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SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 12 September 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 21 GK / GS questions asked in SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 on 12 September 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Medieval History, Ancient History, Static GK, Modern History, Current Affairs, Geography.

📚 21 questions🗓️ 12 September 2025⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Medieval History (1) · Ancient History (1) · Static GK (4) · Modern History (1) · Current Affairs (2) · Geography (5) · Computer (1) · Biology (1) · Polity (2) · Physics (1) · Economics (2)

Medieval History (1)

Mughal Empire · Mughal architecture

Q1. Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options:
Assertion (A): Humayun's Tomb was the first major Mughal garden tomb and directly inspired the design of the Taj Mahal.
Reason (R): It introduced the charbagh garden layout and double-domed mausoleum style that became characteristic of later Mughal architecture.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Humayun's Tomb (built 1565-72 in Delhi) was indeed the first major Mughal garden tomb in the Indian sub-continent and is widely accepted as the precursor of the Taj Mahal — so A is true.
It introduced the charbagh (four-quartered Persian garden) layout and the double-domed mausoleum style, both of which became hallmarks of later Mughal architecture culminating in the Taj Mahal — so R is also true.
R directly explains why A holds: it is the architectural elements introduced (R) that made Humayun's Tomb the inspiration (A).

Ancient History (1)

Mauryan Empire · Mauryan administration and economy

Q2. Which ancient ruler's administration is noted for its highly centralized structure?

  1. (a) Harshavardhana
  2. (b) Samudragupta
  3. (c) Chandragupta Maurya
  4. (d) Pulakeshin II
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Chandragupta Maurya

Chandragupta Maurya, guided by Kautilya's Arthashastra, set up an extremely centralized bureaucracy with the king at the apex, supported by a council of ministers and a network of officials, spies and a standing army.
Harshavardhana's administration was relatively decentralized and feudatory in nature.
Samudragupta is famous for military conquests rather than centralized administration.
Pulakeshin II of the Chalukyas had a more decentralized feudal set-up.
Hence the most centralized administration is that of Chandragupta Maurya.

Static GK (4)

Music and Musical Instruments · Carnatic music

Q3. Which of the following correctly reflects the evolution of Indian classical music?

  1. (a) Jatis evolved from ragas as per ancient texts
  2. (b) 72-mela system was given by Bharata in 13th century
  3. (c) Folk music originally used mela and grama scales
  4. (d) Ragas evolved from jatis; 72-mela was by Venkatamakhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ragas evolved from jatis; 72-mela was by Venkatamakhi

According to Bharata's Natyashastra, the early melodic units were 'jatis'; over time these jatis evolved into the modern raga system — so the order is jatis → ragas (option 1 is reversed and wrong).
The 72-Melakarta scheme was given by Venkatamakhi in his Chaturdandi Prakashika in the 17th century, not by Bharata in the 13th century — so options 2 and 3 are wrong.
The statement in option 4 — 'Ragas evolved from jatis; 72-mela was by Venkatamakhi' — correctly reflects both facts.
Sports · Athletics - events, rules and specifications

Q4. Consider the following statements about the phases of long jump:
1) The athlete attains maximum momentum by running on the runway before take-off.
2) During take-off, the athlete pushes off with the weaker foot to maintain balance.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1 is Correct
  2. (b) Only 2 is Correct
  3. (c) 1 and 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 are Correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1 is Correct

Statement 1: The approach run on the runway is precisely meant to build up maximum horizontal velocity (momentum) before the take-off. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2: At take-off, the jumper plants the stronger / dominant foot on the board to drive the body upward and forward, not the weaker foot. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Therefore only statement 1 is correct.
Sports · Sports schemes and campaigns (Khelo India, Fit India)

Q5. Fill in the blank:
Under the SLKIC vertical of Khelo India, ___ Kendriya Vidyalayas have been adopted in partnership with KVS.

