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SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 12 September 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 25 GK / GS questions asked in SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 on 12 September 2025 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Ancient History, Static GK, Current Affairs, Economics, Geography, Biology.

📚 25 questions🗓️ 12 September 2025⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Ancient History (1) · Static GK (8) · Current Affairs (2) · Economics (5) · Geography (1) · Biology (1) · Polity (5) · Physics (1) · Chemistry (1)

Ancient History (1)

Ancient Art, Culture and Science · Cave architecture (Ajanta, Ellora, Elephanta, etc.)

Q1. Which of the following features distinguishes the Elephanta Caves from other rock-cut sites of early India?

  1. (a) They are primarily Buddhist caves with large stupas.
  2. (b) The caves focus on Shaivite themes and feature sculptural depth through light and shadow.
  3. (c) They contain a mix of Jain and Vaishnavite depictions in pillar halls.
  4. (d) The caves are entirely monolithic structures from the Mauryan period.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The caves focus on Shaivite themes and feature sculptural depth through light and shadow.

Elephanta Caves are a Shaivite rock-cut complex (Trimurti, etc.) renowned for sculptural depth and use of light and shadow.
Option 1 is wrong — they are not Buddhist.
Option 3 is wrong — they are not Jain/Vaishnavite.
Option 4 is wrong — they are not Mauryan.
Hence, the answer is option 2.

Static GK (8)

Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q2. Read the statements about the Goncha Festival of Bastar:
1.) Tupki , a mock gun made of bamboo, uses Goncha fruit as bullets.
2.) The chariot procession was started by Chalukya rulers.
3.) Rath Yatra begins on Ashadh Shukla Dashmi and ends on Dutiya .
Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1 and 2
  2. (b) Only 2 and 3
  3. (c) Only 1 and 3
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1 and 2

Statement 1 is correct — Tupki uses Goncha fruit as bullets.
Statement 2 is correct — chariot procession traces back to Kakatiya/ Chalukya era rulers.
Statement 3 is incorrect — the Rath Yatra in Bastar Goncha begins on Ashadh Shukla Dwitiya, not Dashmi .
Hence, the answer is Only 1 and 2.
Music and Musical Instruments · Carnatic music

Q3. Fill in the blanks:
In Carnatic music, a laghu with five beats is known as ___ jaati .

  1. (a) Tishra
  2. (b) Chaturashra
  3. (c) Khanda
  4. (d) Mishra
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Khanda

Laghu jaatis in Carnatic music: Tishra (3), Chaturashra (4), Khanda (5), Mishra (7), Sankeerna (9).
A laghu with 5 beats is Khanda jaati .
Hence, the answer is Khanda.
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q4. Which of the following statements about Judo is correct?

  1. (a) Judo was introduced in 1882 by Jigoro Kano in Japan.
  2. (b) India's first National Judo Championship was held in 1970 at Delhi University.
  3. (c) Kalpana Devi won gold at the 2010 Judo World Cup.
  4. (d) Judo became an Olympic sport in 1965.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Judo was introduced in 1882 by Jigoro Kano in Japan.

Judo was founded by Jigoro Kano in Japan in 1882.
Other statements have factual errors (Indian championship year, Kalpana Devi's medal, and Judo entered Olympics in 1964).
Hence, the answer is option 1.
Sports · National championships - venues and winners

Q5. Fill in the blanks:
The Santosh Trophy 2022–23 final was uniquely held in _____, where Karnataka defeated Meghalaya to win the title after 54 years.

  1. (a) Dubai
  2. (b) Riyadh
  3. (c) Doha
  4. (d) Muscat
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Riyadh

The Santosh Trophy 2022–23 final was historically held in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia — the first time outside India.
Karnataka defeated Meghalaya to win the title after 54 years.
Hence, the answer is Riyadh.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q6. Which of the following statements best captures the essence of "Landscapes of Loss: The Story of an Indian Drought" by Kavitha Iyer?

  1. (a) A study on drought's human and ecological impacts in India.
  2. (b) A fictional story about a family in a drought-hit area.
  3. (c) A history of monsoon patterns and ancient agriculture in India.
  4. (d) A colonial-era policy analysis of water management.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) A study on drought's human and ecological impacts in India.

Kavitha Iyer's book documents the human and ecological impacts of recurring droughts in Marathwada, India.
It is non-fiction (not a fictional story).
Hence, the answer is option 1.
Space, Defence and Technology · Launch vehicles and satellites

Q7. What is the primary function of the Crew Escape System (CES) on ISRO's Human Rated LVM3 (HLVM3) rocket?

  1. (a) To guide the crew module into its designated Low Earth Orbit.
  2. (b) To eject the crew module to safety during launch emergencies.
  3. (c) To assist in docking the crew module with a space station.
  4. (d) To provide thermal shielding during re-entry into Earth's atmosphere.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To eject the crew module to safety during launch emergencies.

