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SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 20 November 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 48 GK / GS questions asked in SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 on 20 November 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Static GK, Current Affairs, Economics, Chemistry, Physics, Geography.

📚 48 questions🗓️ 20 November 2025⏰ Shift 2
हिंदी में पढ़ें📥 Full paper PDF
Subjects: Static GK (14) · Current Affairs (9) · Economics (7) · Chemistry (2) · Physics (1) · Geography (3) · Biology (3) · Medieval History (3) · Polity (4) · Ancient History (2)

Static GK (14)

Sports · Sports bodies and headquarters

Q1. In March 2024, who among the following was elected as the Paralympic Committee of India (PCI) president?

  1. (a) Devendra Jhajharia
  2. (b) Anil Kumar Prakash
  3. (c) Sundar Singh Gurjar
  4. (d) Mariyappan Thangavelu
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Devendra Jhajharia

Correct Answer: Devendra Jhajharia
Devendra Jhajharia was elected as the President of the Paralympic Committee of India (PCI) in March 2024. He is a legendary Indian para-athlete who has won gold medals in javelin throw at the Paralympic Games (Athens 2004 and Rio 2016) and a silver medal at Tokyo 2020. He is the first Indian para-athlete to win two Paralympic gold medals.
Why other options are wrong:
- Anil Kumar Prakash: Former secretary general of PCI; not the president elected in March 2024.
- Sundar Singh Gurjar: A para-athlete (javelin throw); not the PCI president.
- Mariyappan Thangavelu: A para high-jumper (gold at Rio 2016, silver at Tokyo 2020); not the PCI president.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q2. Who is the author of the book 'The Shadow Lines'?

  1. (a) Hari Kunzru
  2. (b) Amitav Ghosh
  3. (c) Pankaj Mishra
  4. (d) Vikram Chandra
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Amitav Ghosh

Correct Answer: Amitav Ghosh
'The Shadow Lines' (1988) is a novel written by Amitav Ghosh, one of India's most celebrated authors. The novel explores themes of memory, nationalism, and partition through the interconnected lives of families in Calcutta, Dhaka, and London. It won the Sahitya Akademi Award and established Amitav Ghosh as a major literary figure. His other notable works include 'The Sea of Poppies', 'The Glass Palace', and 'The Hungry Tide.'
Why other options are wrong:
- Hari Kunzru: Known for 'The Impressionist' and 'White Tears'; not the author of 'The Shadow Lines.'
- Pankaj Mishra: Known for 'The Romantics' and 'From the Ruins of Empire'; not the author.
- Vikram Chandra: Known for 'Sacred Games' and 'Love and Longing in Bombay'; not the author.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q3. Which Hindi novel by Munshi Premchand depicts the life of Indian peasants?

  1. (a) Godan
  2. (b) Kurukshetra
  3. (c) Gunjan
  4. (d) Urvashi
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Godan

Correct Answer: Godan
'Godan' (1936) is Munshi Premchand's masterpiece Hindi novel that depicts the life of Indian peasants. The title means 'gift of a cow' (go=cow, dan=gift). The novel follows Hori Mahato, a poor farmer, and his lifelong dream of owning a cow - symbolising the aspirations and sufferings of rural India. Godan is considered one of the greatest works of Hindi literature and remains highly relevant for its portrayal of agrarian distress.
Why other options are wrong:
- Kurukshetra: An epic poem by Ramdhari Singh Dinkar on the Mahabharata; not a Premchand novel.
- Gunjan: A poetry collection by Sumitranandan Pant; not by Premchand.
- Urvashi: An epic poem by Ramdhari Singh Dinkar; not a Premchand novel about peasants.
Monuments and Heritage · Temples and religious places

Q4. Jagannath Temple constructed by a famous king of Ganga Dynasty Ananta Varman Chodaganga Deva dating back to 12th century is located at _____.

  1. (a) Odisha
  2. (b) Madhya Pradesh
  3. (c) Tamil Nadu
  4. (d) Karnataka
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Odisha

Correct Answer: Odisha
The Jagannath Temple is located in Puri, Odisha. It was constructed by King Anantavarman Chodaganga Deva of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty in the 12th century CE (around 1135 CE). The temple is dedicated to Lord Jagannath (a form of Vishnu/Krishna). It is one of the four sacred dhams (pilgrimage sites) in Hinduism. The famous Rath Yatra (chariot festival) is held annually at this temple.
Why other options are wrong:
- Madhya Pradesh: No Jagannath Temple associated with the Ganga Dynasty is in MP.
- Tamil Nadu: The Eastern Ganga Dynasty ruled Odisha and Andhra; not Tamil Nadu.
- Karnataka: The Western Ganga Dynasty ruled Karnataka; the Puri Jagannath Temple is in Odisha.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Fairs and melas

Q5. 'Nagaur Fair' is held in which of the following state?