  1. (a) 3
  2. (b) 4
  3. (c) 5
  4. (d) 6
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 4

Under the SLKIC (Sports for Life — Khelo India Centres) vertical of the Khelo India scheme, four Kendriya Vidyalayas have been adopted as Khelo India centres in partnership with the Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS).
Hence the correct number is 4.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q6. Consider the following statements about 'The Adventures of Kakababu, Volume 1' by Sunil Gangopadhyaya:
1) A pioneering Bengali adventure novel featuring detective Kakababu with mystery and cultural themes.
2) A political satire on post-independence Indian governance.
3) An autobiography of the author's freedom fighter experiences in Bengal.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only statement 1 is correct
  2. (b) Only statement 2 is correct
  3. (c) Statements 2 and 3 are correct
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only statement 1 is correct

Sunil Gangopadhyay's Kakababu series is a popular Bengali adventure-mystery series whose protagonist Raja Roy Chowdhury (Kakababu) solves cases set across cultural and historical backgrounds — so statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2 is wrong: the Kakababu books are not a political satire on Indian governance.
Statement 3 is wrong: the work is fiction, not the author's autobiography of freedom-fighter experiences.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Modern History (1)

British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q7. The Regulating Act of 1773 primarily introduced changes in the Company's administration in which two distinct areas?

  1. (a) Company's Judicial system and revenue collection.
  2. (b) Company's Military strategy and trade regulations.
  3. (c) Company's constitution at home and territorial control in India.
  4. (d) Company's relations with princely states and foreign policy.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Company's constitution at home and territorial control in India.

The Regulating Act of 1773 was the first major step by the British Parliament to control the affairs of the East India Company.
At home (in England) it reformed the Company's constitution — fixing the qualifications of directors, their tenure, and parliamentary oversight.
In India it placed the territorial possessions under a Governor-General of Bengal in Council and set up a Supreme Court at Calcutta — i.e., it reorganised territorial control.
It did not primarily address judicial-revenue, military-trade or princely state-foreign policy areas as a pair.
Hence the correct pair of areas is the Company's constitution at home and territorial control in India.

Current Affairs (2)

International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q8. Which Indian political leader addressed a special session in 2025 on 'Environment, COP-30, and Global Health'?

  1. (a) Piyush Goyal
  2. (b) Hardeep Puri
  3. (c) Narendra Modi
  4. (d) S. Jaishankar
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Narendra Modi

Prime Minister Narendra Modi addressed the special session in 2025 dedicated to 'Environment, COP-30, and Global Health', highlighting India's climate commitments and One-Health approach.
The other ministers — Piyush Goyal, Hardeep Puri and S. Jaishankar — head different portfolios and were not the speakers at this session.
Hence the correct answer is Narendra Modi.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q9. According to the Global Cities Index 2025 by Oxford Economics, which two cities retained their top positions?

  1. (a) Tokyo and Beijing
  2. (b) London and New York
  3. (c) Paris and Rome
  4. (d) Berlin and Moscow
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) London and New York

In the Oxford Economics Global Cities Index 2025, New York retained the No. 1 position and London retained the No. 2 position globally.
The other pairs — Tokyo/Beijing, Paris/Rome and Berlin/Moscow — did not occupy the top two slots.
Hence the correct answer is London and New York.

Geography (5)

Lithosphere - Earth's Interior and Landforms · Weathering and erosion

Q10. Which of the following types of landslides involves backward rotation of the slipping material?

  1. (a) Rockslide
  2. (b) Rock fall
  3. (c) Slump
  4. (d) Debris fall
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Slump

A slump is a rotational landslide in which the slipping mass moves along a curved (concave-up) slip surface and the upper surface tilts backward toward the original slope — this is the defining 'backward rotation' feature.
A rockslide moves along a planar surface without rotation.
Rock fall and debris fall are free-fall movements down steep slopes, not rotations.
Hence the correct option is Slump.
India - Population and Census · Population density

Q11. What is meant by population density?

