

Q1. What is the full form of UNDP?

  1. (a) United Nations Deployment Programme
  2. (b) Union of Nations Deployment Programme
  3. (c) United Nations Development Programme
  4. (d) Union of Nations Development Programme
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) United Nations Development Programme

UNDP Full Form
UNDP stands forUnited Nations Development Programme.
Key Facts:
• Established in 1965 by UN General Assembly
• Headquarters: New York City, USA
• Works in 170+ countries for sustainable development
• Focuses on poverty reduction, governance, climate action
Answer: Option 3 → United Nations Development Programme
Music and Musical Instruments · Indian classical music - overview and traditions

Q2. Which of the following musical genres was considered formal and divine in ancient India?

  1. (a) Dhrupad
  2. (b) Prabandh
  3. (c) Gandharva
  4. (d) Gana
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Gandharva

Topic: Ancient Indian Music
Gandharva Sangeetwas considered the most formal and divine form of music in ancient India.
It was associated with celestial beings (Gandharvas) and performed in temples and royal courts.
Mentioned in ancient texts like Natyashastra and Vedas as sacred music.
Dhrupad came later (medieval period), Prabandh was a classical form, Gana means singing in general.
Answer: Option 3 → Gandharva

Current Affairs (8)

Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q3. Who among the following was awarded the Abel Prize 2025?

  1. (a) Luis Caffarelli
  2. (b) Masaki Kashiwara
  3. (c) Karen Uhlenbeck
  4. (d) Avi Wigderson
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Masaki Kashiwara

Abel Prize 2025
Awarded to:Masaki Kashiwara(Japanese mathematician)
Recognition: For pioneering contributions to algebraic analysis and representation theory
Note: Luis Caffarelli (2023), Karen Uhlenbeck (2019), Avi Wigderson (2021) were previous winners
Answer: Option 2 → Masaki Kashiwara
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q4. Selected for the International Space Station mission in 2025, John McFall, the first disabled astronaut, is associated with which of the following countries?

  1. (a) United States of America
  2. (b) Canada
  3. (c) United Kingdom
  4. (d) Australia
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) United Kingdom

Topic: Space Exploration - ESA Astronaut
John McFallis a British Paralympic sprinter and orthopedic surgeon.
In 2022, he was selected by theEuropean Space Agency (ESA)as the world's first 'parastronaut'.
He represents theUnited Kingdomin this historic mission to study feasibility of disabled astronauts in space.
Answer: Option 3 → United Kingdom
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q5. In October 2025, India's Society of Association Executives (SAE) officially launched in which of the following cities?

  1. (a) New Delhi
  2. (b) Patna
  3. (c) Bengaluru
  4. (d) Ahmedabad
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Bengaluru

Topic: Current Affairs - October 2025
India's Society of Association Executives (SAE) was officially launched inBengaluruin October 2025.
SAE is a professional body for association management professionals in India.
Bengaluru, being India's tech and startup hub, was chosen as the launch city.
Answer: Option 3 → Bengaluru
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Research breakthroughs - current

Q6. The 2025 study detecting airborne microplastics in the mangroves of Sundarbans was done by scientists from which institute?

  1. (a) NIO Goa
  2. (b) IISER Kolkata
  3. (c) IIT Kharagpur
  4. (d) WII Dehradun
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) IISER Kolkata

Topic: Recent Environmental Study 2025
Study: Airborne microplastics detection in Sundarbans mangroves
Conducted by:IISER Kolkata(Indian Institute of Science Education and Research, Kolkata)
Significance: First comprehensive study on airborne microplastic pollution in Sundarbans ecosystem
Answer: Option 2 → IISER Kolkata
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q7. In October 2025, the Ministry of Minority Affairs announced support to universities to set up Centres of Excellence to promote heritage and classical languages. This initiative was taken under which scheme?