  1. (a) Rajasthan
  2. (b) Uttar Pradesh
  3. (c) Punjab
  4. (d) Bihar
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Rajasthan

Correct Answer: Rajasthan
The Nagaur Fair (Nagaur Cattle Fair) is held in Nagaur, Rajasthan. It is one of the largest cattle fairs in India, typically held in January-February every year. The fair is famous for bullocks, camels, horses, and other livestock. It is also known for its colourful handicrafts, folk music, and cultural events. The Nagaur Fair attracts thousands of traders and visitors from across Rajasthan and neighbouring states.
Why other options are wrong:
- Uttar Pradesh: Has Pushkar Fair (not in UP); Nagaur is specifically in Rajasthan.
- Punjab: Known for its own festivals; Nagaur Fair is not held in Punjab.
- Bihar: Known for Sonepur Mela (largest cattle fair in Asia); Nagaur Fair is in Rajasthan.
Monuments and Heritage · Forts and palaces

Q6. Where is the Hawa Mahal (having 953 windows) located?

  1. (a) Jaipur
  2. (b) Ajmer
  3. (c) Alwar
  4. (d) Sikar
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Jaipur

Correct Answer: Jaipur
The Hawa Mahal (Palace of Winds) is located in Jaipur, Rajasthan. It was built in 1799 by Maharaja Sawai Pratap Singh of the Kachhwaha Rajput dynasty. The palace has 953 small windows (jharokhas) decorated with intricate latticework, which allowed royal ladies to observe street festivities while remaining unseen. It is designed in the shape of the crown of Lord Krishna and is an iconic landmark of Jaipur.
Why other options are wrong:
- Ajmer: Famous for the Dargah of Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti; not the location of Hawa Mahal.
- Alwar: Has the City Palace and Alwar Fort; not the Hawa Mahal.
- Sikar: Known for its havelis; not the location of Hawa Mahal.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q7. In West Bengal, the festival of Durga Puja starts with which of the following events?

  1. (a) Mahalaya
  2. (b) Navami
  3. (c) Dashami
  4. (d) Poila Baishakh
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mahalaya

Correct Answer: Mahalaya
In West Bengal, the Durga Puja festival traditionally begins with Mahalaya, which marks the end of the Pitru Paksha (fortnight of ancestors) and the beginning of Devi Paksha. Mahalaya involves the ritual of Tarpan (offering water to ancestors) and the recitation of 'Mahishasura Mardini' - a program on radio/TV at dawn, invoking Goddess Durga. The main puja celebrations occur five days after Mahalaya.
Why other options are wrong:
- Navami: The ninth day of Durga Puja when special pujas and animal sacrifices occur; not the start.
- Dashami: Vijayadashami - the final day when the idol is immersed (Bisarjan); marks the end, not start.
- Poila Baishakh: Bengali New Year (April); not related to Durga Puja.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q8. 'Pandava' dance, performed during Dussehra and Diwali, belongs to which Indian state?

  1. (a) Assam
  2. (b) Maharashtra
  3. (c) Uttarakhand
  4. (d) Karnataka
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Uttarakhand

Correct Answer: Uttarakhand
Pandava dance (Pandav Nritya or Pandav Lila) is a traditional folk dance of Uttarakhand performed during Dussehra and Diwali. It is a ritual dance-drama that depicts stories from the Mahabharata, particularly the events related to the Pandavas. It is performed in the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand and lasts for several days, involving male performers who enact stories of the Pandava brothers.
Why other options are wrong:
- Assam: Known for Bihu dance and Sattriya classical dance.
- Maharashtra: Known for Lavani, Tamasha, and Koli dance forms.
- Karnataka: Known for Yakshagana and Dollu Kunitha; not Pandava dance.
Dances · Tribal dances

Q9. Which of the following Indian state practices the folk dance form 'Monyoasho'?

  1. (a) Goa
  2. (b) Telangana
  3. (c) Nagaland
  4. (d) West Bengal
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Nagaland

Correct Answer: Nagaland
Monyoasho is a folk dance form practiced in Nagaland. It is associated with the Ao Naga tribe of Nagaland and is performed during the Moatsü festival (a spring festival celebrated in May). The dance involves energetic movements and is performed by both men and women in traditional Naga attire. Nagaland is known for its rich tribal culture and numerous folk dance traditions associated with different Naga tribes.
Why other options are wrong:
- Goa: Known for Fugdi, Dhalo, and Dekhni folk dances.
- Telangana: Known for Perini Sivatandavam, Lambadi, and Bonalu dances.
- West Bengal: Known for Chhau, Baul, and Gambhira folk dances.
Space, Defence and Technology · Indian space missions

Q10. Which of the following statement is correct regarding Chandrayaan-1 mission?
I. It was the first lunar mission of India.
II. It confirmed the presence of water on the Moon.

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Correct Answer: Both I and II
Statement I: Chandrayaan-1 was indeed India's first lunar mission - CORRECT. It was launched on 22 October 2008 from Sriharikota by ISRO using the PSLV-C11 rocket.
Statement II: Chandrayaan-1 confirmed the presence of water on the Moon - CORRECT. The Moon Mineralogy Mapper (M3) instrument on Chandrayaan-1 (a NASA payload) detected water molecules (H2O) and hydroxyl (OH) in the lunar soil, particularly at the poles. This was a landmark discovery announced in 2009.
Both statements are accurate about the Chandrayaan-1 mission.
Why 'Only I', 'Only II', and 'Neither' are wrong: Both statements correctly describe Chandrayaan-1.
Organisations and Headquarters · Regional groupings (SAARC, ASEAN, BIMSTEC, SCO, G20)

Q11. Which of the following country is one of the founding member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation ?