The Crew Escape System is a safety mechanism that quickly carries the crew module away from the rocket in case of any launch-pad or ascent-phase emergency.
It does not handle orbit insertion, docking or thermal shielding.
Hence, the answer is option 2.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q8. Cheraw, the bamboo dance performed using crossed bamboo sticks, is a folk dance of which state?

  1. (a) Mizoram
  2. (b) Meghalaya
  3. (c) Arunachal Pradesh
  4. (d) Sikkim
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mizoram

Cheraw is the traditional bamboo dance of Mizoram, performed by tapping crossed bamboo sticks while dancers step in and out.
Hence, the answer is Mizoram.
Space, Defence and Technology · Science and technology missions and schemes

Q9. What is the main objective of the National Framework for Climate Services (NFCS) launched in 2024?

  1. (a) To set emission trading targets
  2. (b) To regulate groundwater quality
  3. (c) To deliver sector-specific climate information services
  4. (d) To mandate carbon offsetting in the private sector
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To deliver sector-specific climate information services

NFCS was launched by the Ministry of Earth Sciences in 2024 to deliver tailored climate information for sectors like agriculture, water, health, energy and disaster management.
Hence, the answer is option 3.

Current Affairs (2)

Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q10. Where and when will the 59th National Cross Country Championships – 2025 be held?

  1. (a) 10th January 2025, Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh
  2. (b) 12th January 2025, Meerut, Uttar Pradesh
  3. (c) 15th January 2025, Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh
  4. (d) 12th January 2025, Jaipur, Rajasthan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 12th January 2025, Meerut, Uttar Pradesh

The 59th National Cross Country Championships 2025 was held on 12 January 2025 at Meerut, Uttar Pradesh.
Hence, the answer is option 2.
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q11. Which of the following statements about Justice Sanjiv Khanna is/are true?
1. He is the 51st Chief Justice of India
2. He succeeded Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
3. He served as CJI from 2023

  1. (a) 1 and 2 only
  2. (b) 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 1 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2, and 3 all are true
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Justice Sanjiv Khanna is the 51st CJI and succeeded Justice D.Y. Chandrachud (sworn in on 11 November 2024).
He did NOT serve as CJI from 2023, so statement 3 is false.
Hence, the answer is 1 and 2 only.

Economics (5)

External Sector and International Economic Organisations · FDI, FPI and FEMA

Q12. What is the core structural focus of the 2024 India–UAE Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT) within India's international investment strategy?

  1. (a) Proposes joint sovereign funds and links INR swap with UAE banks.
  2. (b) Focuses on pre-establishment rights and UAE-based arbitration.
  3. (c) Assures post-establishment investor confidence via standard and national treatment.
  4. (d) Aims at GCC-wide tax regulation under India-led digital framework.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Assures post-establishment investor confidence via standard and national treatment.

The 2024 India–UAE BIT focuses on post-establishment protection of investors through standards like fair and equitable treatment and national treatment.
It does not include pre-establishment rights or sovereign funds.
Hence, the answer is option 3.
Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Population and demographic dividend

Q13. Which of the following objectives are part of the National Population Policy (NPP) 2000?
1. Providing free and compulsory education up to 14 years of age
2. Increasing fertility rate to ensure demographic dividend
3. Reducing infant mortality rate below 30 per 1000 live births
4. Promoting delayed marriage for girls

  1. (a) Only 1 and 2 are correct
  2. (b) Only 1 and 3 are correct
  3. (c) Only 1, 3 and 4 are correct
  4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 all are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Only 1, 3 and 4 are correct

NPP 2000 objectives include free education up to 14 years (1), reducing IMR below 30 per 1000 (3), and delayed marriage for girls (4).
It aims to REDUCE fertility, not increase it, so (2) is incorrect.
Hence, the answer is Only 1, 3 and 4.
Agriculture and Food Security · Public Distribution System and FCI

Q14. Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options:
Assertion (A): The One Nation One Ration Card ensures portability of food grains.
Reason (R): It uses Aadhaar-enabled biometric authentication.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

ONORC ensures portability of ration nationwide — A is true.
It uses Aadhaar-enabled biometric authentication for ePOS devices — R is true and explains how portability is technically possible.
Hence, both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q15. What is a key factor assessed in the Global Firepower Military Strength Ranking 2025?

  1. (a) Economic Stability
  2. (b) Cultural Influence
  3. (c) Defense Budget
  4. (d) Healthcare Spending
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Defense Budget

Global Firepower Index assesses about 60 individual factors including manpower, equipment, finances and logistics.
Defense Budget (financial military strength) is a key parameter.
Hence, the answer is Defense Budget.
Industry and Infrastructure · Classification of industries (size, ownership, raw material)

Q16. Which of the following correctly describes cooperative sector industries?

  1. (a) Owned and operated by central government agencies.
  2. (b) Operated solely for export purposes.
  3. (c) Owned by workers or suppliers sharing profits and losses
  4. (d) Maintained by foreign companies with Indian partnerships.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Owned by workers or suppliers sharing profits and losses

Cooperative sector industries are owned, managed and operated by their members (workers/suppliers/consumers) who share the profits and losses.
Examples include AMUL, IFFCO.
Hence, the answer is option 3.