  1. (a) Population per household
  2. (b) People per square kilometre
  3. (c) People per region
  4. (d) People per district
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) People per square kilometre

Population density is defined as the number of people living per unit area of land — the standard unit being one square kilometre.
'Population per household' gives household size, not density.
'People per region' or 'people per district' are not standardised measures of density because the area of a region/district varies.
Hence population density = people per square kilometre.
India - Population and Census · Census 2011 - population and growth

Q12. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given below. Choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Population explosion occurs when death rates decline rapidly but birth rates remain high.
Reason (R): Societal reproductive behaviour changes instantly with improvements in healthcare.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false

A is true: in the second stage of demographic transition, falling death rates with persistently high birth rates produce a 'population explosion'.
R is false: societal reproductive behaviour does not change instantly with improvements in healthcare; it changes slowly with education, urbanisation and changing economic incentives — that is precisely why birth rates remain high while death rates fall, causing the explosion.
Since A is true and R is false, the correct option is 3.
India - Transport and Communication · Airports and aviation

Q13. Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options:
Assertion (A): UDAN Scheme improves regional air connectivity.
Reason (R): It provides financial viability gap funding to airlines.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

A is true: UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik) is the regional connectivity scheme that links unserved and under-served airports, thereby improving regional air connectivity.
R is true: Under UDAN the government provides Viability Gap Funding (VGF) to operators to make low-fare regional routes financially viable.
R is also the correct explanation of A — the VGF makes otherwise unprofitable regional routes commercially viable, which is exactly how connectivity gets improved.
Hence option 1 is correct.
Atmosphere and Climate · Climate change and global warming

Q14. A coastal city implements a plan to build sea walls and elevate buildings in response to rising sea levels. This action primarily falls under which category of climate change response?

  1. (a) Climate Change Mitigation.
  2. (b) Carbon Sequestration.
  3. (c) Geoengineering.
  4. (d) Climate Change Adaptation.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Climate Change Adaptation.

Mitigation refers to actions that reduce greenhouse-gas emissions (e.g. shifting to renewables, planting forests).
Adaptation refers to actions that adjust to the impacts of climate change that are already happening (e.g. sea walls, elevating buildings, drought-resistant crops).
Building sea walls and elevating buildings does not reduce GHG emissions; it only protects the city from rising seas — therefore it is adaptation.
Carbon sequestration is a mitigation tool; geoengineering refers to large-scale interventions in Earth's systems.
Hence the correct option is Climate Change Adaptation.

Computer (1)

Emerging Technologies and E-Governance · Artificial Intelligence and machine learning

Q15. Which of the following best reflects the fundamental objective of applying generative design in aerospace systems engineering?

  1. (a) Facilitating seamless integration of multi-payload platforms in shared bus structures
  2. (b) Optimizing mechanical configurations for minimum mass and maximum structural resilience
  3. (c) Enhancing life-support redundancies to meet crew safety protocols in deep-space missions
  4. (d) Designing adaptive thrust mechanisms to dynamically control orbital corrections
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Optimizing mechanical configurations for minimum mass and maximum structural resilience

Generative design uses algorithms (often AI/ML driven) to explore many geometric configurations against engineering constraints.
In aerospace, where every kilogram costs heavily and structural integrity is critical, the primary use of generative design is to find shapes that minimise mass while maximising stiffness/strength — i.e., minimum mass with maximum structural resilience.
Multi-payload integration, life-support redundancy and adaptive thrust control are specialised tasks but are not the fundamental objective of generative design.
Hence option 2 is correct.