  1. (a) Iran
  2. (b) India
  3. (c) Pakistan
  4. (d) Kazakhstan
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Kazakhstan

Correct Answer: Kazakhstan (Option 4)
The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) was founded on 15 June 2001. Its founding members are China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan.
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - Iran: Became a full member of SCO only in 2023.
Option 2 - India: Joined SCO as a full member in 2017.
Option 3 - Pakistan: Also joined SCO as a full member in 2017.
Organisations and Headquarters · United Nations and its agencies

Q12. The International Court of Justice is located at _____.

  1. (a) Hague
  2. (b) New York
  3. (c) Beijing
  4. (d) Paris
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Hague

Correct Answer: Hague (Option 1)
The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations. It is located in The Hague, Netherlands, and settles legal disputes between states.
Why others are wrong:
Option 2 - New York: Hosts the United Nations Headquarters, not the ICJ.
Option 3 - Beijing: No major international judicial body is headquartered there.
Option 4 - Paris: Hosts UNESCO headquarters, not the ICJ.
Space, Defence and Technology · ISRO - history and centres

Q13. India started working in space research with the launch of a meteorological rocket in which year?

  1. (a) 1952
  2. (b) 1957
  3. (c) 1963
  4. (d) 1984
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1963

Correct Answer: 1963 (Option 3)
India began its journey in space research on 21 November 1963, when a Nike-Apache meteorological sounding rocket was launched from Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station (TERLS) in Kerala. This is considered the starting point of India's space programme .
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - 1952: No space-related rocket launch occurred in India in 1952.
Option 2 - 1957: The year 1957 is when the Soviet Union launched Sputnik 1, the world's first artificial satellite — not India's space start.
Option 4 - 1984: The year 1984 is when Rakesh Sharma became the first Indian in space, which happened much later.
Space, Defence and Technology · ISRO - history and centres

Q14. The Satish Dhawan Space Centre is located in _____.

  1. (a) Bhopal
  2. (b) Ahmedabad
  3. (c) Chennai
  4. (d) Sriharikota
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Sriharikota

Correct Answer: Sriharikota (Option 4)
The Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC-SHAR) is located in Sriharikota , Andhra Pradesh. It is India's primary spaceport and is used for launching satellites and rockets. It is named after former ISRO Chairman Dr. Satish Dhawan.
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - Bhopal: No major ISRO launch facility is in Bhopal.
Option 2 - Ahmedabad: The Space Applications Centre (SAC) of ISRO is in Ahmedabad, not the launch centre .
Option 3 - Chennai: No major ISRO launch facility is in Chennai.

Current Affairs (9)

State News · State elections and results

Q15. In November 2024, Hemant Soren took oath as Chief Minister of which state?

  1. (a) Chhattisgarh
  2. (b) Jharkhand
  3. (c) Telangana
  4. (d) Rajasthan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Jharkhand

Correct Answer: Jharkhand
Hemant Soren of the Jharkhand Mukti Morcha (JMM) took oath as the Chief Minister of Jharkhand in November 2024 after the JMM-led alliance won the Jharkhand Assembly Elections 2024. This was Soren's third term as Chief Minister of Jharkhand. The JMM-Congress-RJD alliance defeated the BJP-led NDA coalition.
Why other options are wrong:
- Chhattisgarh: Vishnu Deo Sai is the Chief Minister of Chhattisgarh (BJP, since December 2023).
- Telangana: A. Revanth Reddy is the CM of Telangana (Congress, since December 2023).
- Rajasthan: Bhajan Lal Sharma is the CM of Rajasthan (BJP, since December 2023).
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q16. In June 2025, who took over as the 18th Commander-in-Chief of the Andaman and Nicobar Command?

  1. (a) Lt Gen Ajai Singh
  2. (b) Lt Gen Dinesh Singh Rana
  3. (c) Lt Gen Anil Chauhan
  4. (d) Admiral R. Hari Kumar
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Lt Gen Dinesh Singh Rana

Correct Answer: Lt Gen Dinesh Singh Rana
Lt Gen Dinesh Singh Rana took over as the 18th Commander-in-Chief of the Andaman and Nicobar Command (ANC) in June 2025. The ANC is India's only tri-service command and is headquartered at Port Blair. It was established in 2001 to coordinate defence operations in the strategically important Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Why other options are wrong:
- Lt Gen Ajai Singh: Not the officer who took charge in June 2025.
- Lt Gen Anil Chauhan: The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) of India; not the ANC commander.
- Admiral R. Hari Kumar: Former Chief of Naval Staff; not appointed to ANC in June 2025.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q17. Swachhata Hi Seva (SHS) campaign September 2024 was observed from 17th September to 2nd October received participation from over _____ crore people.

  1. (a) 30
  2. (b) 50
  3. (c) 100
  4. (d) 5
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 30

Correct Answer: 30 crore
The Swachhata Hi Seva (SHS) campaign 2024 was observed from 17th September to 2nd October 2024. It received participation from over 30 crore (300 million) people across India. The campaign was organised to mobilise citizens for cleanliness activities ahead of Gandhi Jayanti (2 October), which is celebrated as 'Swachhata Diwas.' The campaign aligns with the Swachh Bharat Mission.
Why other options are wrong:
- 50 crore: Higher than the reported participation figure.
- 100 crore: Too high; nearly India's entire adult population.
- 5 crore: Much lower than the actual participation figure.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · National indices and rankings

Q18. District Hospital Index published by NITI Aayog is based on how many Key Performance Indicators?