  1. (a) National Minorities Development Finance Corporation (NMDFC)
  2. (b) Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan (PM VIKAS)
  3. (c) Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram (PMJVK)
  4. (d) Maulana Azad National Fellowship (MANF)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram (PMJVK)

Topic: Ministry of Minority Affairs Scheme
Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram (PMJVK)is a central sector scheme
for socio-economic development of minority communities.
In October 2025, under PMJVK, support was announced to universities
to establishCentres of Excellencefor promoting heritage and classical languages.
Other schemes: PM VIKAS (infrastructure), NMDFC (finance), MANF (fellowships).
Answer: Option 3 → Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram (PMJVK)
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Reports and their publishers

Q8. According to the Sustainable Development Goals National Indicator Framework (SDG NIF) Progress Report of 2025, social protection coverage rose from 22% in 2016 to what percentage in 2025?

  1. (a) 78%
  2. (b) 55%
  3. (c) 64.3%
  4. (d) 40%
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 64.3%

Topic: SDG NIF Progress Report 2025
Social Protection Coverage in India:
Base Year (2016): 22%
Target Year (2025): 64.3%
This represents significant progress in extending
social security schemes to vulnerable populations.
Answer: Option 3 → 64.3%
International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q9. Where was the 69ᵗʰ session of the United Nations Commission on the Status of Women held in March 2025?

  1. (a) Berlin, Germany
  2. (b) Rio de Janeiro, Brazil
  3. (c) New York, USA
  4. (d) Oslo, Norway
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) New York, USA

UN Commission on Status of Women (CSW)
The CSW is the principal global intergovernmental body exclusively dedicated to the promotion of gender equality and the empowerment of women.
The Commission meets annually at theUnited Nations Headquarters in New York.
The69th session (CSW69)was held fromMarch 10-21, 2025at UN Headquarters, New York.
Answer: Option 3 → New York, USA
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q10. Which launch vehicle will be used for Chandrayaan-5?

  1. (a) H3-24L
  2. (b) GSLV Mk III
  3. (c) GSLV Mk II
  4. (d) PSLV-C45
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) H3-24L

Chandrayaan-5 Mission
Chandrayaan-5 is a joint lunar exploration mission betweenISRO (India)andJAXA (Japan).
Launch Vehicle:H3-24L(Japanese rocket developed by JAXA)
The H3 is Japan's next-generation launch vehicle designed for heavy payloads.
This collaboration combines India's rover technology with Japan's launch capabilities.
Answer: Option 1 → H3-24L

Computer (4)

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Popular operating systems

Q11. In modern Windows versions (Windows 10/11), which Task Manager tab allows users to monitor real-time graphics card utilization for individual applications?

  1. (a) Processes
  2. (b) Performance
  3. (c) App History
  4. (d) Startup
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Processes

Topic: Windows Task Manager - GPU Monitoring
In Windows 10/11, theProcesses tabdisplays real-time resource usage for each running application.
The Processes tab shows columns for CPU, Memory, Disk, Network, andGPU (Graphics Card)utilization.
Users can see which specific application is using the GPU and how much percentage it consumes.
The Performance tab shows overall system GPU usage but not per-application breakdown.
Answer: Option 1 → Processes
Computer Organisation and Hardware · CPU - ALU, CU and registers

Q12. The CPU mainly performs which of the following functions?

  1. (a) Processing and control
  2. (b) Storage and output
  3. (c) Display and storage
  4. (d) Input and calculation
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Processing and control

Topic: CPU (Central Processing Unit)
CPU is the brain of computer system.
Main Functions:
1.Processing- Executes instructions and performs calculations
2.Control- Manages and coordinates all computer operations
Storage is done by RAM/ROM, not CPU.
Input/Output handled by I/O devices.
Answer: Option 1 → Processing and control
Abbreviations and Miscellaneous · Computer abbreviations

Q13. What does CD stand for in computer terminology?