Biology (1)

Cell - Structure and Function · Golgi apparatus, lysosomes and vacuoles

Q16. The function of lysosomes in cells is:

  1. (a) Protein synthesis
  2. (b) Intracellular digestion
  3. (c) Energy production
  4. (d) Genetic information storage
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Intracellular digestion

Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles that contain hydrolytic enzymes capable of digesting macromolecules and worn-out cell parts inside the cell — i.e., intracellular digestion. They are often called the 'suicide bags' of the cell.
Protein synthesis is performed by ribosomes.
Energy production happens in mitochondria.
Genetic information storage is the role of the nucleus (DNA).
Hence the correct option is Intracellular digestion.

Polity (2)

Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Financial relations

Q17. Which of the following statements regarding Article 270 are correct?
1) Article 270 governs the sharing of taxes between the Union and States, including proceeds from GST.
2) After the 101st Constitutional Amendment, Article 270 includes provisions for distributing revenue from Union taxes and GST.
3) The GST Compensation Cess is also shared between the Union and States under Article 270.

  1. (a) 1 and 3 only
  2. (b) 1 Only
  3. (c) 1 & 2 only
  4. (d) 2 & 3 only
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1 & 2 only

Statement 1: Article 270 deals with the distribution of net proceeds of Union taxes between the Union and the States, and after the 101st Amendment also covers GST. Correct.
Statement 2: The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016 amended Article 270 to bring Union taxes and the Union's share of IGST into the divisible pool for sharing with States. Correct.
Statement 3: The GST Compensation Cess is collected separately under the GST (Compensation to States) Act, 2017 and credited to the Compensation Fund — it is not part of the divisible pool under Article 270. Incorrect.
Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct → option '1 & 2 only'.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q18. Schedule VII of the Constitution contains _____.

  1. (a) Election guidelines
  2. (b) Three legislative lists
  3. (c) Emergency powers
  4. (d) Judicial provisions
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Three legislative lists

The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India distributes legislative powers between the Union and the States through three lists:
Union List, State List and Concurrent List.
Election guidelines are in the Tenth/relevant articles, emergency powers in Articles 352–360, and judicial provisions in Part V/VI — none of these are in Schedule VII.
Hence the correct answer is Three legislative lists.

Physics (1)

Gravitation · Numericals on gravitation

Q19. If Earth's radius were reduced by 1% while its mass remained unchanged, what would be the effect on the gravitational acceleration at its surface?

  1. (a) Increase by approximately 1%
  2. (b) Decrease by approximately 2%
  3. (c) Increase by approximately 2%
  4. (d) Decrease by approximately 1%
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Increase by approximately 2%

Surface gravitational acceleration: g = GM / R².
For small changes (with M constant): Δg / g ≈ −2 × ΔR / R.
Given ΔR / R = −1% = −0.01.
Δg / g ≈ −2 × (−0.01) = +0.02 = +2%.
So g increases by about 2%.

Economics (2)

Agriculture and Food Security · Crop insurance and farmer schemes

Q20. What is the age range for farmers to enrol in the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana (PM-KMY)?

  1. (a) 18–30 years
  2. (b) 18–40 years
  3. (c) 21–45 years
  4. (d) 25–50 years
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 18–40 years

The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana (PM-KMY) is a voluntary, contributory pension scheme for small and marginal farmers.
The eligible age for enrolment is 18 to 40 years.
On attaining 60 years of age, the farmer becomes entitled to a minimum pension of Rs. 3,000 per month.
Hence the correct option is 18–40 years.
Industry and Infrastructure · Classification of industries (size, ownership, raw material)

Q21. Which of the following statements about light industries is correct?

  1. (a) They process heavy ores and minerals.
  2. (b) They produce large-scale industrial machinery.
  3. (c) They require bulky and heavy raw materials.
  4. (d) Use light materials to make consumer goods
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Use light materials to make consumer goods

Light industries use comparatively less raw material, less power and produce small-volume / consumer-oriented goods such as garments, electronics, cosmetics, food products, etc.
Processing heavy ores, producing large-scale machinery and using bulky raw materials are characteristics of heavy industries.
Hence the correct statement is: 'Use light materials to make consumer goods.'
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