  1. (a) 4
  2. (b) 5
  3. (c) 7
  4. (d) 10
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 10

Correct Answer: 10
The District Hospital Index published by NITI Aayog is based on 10 Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) to assess the performance of district hospitals across India. These KPIs cover various dimensions of hospital performance including infrastructure, human resources, service delivery, quality of care, and patient outcomes. The index helps identify best practices and areas for improvement in district-level healthcare.
Why other options are wrong:
- 4: Fewer than the actual number of KPIs.
- 5: Fewer than the actual number of KPIs.
- 7: Fewer than the actual number of KPIs.
Environment and Climate - Current · Species discoveries and conservation news

Q19. In March 2025, the 7th meeting of the National Board for Wildlife held at _____.

  1. (a) Manas National Park
  2. (b) Gir National Park
  3. (c) Kanha National Park
  4. (d) Silent Valley National Park
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Gir National Park

Correct Answer: Gir National Park
The 7th meeting of the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) was held at Gir National Park, Gujarat in March 2025. The meeting was chaired by PM Narendra Modi. Gir National Park is the only habitat of the Asiatic Lion in the world. The NBWL is the apex body for wildlife conservation in India, chaired by the Prime Minister, and meets periodically to review wildlife conservation policies.
Why other options are wrong:
- Manas National Park: Located in Assam; UNESCO World Heritage Site for tigers and elephants.
- Kanha National Park: Located in Madhya Pradesh; famous for Project Tiger.
- Silent Valley National Park: Located in Kerala; known for lion-tailed macaques.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Technology launches and AI

Q20. Which institute received Rs. 4.2 crore funding in 2025 to develop next-gen digital forensic tools?

  1. (a) IIT Bombay and IIT Guwahati
  2. (b) IISc Bangalore and IIT Madras
  3. (c) Delhi University and IIT Delhi
  4. (d) IIIT Pune and NIT Raipur
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) IIIT Pune and NIT Raipur

Correct Answer: IIIT Pune and NIT Raipur
IIIT Pune (Indian Institute of Information Technology, Pune) and NIT Raipur (National Institute of Technology, Raipur) received Rs. 4.2 crore funding in 2025 to develop next-generation digital forensic tools. The project aims to create advanced tools for cybercrime investigation and digital evidence analysis, supporting India's law enforcement agencies in handling cyber incidents effectively.
Why other options are wrong:
- IIT Bombay and IIT Guwahati: Not the institutes announced for this specific funding.
- IISc Bangalore and IIT Madras: Not associated with this specific digital forensics project.
- Delhi University and IIT Delhi: Not the recipients of this particular funding.
Awards and Honours - Current · Sports and film awards - current

Q21. Harmanpreet Singh has been awarded the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2024. He is associated with which sport?

  1. (a) Chess
  2. (b) Hockey
  3. (c) Shooting
  4. (d) Para-Athletics
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Hockey

Correct Answer: Hockey (Option 2)
Harmanpreet Singh is the captain of the Indian men's hockey team. He was awarded the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2024, which is India's highest sports honour . He played a key role in India's Bronze medal at the Paris 2024 Olympics.
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - Chess: Harmanpreet Singh has no association with chess.
Option 3 - Shooting: He is not a shooter.
Option 4 - Para-Athletics: He is not a para-athlete.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q22. Launched in 2025, what is the main objective of the Gyan Bharatam Mission?

  1. (a) To digitize historical paintings
  2. (b) To survey, document, and conserve India's manuscript heritage
  3. (c) To fund new book publications
  4. (d) To promote modern literature
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To survey, document, and conserve India's manuscript heritage

Correct Answer: To survey, document, and conserve India's manuscript heritage (Option 2)
The Gyan Bharatam Mission was launched in 2025 by the Ministry of Culture. Its primary objective is to survey, document, and conserve India's vast manuscript heritage, which includes millions of handwritten texts in various languages and scripts.
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - To digitize historical paintings: This is not the mission's objective; it focuses on manuscripts, not paintings.
Option 3 - To fund new book publications: The mission is about preserving old manuscripts, not publishing new books.
Option 4 - To promote modern literature: Completely unrelated to the mission's heritage conservation goal.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q23. In the World Air Quality Report 2024, what is India's rank among the most polluted countries?

  1. (a) 3rd
  2. (b) 5th
  3. (c) 9th
  4. (d) 46th
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 5th

Correct Answer: 5th (Option 2)
According to the World Air Quality Report 2024 published by IQAir , India ranked 5th among the most polluted countries in the world based on PM2.5 levels.
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - 3rd: Incorrect rank.
Option 3 - 9th: Incorrect rank.
Option 4 - 46th: Incorrect rank; India ranked in the top 5, not 46th.

Economics (7)

Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - latest highlights

Q24. The Union Budget 2025-26 announced to set up a Centre of Excellence in Artificial Intelligence for education with a total outlay of Rs _____ crores.