  1. (a) Control Datamine
  2. (b) Compact Disc
  3. (c) Color Display
  4. (d) Current Directories
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Compact Disc

Topic: Computer Storage Devices
CD stands forCompact Disc.
It is an optical disc storage medium used for storing digital data.
Introduced in 1982, CDs can store up to 700 MB of data.
Answer: Option 2 → Compact Disc
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Types of software (system, application, utility)

Q14. Which of the following is an example of application software used for creating documents?

  1. (a) Linux
  2. (b) BIOS
  3. (c) MS Word
  4. (d) Windows
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) MS Word

Application Software vs System Software
System Software:Manages hardware and provides platform
• Linux, Windows → Operating Systems
• BIOS → Firmware (boots computer)
Application Software:Performs specific user tasks
• MS Word → Word processor for creating documents
• Used for typing, formatting, editing text files
Answer: Option 3 → MS Word

Polity (6)

Judiciary · Supreme Court - jurisdiction (original, appellate, advisory)

Q15. Article 141 of the Indian Constitution declares that the law laid down by the Supreme Court is binding on ____.

  1. (a) State governments
  2. (b) All tribunals except civil courts
  3. (c) Only High Courts
  4. (d) All courts within the territory of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) All courts within the territory of India

Article 141 - Law Declared by Supreme Court
Constitutional Provision:
Article 141 states that the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India.
Scope of Binding Nature:
• Applies to all subordinate courts
• Applies to all High Courts
• Applies to all tribunals
• Does not bind the Supreme Court itself (can overrule its own decisions)
This ensures uniformity in law across India and establishes the doctrine of precedent.
Answer: Option 4 → All courts within the territory of India
Union, Territory and Citizenship · OCI, NRI and CAA

Q16. Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, and Christian citizens of which of the following nations are eligible to receive Indian citizenship under the CAA, 2019, if they entered India on or before December 31, 2014?

  1. (a) Afghanistan, Sri Lanka, and Bangladesh
  2. (b) Pakistan, Myanmar, and Nepal
  3. (c) Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan
  4. (d) Bhutan, Bangladesh, and Maldives
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan

Topic: Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA), 2019
The CAA grants Indian citizenship to persecuted religious minorities from three neighboring Islamic countries.
Eligible Countries:Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan
Eligible Communities:Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, and Christian
Entry Deadline:On or before December 31, 2014
Answer: Option 3 → Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan
Union, Territory and Citizenship · Citizenship provisions (Articles 5-11)

Q17. Which article implicitly prohibits 'dual citizenship' in India?

  1. (a) Article 7
  2. (b) Article 3
  3. (c) Article 5
  4. (d) Article 9
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 9

Topic: Citizenship - Constitutional Provisions
Article 9deals with persons voluntarily acquiring
citizenship of a foreign country.
It states:No person shall be a citizen of India if
he has voluntarily acquired citizenship of any
foreign state.
This provisionimplicitly prohibits dual citizenship
in India.
Answer: Option 4 → Article 9
Union Executive · President - powers (executive, legislative, veto, pardon, ordinance)

Q18. Which of the following is NOT a function of the President?

  1. (a) Summoning and proroguing Parliament
  2. (b) Granting pardons and remissions
  3. (c) Promulgating ordinances
  4. (d) Presiding over Rajya Sabha sessions
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Presiding over Rajya Sabha sessions

Constitutional Powers of President:
President's Functions:
• Summons and prorogues Parliament (Article 85)
• Grants pardons, reprieves, remissions (Article 72)
• Promulgates ordinances when Parliament not in session (Article 123)
Rajya Sabha Presiding Officer:
•Vice Presidentis the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha
• President does NOT preside over Rajya Sabha
Answer: Option 4 → Presiding over Rajya Sabha sessions
DPSP and Fundamental Duties · DPSP - features and classification

Q19. As per the Indian Constitution, the Directive Principles of State Policy are ___________.