Geography (1)

Lithosphere - Earth's Interior and Landforms · Glacial landforms

Q17. Consider the following statements about glacial landforms:
Statement 1: Hanging valleys are often found opening into main glacial valleys at higher elevations.
Statement 2: Spurs of such hanging valleys are frequently truncated into triangular facets.
Which of the following Statements is/are Correct?

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) 1 and 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 are correct

Hanging valleys are tributary glacial valleys hanging above the main valley floor — Statement 1 is correct.
The spurs that project into glacial valleys are typically truncated into triangular facets by glacial erosion — Statement 2 is also correct.
Hence, both statements are correct.

Biology (1)

Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Aerobic and anaerobic respiration

Q18. Which pathway in cellular respiration generates the most ATP?

  1. (a) Glycolysis
  2. (b) Krebs cycle
  3. (c) Electron transport chain
  4. (d) Fermentation
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Electron transport chain

Glycolysis: 2 ATP; Krebs cycle: 2 ATP; ETC (Oxidative Phosphorylation): about 32–34 ATP.
The Electron Transport Chain produces by far the most ATP.
Hence, the answer is Electron transport chain.

Polity (5)

Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · Inter-State Council and Zonal Councils

Q19. Arrange the following events in chronological order:
a. Eastern Zonal Council meeting 2022
b. States Reorganisation Act passed
c. First Central Zonal Council meeting

  1. (a) b-c-a
  2. (b) c-b-a
  3. (c) a-b-c
  4. (d) b-a-c
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) b-c-a

States Reorganisation Act was passed in 1956 (b).
The first Central Zonal Council meeting was held in 1957 (c).
The Eastern Zonal Council meeting in 2022 (a).
Chronological order: b → c → a.
Hence, the answer is b-c-a.
Fundamental Rights · Right to Property and Article 300A

Q20. Which of the following most accurately describes the legal character of the right to property under Article 300A of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) It is a fundamental right that guarantees compensation for all property acquisitions.
  2. (b) It allows the State to deprive a person of property by any law, even without due process.
  3. (c) It is a constitutional legal right that permits deprivation only by authority of law.
  4. (d) It permits citizens to claim property protection under Article 32 before the Supreme Court.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It is a constitutional legal right that permits deprivation only by authority of law.

Article 300A states that no person shall be deprived of property save by authority of law.
It is a constitutional/legal right (not a fundamental right after the 44th Amendment).
Hence, the answer is option 3.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q21. The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) places emphasis on the use of technology to ensure the authenticity of evidence. This is particularly relevant for:

  1. (a) Physical exhibits from crime scenes.
  2. (b) Hand-written diaries.
  3. (c) Digital and electronic evidence.
  4. (d) Oral confessions.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Digital and electronic evidence.

The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) replaces the Indian Evidence Act and gives detailed provisions for digital/electronic records.
Technology authentication is most relevant to digital and electronic evidence.
Hence, the answer is option 3.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q22. Education is now placed under which list after the 42nd Amendment?

  1. (a) Union List
  2. (b) State List
  3. (c) Concurrent List
  4. (d) Judicial List
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Concurrent List

Before the 42nd Amendment (1976), Education was a State subject.
After the 42nd Amendment, Education was shifted to the Concurrent List.
Hence, the answer is Concurrent List.
DPSP and Fundamental Duties · DPSP - features and classification

Q23. Which of the following is true about Fundamental Rights and DPSPs?

  1. (a) Both are justiciable and enforceable by courts
  2. (b) DPSPs override Fundamental Rights when in conflict
  3. (c) Fundamental Rights are justiciable, but DPSPs are not
  4. (d) DPSPs are guaranteed by the Constitution; Fundamental Rights are optional
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Fundamental Rights are justiciable, but DPSPs are not

Fundamental Rights (Part III) are justiciable — courts can enforce them.
DPSPs (Part IV) are non-justiciable — courts cannot enforce them, though they guide governance.
Hence, the answer is option 3.

Physics (1)

Motion · Rotational motion and moment of inertia

Q24. For a rigid body, the angular velocity of any particle about a given axis of rotation is:

  1. (a) Proportional to its distance from the axis
  2. (b) The same for all particles
  3. (c) Inversely proportional to its distance from the axis
  4. (d) Always zero
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The same for all particles

In a rigid body rotating about a fixed axis, every particle has the same angular velocity (ω).
Linear velocity v = rω varies with distance, but ω is identical for every particle.
Hence, the answer is option 2.

Chemistry (1)

Chemistry Miscellaneous · Noble gases and their uses

Q25. Argon is produced in Earth's crust via?

  1. (a) Decay of K-40
  2. (b) Volcanoes
  3. (c) Photosynthesis
  4. (d) Cosmic rays
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Decay of K-40

Argon-40 (the dominant Argon isotope in Earth's atmosphere) is produced by the radioactive decay of Potassium-40 in Earth's crust.
Hence, the answer is Decay of K-40.
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