  1. (a) 200
  2. (b) 100
  3. (c) 300
  4. (d) 500
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 500

Correct Answer: Rs. 500 crores
In the Union Budget 2025-26, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced the establishment of a Centre of Excellence in Artificial Intelligence for Education with a total outlay of Rs. 500 crores. This Centre of Excellence aims to leverage AI to improve educational outcomes, develop AI-based learning tools, and train teachers in using AI technologies in education.
Why other options are wrong:
- Rs. 200 crore: Lower than the actual announced outlay.
- Rs. 100 crore: Much lower than the actual announced outlay.
- Rs. 300 crore: Not the announced figure for this scheme.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - latest highlights

Q25. Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana approved in July 2025 aims to benefit how many (in crores) farmers initially?

  1. (a) 1.7
  2. (b) 2.5
  3. (c) 1.2
  4. (d) 2.0
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1.7

Correct Answer: 1.7 crore farmers
The PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana, approved in July 2025, aims to initially benefit 1.7 crore (17 million) farmers. The scheme focuses on improving agricultural productivity in 100 low-productivity districts across India through district-level interventions including better seeds, crop insurance, credit facilities, and post-harvest infrastructure.
Why other options are wrong:
- 2.5 crore: Higher than the initially targeted beneficiary count.
- 1.2 crore: Lower than the announced initial target.
- 2.0 crore: Not the announced initial beneficiary figure.
Agriculture and Food Security · Crop insurance and farmer schemes

Q26. Namo Drone Didi is a central sector scheme aiming to empower _____.

  1. (a) women-led Self-Help Groups
  2. (b) men-led Self-Help Groups
  3. (c) corporate-led Self-Help Groups
  4. (d) foreign companies' led Self-Help Groups
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) women-led Self-Help Groups

Correct Answer: women-led Self-Help Groups
Namo Drone Didi is a central sector scheme launched to empower women-led Self-Help Groups (SHGs) by providing them with agricultural drones. Under the scheme, drones are provided to women SHGs to offer drone services to farmers for crop assessment, fertiliser and pesticide spraying, and other agricultural activities. It aims to provide sustainable livelihoods to women SHG members and modernise agriculture.
Why other options are wrong:
- Men-led SHGs: The scheme specifically targets women SHGs.
- Corporate-led SHGs: Corporate entities are not the beneficiaries; rural women SHGs are.
- Foreign companies' SHGs: The scheme is for Indian rural women SHGs, not foreign companies.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Sectors of the economy (primary, secondary, tertiary)

Q27. The extraction of oil from groundnut is an example of economic activity of which sector of economy?

  1. (a) Primary
  2. (b) Secondary
  3. (c) Quaternary
  4. (d) Quinary
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Secondary

Correct Answer: Secondary
The extraction of oil from groundnut is an example of the Secondary sector of the economy. The secondary sector involves manufacturing and processing of raw materials into finished products. Extracting oil from groundnuts involves processing (crushing/pressing) the primary product (groundnut) to produce a refined product (groundnut oil). This is a manufacturing/processing activity.
Note: Growing groundnuts is a Primary sector activity, but processing them into oil is Secondary sector.
Why other options are wrong:
- Primary sector: Growing groundnuts is primary, but oil extraction (processing) is secondary.
- Quaternary sector: Involves knowledge-based activities like IT, research, education; not oil extraction.
- Quinary sector: Involves high-level decision-making; not oil extraction.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Economic indices and rankings

Q28. NITI Aayog has released the first School Education Quality Index in _____.

  1. (a) 2019
  2. (b) 2016
  3. (c) 2015
  4. (d) 2024
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 2019

Correct Answer: 2019 (Option 1)
NITI Aayog released the first School Education Quality Index (SEQI) in 2019. This index was designed to evaluate states and union territories on school education outcomes and was meant to encourage states to improve educational quality.
Why others are wrong:
Option 2 - 2016: Incorrect year; SEQI did not exist in 2016.
Option 3 - 2015: Incorrect year.
Option 4 - 2024: Incorrect; the first SEQI was released much earlier in 2019.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Foreign exchange reserves and exchange rates

Q29. The rupee was made convertible on the current account of the balance of payments in _____.

  1. (a) November 1994
  2. (b) August 1994
  3. (c) January 1995
  4. (d) March 1995
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) August 1994

Correct Answer: August 1994 (Option 2)
India made the rupee fully convertible on the current account of the balance of payments in August 1994, accepting the obligations under Article VIII of the IMF's Articles of Agreement. This was a major step in India's economic liberalisation after the 1991 reforms.
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - November 1994: Incorrect month.
Option 3 - January 1995: Incorrect month.
Option 4 - March 1995: Incorrect month; the correct month is August 1994.
Agriculture and Food Security · Green Revolution and other agricultural revolutions

Q30. The AMUL milk cooperative was set up in _____.

  1. (a) 1946
  2. (b) 1957
  3. (c) 1979
  4. (d) 1992
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1946

Correct Answer: 1946 (Option 1)
AMUL (Anand Milk Union Limited) was set up in 1946 in Anand, Gujarat, under the leadership of Tribhuvandas Patel and with significant support from Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. It was later transformed into a major cooperative under the guidance of Dr. Verghese Kurien, who is known as the Father of the White Revolution in India.
Why others are wrong:
Option 2 - 1957: AMUL was established over a decade earlier in 1946.
Option 3 - 1979: Incorrect year.
Option 4 - 1992: Incorrect year; AMUL celebrated its 50th anniversary in 1996.