  1. (a) Justiciable only during emergencies
  2. (b) Justiciable and legally enforceable
  3. (c) Non-justiciable but fundamental in governance
  4. (d) Purely administrative rules
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Non-justiciable but fundamental in governance

Topic: Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
Constitutional Provision:Part IV, Articles 36-51
Key Features:
1. Non-justiciable - Cannot be enforced in court of law
2. Fundamental in governance - Guide state policy-making
3. Complement Fundamental Rights
Article 37:DPSPs are not enforceable by any court but are fundamental in governance of the country.
Answer: Option 3 → Non-justiciable but fundamental in governance
Parliament · Parliamentary committees

Q20. The members of the Railway Convention Committee are nominated by which of the following authorities of India?

  1. (a) The President of India
  2. (b) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
  3. (c) The Prime Minister of India
  4. (d) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Railway Convention Committee
Parliamentary committee examining railway finances and determining dividend payable by railways to general revenues.
Composition: Members from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Nomination Authority:Speaker of Lok Sabha nominates all members including those from Rajya Sabha.
Similar to other parliamentary committees where Speaker has primary authority.
Answer: Option 2 → The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Physics (3)

Sources of Energy · Conventional sources and fossil fuels

Q21. Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?

  1. (a) Wind Energy
  2. (b) Petroleum
  3. (c) Solar Energy
  4. (d) Biomass
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Petroleum

Topic: Natural Resources Classification
Non-renewable resources:Cannot be replenished naturally in a short time period. Once exhausted, they are gone forever.
Petroleumis a fossil fuel formed from ancient organic matter over millions of years. It cannot be regenerated quickly.
Renewable resources:Wind, Solar, and Biomass can be replenished naturally and continuously.
Answer: Option 2 → Petroleum
Force and Laws of Motion · Friction

Q22. When a book is pushed across a table surface, which type of friction mainly opposes its motion?

  1. (a) Rolling friction
  2. (b) Sliding friction
  3. (c) Fluid friction
  4. (d) Magnetic friction
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sliding friction

Topic: Types of Friction
When a book is pushed across a table, the surfaces in contact slide over each other.
Sliding friction(also called kinetic friction) acts between two surfaces that are sliding relative to each other.
Rolling friction occurs when objects roll (like wheels).
Fluid friction acts in liquids/gases.
Magnetic friction is not a standard friction type.
Answer: Option 2 → Sliding friction
Units, Measurement & Dimensions · Derived units and units named after scientists

Q23. The S.I. derived unit for F̲o̲r̲c̲e̲ is the Newton (N). Which combination of S.I. base units is equivalent to the Newton?

  1. (a) kg⋅m2/s2
  2. (b) kg⋅m/s2
  3. (c) kg⋅m⋅s
  4. (d) kg⋅m/s
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) kg⋅m/s2

Given: Force (F) unit = Newton (N)
Formula:F = m × a
Where m = mass (kg), a = acceleration (m/s²)
Unit of Force = kg × m/s²
1 Newton = 1 kg⋅m/s²
Answer: Option 2 → kg⋅m/s²

Ancient History (2)

Indus Valley Civilisation · Town planning and structures

Q24. The roads and streets of the Harappan Lower Town were laid out in which pattern?

  1. (a) Grid pattern intersecting at right angles
  2. (b) Irregular pattern without fixed alignment
  3. (c) Radial pattern spreading from a centre
  4. (d) Circular pattern with curved streets
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Grid pattern intersecting at right angles

Harappan Urban Planning
The Harappan civilization (2600-1900 BCE) showed advanced urban planning.
Key Features of Lower Town:
Roads and streets were laid in agrid pattern.
Main streets ran north-south and east-west.
Streets intersected atright angles (90°).
This created rectangular blocks for houses.
This systematic planning reflects sophisticated engineering knowledge.
Answer: Option 1 → Grid pattern intersecting at right angles
Ancient Art, Culture and Science · Temple architecture styles (Nagara, Dravida, Vesara)

Q25. Which of the following temples is NOT a prime example of the Dravidian style of temple architecture?

  1. (a) Gangaikondacholapuram Temple
  2. (b) Brihadeeswara Temple
  3. (c) Shore Temple
  4. (d) Siddhesvara Mahadeva Temple
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Siddhesvara Mahadeva Temple

Topic:Temple Architecture Styles
Dravidian Style Temples:
• Gangaikondacholapuram Temple - Chola dynasty, Tamil Nadu
• Brihadeeswara Temple - Chola dynasty, Thanjavur
• Shore Temple - Pallava dynasty, Mahabalipuram
Siddhesvara Mahadeva Temple:
Located in Haveri, Karnataka
Built inChalukyan/Vesara style(blend of Nagara & Dravidian)
NOT a pure Dravidian style temple
Answer: Option 4 → Siddhesvara Mahadeva Temple

Economics (1)

Inflation · Measures to control inflation

Q26. The Government of India set up the Price Stabilisation Fund (PSF) to regulate the prices of agri-horticultural commodities in which financial year?

  1. (a) 2016-17
  2. (b) 2019-20
  3. (c) 2012-13
  4. (d) 2014-15
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 2014-15

Price Stabilisation Fund (PSF)
Established by Government of India in2014-15.
Purpose: Regulate prices of agri-horticultural commodities.
Helps control price volatility of perishable items like onions, potatoes, pulses.
Answer: Option 4 → 2014-15

Geography (5)

India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Soil types and distribution

Q27. Which soil type, known for retaining moisture, is ideal for cotton cultivation?

  1. (a) Red soil
  2. (b) Black soil
  3. (c) Laterite soil
  4. (d) Sandy soil
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Black soil

Topic: Soil Types and Cotton Cultivation
Black Soil (Regur Soil)
• High clay content with excellent moisture retention
• Rich in calcium, magnesium, and iron
• Self-plowing due to expansion when wet
Why Ideal for Cotton:
• Retains moisture for long periods during dry spells
• Found in Deccan Plateau (Maharashtra, Gujarat, MP)
• Known as 'Cotton Soil' or 'Black Cotton Soil'
Answer: Option 2 → Black soil
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Islands (Andaman & Nicobar, Lakshadweep)

Q28. Which of the following water bodies separates the Andaman Islands from the Nicobar Islands?

  1. (a) Palk Strait
  2. (b) Ten Degree Channel
  3. (c) Duncan Passage
  4. (d) Nine Degree Channel
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ten Degree Channel

Andaman and Nicobar Islands - Geography
TheTen Degree Channelseparates Andaman Islands (north) from Nicobar Islands (south).
It is located at approximately 10°N latitude.
Other channels:
• Duncan Passage - separates Little Andaman from South Andaman
• Nine Degree Channel - separates Minicoy from Lakshadweep
• Palk Strait - separates India from Sri Lanka
Answer: Option 2 → Ten Degree Channel
Environment and Protected Areas · Environmental conventions and protocols (Montreal, Kyoto, Paris, CBD)

Q29. Which global event first initiated coordinated international action on environmental protection and development?

  1. (a) Rio Conference, 1992
  2. (b) Doha Climate Meeting, 2012
  3. (c) Stockholm Conference, 1972
  4. (d) Johannesburg Summit, 2002
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Stockholm Conference, 1972

Topic: International Environmental Conferences
Stockholm Conference, 1972was the first major UN conference on environmental issues.
Key Facts:
• First global summit to make environment a major issue
• Led to creation of UNEP (United Nations Environment Programme)
• Established principles for international environmental governance
Other conferences came later:
Rio (1992) - Earth Summit, Agenda 21
Johannesburg (2002) - World Summit on Sustainable Development
Doha (2012) - Climate change extension
Answer: Option 3 → Stockholm Conference, 1972
India - Agriculture · Cash crops and leading states (cotton, jute, sugarcane, tea, coffee, rubber)

Q30. Which of the following states accounts for about three-fourths of India's total jute production?