Chemistry (2)

Everyday and Industrial Chemistry · Fuels and calorific value (LPG, CNG, coal, petroleum)

Q31. Why is hydrogen used as fuel in a cryogenic engine?

  1. (a) Because it is easy to store at room temperature.
  2. (b) Because it is non-flammable.
  3. (c) Because it has the highest energy output per kilogram.
  4. (d) Because it is very cheap in comparison to other fuels.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Because it has the highest energy output per kilogram.

Correct Answer: Because it has the highest energy output per kilogram.
Liquid hydrogen is used as fuel in cryogenic engines (like those used in rockets) primarily because it has the highest energy output (specific impulse) per unit mass of any chemical fuel - approximately 120 MJ/kg, which is nearly three times that of conventional rocket fuels like kerosene. This high energy density makes it ideal for space launch vehicles. ISRO uses cryogenic engines in its GSLV rockets.
Why other options are wrong:
- Easy to store at room temperature: Hydrogen must be stored at -253°C (cryogenic temperatures); it is NOT easy to store at room temperature.
- Non-flammable: Hydrogen is highly flammable; this is incorrect.
- Very cheap: Liquid hydrogen is actually expensive to produce and store; not the reason for its use.
Matter and its States · States of matter and their properties

Q32. Which of the following statement is correct regarding gaseous state?
I. In this state, the particles move about randomly at high speed
II. Gases are highly compressible

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Correct Answer: Both I and II (Option 3)
Both statements about gaseous state are correct.
Statement I is correct: In a gaseous state, particles (atoms or molecules) have very high kinetic energy and move randomly at high speed in all directions due to negligible intermolecular forces.
Statement II is correct: Gases are highly compressible because there is a large amount of empty space between gas molecules, which can be reduced by applying pressure.
Hence, both I and II are correct.

Physics (1)

Force and Laws of Motion · Friction

Q33. Which of the following statement is correct regarding fluid friction?
I. It is also called a drag.
II. It depends on the speed of the object with respect to the fluid.

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Correct Answer: Both I and II
Statement I: Fluid friction is also called drag - CORRECT. When an object moves through a fluid (liquid or gas), the resistance it encounters is called fluid friction or drag. Examples include air drag on aeroplanes and water resistance on ships.
Statement II: Fluid friction depends on the speed of the object relative to the fluid - CORRECT. The drag force increases with the speed of the object. At higher speeds, a greater friction force acts on the object. This is why aeroplanes experience more drag at higher speeds.
Both statements accurately describe fluid friction.
Why 'Only I', 'Only II', and 'Neither' are wrong: Both statements are correct.

Geography (3)

India - Transport and Communication · Expressways and corridors

Q34. In the context of National Highways and Development Projects, what is the total length (in km) of East-West Corridor?

  1. (a) 2900
  2. (b) 3640
  3. (c) 4700
  4. (d) 5860
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 3640

Correct Answer: 3640 km
The East-West Corridor, part of the National Highways Development Project (NHDP) Phase II, has a total length of approximately 3,640 km. It connects Silchar in Assam (east) to Porbandar in Gujarat (west). Along with the North-South Corridor (Srinagar to Kanyakumari, ~4,000 km), it forms the North-South East-West (NSEW) Corridor, one of India's major highway development projects.
Why other options are wrong:
- 2900 km: Too short for the East-West Corridor.
- 4700 km: Approximately the combined length; not just the East-West Corridor.
- 5860 km: The approximate length of the Golden Quadrilateral highway project.
Environment and Protected Areas · National parks

Q35. Which of the following is the second largest habitat of the One-Horned Rhinoceros in India?

  1. (a) Kaziranga National Park
  2. (b) Jaldapara National Park
  3. (c) Gir National Park
  4. (d) Kanha National Park
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Jaldapara National Park

Correct Answer: Jaldapara National Park (Option 2)
Jaldapara National Park in West Bengal is the second largest habitat of the Indian One-Horned Rhinoceros (Rhinoceros unicornis). It has a significant rhino population after Kaziranga.
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - Kaziranga National Park: It is the LARGEST (not second largest) habitat of the One-Horned Rhinoceros in India, home to about two-thirds of the world's population.
Option 3 - Gir National Park: It is the last natural habitat of the Asiatic Lion, not the rhinoceros.
Option 4 - Kanha National Park: It is known primarily for the Bengal Tiger and is not a rhino habitat.
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Metallic minerals and mines

Q36. In which of the following state, iron ore occurs in a series of hill ranges in Sundergarh , Mayurbhanj and Jhar ?

  1. (a) Andhra Pradesh
  2. (b) Tamil Nadu
  3. (c) Odisha
  4. (d) Meghalaya
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Odisha

Correct Answer: Odisha (Option 3)
Iron ore in India occurs in a series of hill ranges in Sundergarh , Mayurbhanj, and Jharsuguda districts, all of which are located in Odisha. Odisha is one of the leading states in iron ore production in India.
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - Andhra Pradesh: Does not have these specific iron ore bearing hill ranges.
Option 2 - Tamil Nadu: These districts ( Sundergarh , Mayurbhanj, Jhar ) are specific to Odisha, not Tamil Nadu.
Option 4 - Meghalaya: Known for coal and limestone, not these iron ore ranges.