  1. (a) Assam
  2. (b) Odisha
  3. (c) West Bengal
  4. (d) Bihar
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) West Bengal

Topic: Jute Production in India
West Bengalis the largest jute-producing state in India.
It accounts for approximately75% (three-fourths)of India's total jute production.
Major jute-growing districts: Murshidabad, Nadia, North 24 Parganas, Hooghly.
Favorable conditions: Alluvial soil, high rainfall, humid climate in Gangetic plains.
Answer: Option 3 → West Bengal
India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Forest types and distribution

Q31. Which of the following trees is characteristic of the tropical deciduous forests of India?

  1. (a) Teak
  2. (b) Fir
  3. (c) Mangrove
  4. (d) Deodar
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Teak

Topic: Tropical Deciduous Forests of India
Characteristic Features:
Also calledMonsoon Forests, found in areas with 70-200 cm rainfall.
Trees shed leaves in dry season (6-8 months).
Common Trees:
Teak, Sal, Shisham, Sandalwoodare typical deciduous trees.
Other Options:
Fir & Deodar → Temperate/Alpine forests (Himalayas)
Mangrove → Coastal tidal forests (saline water)
Answer: Option 1 → Teak

Medieval History (2)

South Indian Kingdoms · Cholas - rulers and administration

Q32. Which among the following kings from the early medieval period assumed the title "Gangaikonda"?

  1. (a) Pulakesin II
  2. (b) Rajendra I
  3. (c) Rajaraja I
  4. (d) Vijayalaya
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Rajendra I

Topic: Chola Dynasty - Medieval India
Gangaikondameans 'conqueror of the Ganga'.
Rajendra I(1014-1044 CE) was the son of Rajaraja I.
He led a successful military expedition to North India,
reaching the banks of the Ganga river.
To commemorate this victory, he assumed the title
'Gangaikonda Chola'and built a new capital
calledGangaikondacholapuram.
Answer: Option 2 → Rajendra I
Delhi Sultanate · Slave (Mamluk) dynasty

Q33. Razia, the daughter of Iltutmish, ruled Delhi Sultanate between which years before being overthrown by Turkish nobles?

  1. (a) 1246–1250
  2. (b) 1240–1246
  3. (c) 1230–1236
  4. (d) 1236–1240
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1236–1240

Topic: Delhi Sultanate - Slave Dynasty
Razia Sultan (Razia Sultana)
Daughter of Sultan Iltutmish of Slave Dynasty.
First and only woman ruler of Delhi Sultanate.
Ruled from1236 to 1240 AD(4 years).
Overthrown by Turkish nobles (Turkan-i-Chihalgani).
Killed in 1240 after being defeated.
Answer: Option 4 → 1236–1240

Modern History (3)

Personalities, Newspapers, Books and Slogans · Books and authors of the modern period

Q34. Which extremist leader authored the famous work, Gita Rahasya?

  1. (a) Aurobindo Ghose
  2. (b) Lala Lajpat Rai
  3. (c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
  4. (d) Bipin Chandra Pal
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Topic: Indian Freedom Struggle - Extremist Leaders
Gita Rahasya(Secrets of the Bhagavad Gita) was written byBal Gangadhar Tilakduring his imprisonment in Mandalay Jail (1908-1914).
The book is a commentary on the Bhagavad Gita emphasizingKarma Yoga(path of action).
Tilak used it to inspire Indians toward active participation in the freedom struggle.
Answer: Option 3 → Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Peasant movements (Indigo, Pabna, Deccan riots)

Q35. Who among the following was associated with the Farazi Movement in Bengal during the 19th century?