Biology (3)

Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Heart - structure and functioning

Q37. Why does the human heart has different chambers?

  1. (a) To regulate body temperature
  2. (b) To pump blood to different organs
  3. (c) To prevent the mixing of oxygen-rich blood with carbon dioxide-rich blood
  4. (d) To store blood
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To prevent the mixing of oxygen-rich blood with carbon dioxide-rich blood

Correct Answer: To prevent the mixing of oxygen-rich blood with carbon dioxide-rich blood
The human heart has four chambers (right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, left ventricle) primarily to prevent the mixing of oxygenated blood (from lungs) with deoxygenated blood (from body). The right side of the heart handles deoxygenated blood (receives from body, sends to lungs), while the left side handles oxygenated blood (receives from lungs, sends to body). The four-chamber design ensures complete separation for efficient double circulation.
Why other options are wrong:
- To regulate body temperature: This is done by the hypothalamus, skin, and sweating; not the heart chambers.
- To pump blood to different organs: While the heart pumps blood, the different chambers are specifically to separate oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
- To store blood: The heart does not store blood; it continuously pumps it.
Diversity and Classification of Living Organisms · Characteristics of living organisms and life processes

Q38. Why do single-celled organisms do not need specific organs for taking in food, exchanging gases, or removing wastes?

  1. (a) They have complex body structures
  2. (b) Their entire surface is in contact with the environment
  3. (c) They have a protective wall around them
  4. (d) They do not perform these functions
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Their entire surface is in contact with the environment

Correct Answer: Their entire surface is in contact with the environment (Option 2)
Single-celled organisms (such as Amoeba and Paramecium) do not need special organs because their entire body surface is directly in contact with the surrounding environment. This allows them to directly absorb nutrients, exchange gases, and excrete wastes through simple diffusion across the cell membrane.
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - They have complex body structures: This is incorrect; single-celled organisms have simple, not complex, body structures.
Option 3 - They have a protective wall around them: A cell wall does not explain the lack of need for organs; it is for protection, not nutrient exchange.
Option 4 - They do not perform these functions: Incorrect; they do perform these life functions like food intake, gas exchange, and waste removal.
Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Blood vessels, circulation and blood pressure

Q39. Which of the following statement is correct regarding blood vessels?

  1. (a) Arteries are the vessels which carry blood away from the heart to various organs of the body.
  2. (b) Veins collect the blood from heart and spread it to different organs.
  3. (c) Arteries have capillaries to prevent backflow of blood.
  4. (d) The smallest vessels have walls which are one-cell thick and are called veins.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Arteries are the vessels which carry blood away from the heart to various organs of the body.

Correct Answer: Arteries are the vessels which carry blood away from the heart to various organs of the body. (Option 1)
Option 1 is correct: Arteries carry oxygenated blood (except pulmonary artery) away from the heart to various organs of the body. They have thick, elastic walls to withstand the high pressure of blood pumped by the heart.
Why others are wrong:
Option 2 - Veins collect the blood from heart and spread it to different organs: Incorrect. Veins carry blood from various organs BACK to the heart, not from the heart to organs.
Option 3 - Arteries have capillaries to prevent backflow of blood: Incorrect. Arteries do not have capillaries for this purpose. Valves (not capillaries) prevent backflow, and they are found in veins and the heart.
Option 4 - The smallest vessels have walls which are one-cell thick and are called veins: Incorrect. The smallest vessels with one-cell thick walls are called capillaries, not veins.

Medieval History (3)

Delhi Sultanate · Tughlaq dynasty

Q40. Which Delhi Sultan appointed people from humble professions to high administrative posts?

  1. (a) Muhammad Tughlaq
  2. (b) Ruknuddin Firuz
  3. (c) Minhaj-us-Siraj
  4. (d) Ghiyasuddin Balban
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Muhammad Tughlaq

Correct Answer: Muhammad Tughlaq (Option 1)
Muhammad Tughlaq was known for his unconventional administrative decisions. He appointed people from humble professions such as weavers, barbers, and cooks to high administrative posts, disregarding the norms of the time.
Why others are wrong:
Option 2 - Ruknuddin Firuz: He had a very brief reign and was known for pleasure-seeking, not for administrative appointments.
Option 3 - Minhaj-us-Siraj: He was a medieval historian and chronicler, not a Delhi Sultan known for such a policy.
Option 4 - Ghiyasuddin Balban: He strongly upheld the nobility of birth and in fact kept the lower classes away from high offices.
Mughal Empire · Akbar - conquests and policies

Q41. Which of the following regions was annexed by Akbar in 1568?

  1. (a) Bengal
  2. (b) Gujarat
  3. (c) Chittor
  4. (d) Orissa
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Chittor

Correct Answer: Chittor (Option 3)
Akbar sieged and captured Chittorgarh (Chittor) in 1568 CE. This was a major military campaign of Akbar's reign, after which he demolished parts of the fort.
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - Bengal: Came under Akbar's control between 1574-1576 after the Battle of Tukaroi .
Option 2 - Gujarat: Was annexed by Akbar in 1572-73, not 1568.
Option 4 - Orissa: Came under Mughal control later in 1592 under Man Singh.
Later Mughals and Regional Powers · Sikh power and Ranjit Singh

Q42. Under whose leadership did the Khalsa revolt against the Mughal rule after the death of Guru Gobind Singh?