  1. (a) Dadu Mian
  2. (b) Birsa Munda
  3. (c) Maznoom Shah
  4. (d) U Kiang Nongbah
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Dadu Mian

Farazi Movement in Bengal (19th Century)
Founded byHaji Shariatullah(1781-1840) in Bengal.
Movement aimed at purifying Islam and removing un-Islamic practices.
Dadu Mian(son of Haji Shariatullah) led the movement after 1840.
He organized peasants against zamindari oppression.
Other leaders: Birsa Munda → Munda Rebellion, Maznoom Shah → Not associated, U Kiang Nongbah → Khasi Uprising.
Answer: Option 1 → Dadu Mian
Gandhian Era · Simon Commission and Nehru Report

Q36. Which contribution is correctly associated with Lala Lajpat Rai during the freedom struggle?

  1. (a) Commanding the Congress Volunteers during the Salt March in Gujarat
  2. (b) Drafting the Nehru Report outlining complete independence for India
  3. (c) Leading the anti-Simon Commission protests, where he suffered fatal injuries
  4. (d) Leading the Bardoli satyagraha against enhanced revenue-demand policies
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Leading the anti-Simon Commission protests, where he suffered fatal injuries

Lala Lajpat Rai - Freedom Fighter
Known as'Punjab Kesari'(Lion of Punjab).
On30 October 1928, led protest against Simon Commission in Lahore.
British police superintendent James Scott orderedlathi charge.
Lajpat Rai suffered severe injuries and died on17 November 1928.
His death sparked revolutionary movement; Bhagat Singh avenged by killing Saunders.
Answer: Option 3 → Leading the anti-Simon Commission protests, where he suffered fatal injuries

Biology (2)

Heredity and Evolution · Genetic terms (dominant, recessive, genotype, phenotype)

Q37. In a cross between true-breeding red-flowered and true breeding white-flowered plants, the Filial 1 (F₁) progeny was pink. This is a case of which type of inheritance?

  1. (a) Complete Dominance
  2. (b) Incomplete Dominance
  3. (c) Co-dominance
  4. (d) Sex-linkage
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Incomplete Dominance

Cross: Red (RR) × White (WW)
F₁ progeny: All pink flowers (RW)
Incomplete Dominance:
Neither allele is completely dominant
Heterozygote shows intermediate phenotype
Red + White = Pink (blended)
Complete dominance → F₁ would be red
Co-dominance → Both colors expressed separately
Answer: Option 2 → Incomplete Dominance
Nutrition and Digestion · Digestive enzymes and juices

Q38. In human beings, the complete digestion of proteins results in the formation of which substances?

  1. (a) Fatty acids
  2. (b) Glucose
  3. (c) Glycerol
  4. (d) Amino acids
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Amino acids

Protein Digestion in Humans
Proteins are complex molecules made of amino acids linked by peptide bonds.
Digestion process:
Stomach: Pepsin breaks proteins → polypeptides
Small intestine: Trypsin, chymotrypsin → smaller peptides
Final step: Peptidases →amino acids
Complete digestion of proteins yields only amino acids, which are absorbed by the small intestine.
Answer: Option 4 → Amino acids

Miscellaneous (1)

General Miscellaneous · Logical and general-reasoning GK

Q39. Which approach is crucial for empowering rural women, leading to community development?

  1. (a) Focussing solely on men's employment programmes
  2. (b) Promoting gender-specific vocational training and education
  3. (c) Restricting women's roles to traditional household duties
  4. (d) Limiting educational opportunities to urban centres
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Promoting gender-specific vocational training and education

Topic: Rural Women Empowerment & Community Development
Key Principles:
Women empowerment requires skill development and education access.
Gender-specific vocational training addresses unique needs and barriers.
Educated women contribute to family income, health, and child education.
Analysis of Options:
Option 1: Excludes women → No empowerment
Option 2: Provides skills & education → Enables economic independence
Option 3: Restricts roles → Limits potential
Option 4: Urban focus → Ignores rural women
Impact:Vocational training leads to self-employment, income generation,
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