  1. (a) Chattar Singh Attriwal
  2. (b) Banda Bahadur
  3. (c) Duleep Singh
  4. (d) Udai Singh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Banda Bahadur

Correct Answer: Banda Bahadur (Option 2)
After the death of Guru Gobind Singh in 1708, Banda Singh Bahadur (Banda Bahadur) led the Khalsa Sikhs in a revolt against Mughal rule. He was a military commander who captured Sirhind in 1710 and established a brief Sikh state in Punjab.
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - Chattar Singh Attriwal: He was a Sikh chieftain from the 19th century, unrelated to this revolt.
Option 3 - Duleep Singh: He was the last Sikh Maharaja who lived in the 19th century; he was a child when the Sikh empire fell.
Option 4 - Udai Singh: He was a Rajput king of Mewar, not associated with the Khalsa revolt.

Polity (4)

Constitutional Development and Making · Borrowed features - sources of the Constitution

Q43. Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution is borrowed from Japan?

  1. (a) Concept of "procedure established by Law"
  2. (b) Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
  3. (c) Judicial review
  4. (d) Impeachment of the President
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Concept of "procedure established by Law"

Correct Answer: Concept of "procedure established by Law" (Option 1)
The concept of 'procedure established by law' under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution is borrowed from Japan's Meiji Constitution. It means that a person's life and liberty can be restricted only by a procedure laid down by a validly enacted law.
Why others are wrong:
Option 2 - Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court: Borrowed from Canada.
Option 3 - Judicial review: Borrowed from the United States of America.
Option 4 - Impeachment of the President: Borrowed from the United States of America.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q44. In September 2024, the Supreme Court has affirmed that the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, _____, applies to all women in India regardless of their religion or social background.

  1. (a) 2001
  2. (b) 2003
  3. (c) 2005
  4. (d) 2007
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2005

Correct Answer: 2005 (Option 3)
The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act was enacted in 2005. In September 2024, the Supreme Court affirmed that this Act applies to all women in India, regardless of their religion or social background, reinforcing its secular and universal character.
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - 2001: Incorrect year; no such significant Act was enacted in 2001.
Option 2 - 2003: Incorrect year.
Option 4 - 2007: Incorrect year; the Act was enacted two years earlier.
Parliament · Rajya Sabha

Q45. How many members can the President of India nominate to the Rajya Sabha?

  1. (a) 10
  2. (b) 12
  3. (c) 14
  4. (d) 15
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 12

Correct Answer: 12 (Option 2)
Under Article 80(1)(a) of the Constitution, the President of India can nominate 12 members to the Rajya Sabha. These members are nominated from among persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, and social service.
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - 10: Incorrect number; the Constitution specifies 12, not 10.
Option 3 - 14: Incorrect number.
Option 4 - 15: Incorrect number.
Union Executive · Vice-President

Q46. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the election of Vice President of India?
I. He should have completed 35 years of age.
II. He should be qualified for election as a member of the Council of States.

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Correct Answer: Both I and II (Option 3)
Both statements are correct qualifications for the election of the Vice President of India as per Article 66(3) of the Constitution.
Statement I is correct: The Vice President must have completed 35 years of age.
Statement II is correct: The Vice President must be qualified for election as a member of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
Hence, both I and II are correct.

Ancient History (2)

Mahajanapadas and Rise of Magadha · Haryanka dynasty

Q47. Which of the following kings ruled during the lifetimes of both Buddha and Mahavira?

  1. (a) Chandragupta Maurya
  2. (b) Ashok
  3. (c) Ajatashatru
  4. (d) Harshavardhana
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ajatashatru

Correct Answer: Ajatashatru (Option 3)
Ajatashatru was the king of Magadha (c. 492-460 BCE) who ruled during the lifetimes of both Gautama Buddha and Mahavira. He was the son of Bimbisara and had personal interactions with both religious leaders. Both Buddha and Mahavira attained nirvana/moksha during or around his reign.
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - Chandragupta Maurya: He ruled around 321-297 BCE, which is after the deaths of both Buddha and Mahavira.
Option 2 - Ashoka: He ruled around 268-232 BCE, much later than the era of Buddha and Mahavira.
Option 4 - Harshavardhana: He ruled in the 7th century CE (606-647 CE), nearly a thousand years after Buddha and Mahavira.
Sources and Prehistoric India · Sources of ancient history

Q48. What name did the ancient Greeks use to refer to the region around the Indus River?

  1. (a) Sindh
  2. (b) Indoi or Indike
  3. (c) Hind
  4. (d) Bharat
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Indoi or Indike

Correct Answer: Indoi or Indike (Option 2)
The ancient Greeks referred to the region around the Indus River as ' Indoi ' or ' Indike '. This Greek term was derived from the Sanskrit name 'Sindhu' (the Indus River). The word ' Indoi ' eventually evolved into the name 'India' as used by the Western world.
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - Sindh: This is the name of a province in present-day Pakistan, derived from the river name Sindhu, but it is not the Greek name.
Option 3 - Hind: This is the Persian and Arabic name for the Indian subcontinent, not the ancient Greek name.
Option 4 - Bharat: This is the indigenous Sanskrit/Hindi name for India, not the Greek name.
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