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SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 27 November 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 48 GK / GS questions asked in SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 on 27 November 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Medieval History, Polity, Current Affairs, Static GK, Economics, Ancient History.

📚 48 questions🗓️ 27 November 2025⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Medieval History (5) · Polity (5) · Current Affairs (7) · Static GK (11) · Economics (7) · Ancient History (5) · Physics (2) · Modern History (2) · Geography (1) · Biology (3)

Medieval History (5)

Delhi Sultanate · Slave (Mamluk) dynasty

Q1. Who ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1236 to 1240 A.D. as the only woman monarch?

  1. (a) Noor Jahan
  2. (b) Razia Sultana
  3. (c) Rani Durgavati
  4. (d) Chand Bibi
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Razia Sultana

Razia Sultana ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1236 to 1240 AD. She was the daughter of Iltutmish and the only woman to sit on the throne of the Delhi Sultanate.
Noor Jahan was the influential queen of Mughal Emperor Jahangir, not a Delhi Sultanate ruler.
Rani Durgavati was a Chandela queen of Gondwana who fought against the Mughals.
Chand Bibi was the regent of Ahmadnagar and Bijapur Sultanates.
Bhakti, Sufi and Sikh Movements · Bhakti saints of South India (Alvars, Nayanars)

Q2. What was the total number of Alvar saints in the Bhakti movement tradition?

  1. (a) 12
  2. (b) 29
  3. (c) 44
  4. (d) 63
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 12

The Alvars were Vaishnava poet-saints of South India who composed devotional hymns in Tamil. There were 12 Alvar saints in total. Their compositions are compiled in the Nalayira Divya Prabandham (4000 Divine Verses). They lived between the 6th and 9th centuries CE.
29, 44, and 63 are incorrect counts.
Later Mughals and Regional Powers · Sikh power and Ranjit Singh

Q3. What was the combined army of the Sikh 'Jathas' and ' Misls ' called in the eighteenth century?

  1. (a) Sangats
  2. (b) Mansabdars
  3. (c) Nihangs
  4. (d) Dal Khalsa
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Dal Khalsa

Dal Khalsa was the name given to the combined Sikh army formed by merging various Jathas (armed groups) and Misls (confederacies) in the eighteenth century. It was formally constituted in 1748 under Nawab Kapur Singh.
Sangats were Sikh congregational bodies for collective prayer.
Mansabdars were rank-holders in the Mughal administrative system.
Nihangs are a distinct order of Sikh warriors known for their blue robes and orthodox practices.
Mughal Empire · Mughal painting, literature and music

Q4. Who wrote the three-volume history of Akbar's reign?

  1. (a) Abul Fazl
  2. (b) Birbal
  3. (c) Tansen
  4. (d) Todar Mal
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Abul Fazl

Correct Answer: Abul Fazl (Option 1)
Abul Fazl wrote the three-volume history of Akbar's reign known as 'Akbarnama'. The first two volumes cover the history of Akbar's reign, while the third volume is the 'Ain-i-Akbari', which is a detailed account of Akbar's administration, army, economy, and culture. Abul Fazl was one of the Navaratnas (nine jewels) in Akbar's court.
Why others are wrong:
Option 2 - Birbal: He was a courtier and poet known for his wit, not a historian.
Option 3 - Tansen: He was a legendary musician in Akbar's court, not a historian.
Option 4 - Todar Mal: He was the finance minister (Diwan) of Akbar, known for land revenue reforms, not for writing history.
Early Medieval North India · Tripartite struggle (Palas, Pratiharas, Rashtrakutas)

Q5. Which of the following pair of dynasty - region is correct?
I. Rashtrakuta - Tamil Nadu
II. Gurjara-Pratihara - Rajasthan

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only II

Correct Answer: Only II (Option 2)
Statement II is correct: The Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty was based in Rajasthan (and later parts of North India). Their capital was at Kannauj.
Statement I is incorrect: The Rashtrakuta dynasty was based in the Deccan region (present-day Karnataka and Maharashtra), not Tamil Nadu. Their capital was at Manyakheta (Malkhed). Tamil Nadu was historically dominated by the Cholas, Pallavas, and Pandyas.
Hence, only Statement II is correct.

Polity (5)

Fundamental Rights · Cultural and Educational Rights (Articles 29-30)

Q6. Which of the following article of the Indian Constitution is related with the right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions?

  1. (a) Article 28
  2. (b) Article 24
  3. (c) Article 30
  4. (d) Article 29
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 30

Article 30 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right of minorities (based on religion or language) to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
Article 28 prohibits religious instruction in state-funded educational institutions.
Article 24 prohibits employment of children below 14 years in factories and hazardous work.
Article 29 protects the cultural and educational rights of minorities by preventing compulsory imposition of any culture, but it does not specifically deal with the right to establish institutions.
State Government · Governor - appointment and powers

Q7. A Bill passed by the Indian State Legislature is sent to the Governor under _____.

  1. (a) Article 200
  2. (b) Article 201
  3. (c) Article 202
  4. (d) Article 203
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 200

Article 200 of the Indian Constitution provides that when a Bill passed by the State Legislature is presented to the Governor, the Governor shall assent, withhold assent, return the Bill for reconsideration (except a Money Bill), or reserve it for the President's consideration.
Article 201 deals with Bills reserved for the President's consideration.
Article 202 relates to the Annual Financial Statement (State Budget).
Article 203 deals with the procedure in the Legislature with respect to estimates.
DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Important DPSP articles (39A, 40, 44, 45, 48A, 50, 51)

Q8. Article 40 of the Indian constitution is related with _____.

  1. (a) Organization of village panchayats
  2. (b) Free and compulsory education
  3. (c) Free housing to the poor
  4. (d) Free medical aid to the citizen
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Organization of village panchayats

Correct Answer: Organization of village panchayats (Option 1)
Article 40 of the Indian Constitution is a Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP) that directs the State to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.
Why others are wrong:
Option 2 - Free and compulsory education: This is covered under Article 45 (originally a DPSP, now a Fundamental Right under Article 21A).
Option 3 - Free housing to the poor: This is not specifically covered under a single constitutional article.
Option 4 - Free medical aid to the citizen: This is related to Article 47, which concerns raising the level of nutrition and public health.
Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Scheduled and tribal areas (Fifth and Sixth Schedules)

Q9. Provisions of the Sixth Schedule of the Indian constitution does not apply to which of these states?

  1. (a) Assam
  2. (b) Meghalaya
  3. (c) Tripura
  4. (d) Manipur
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Manipur

Correct Answer: Manipur (Option 4)
The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides special provisions for tribal areas in the North-East. It applies to Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram — but NOT to Manipur. Manipur has its own separate provisions under Article 371C of the Constitution for protecting the interests of the hill areas.
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - Assam: The Sixth Schedule applies to tribal areas of Assam.
Option 2 - Meghalaya: The Sixth Schedule applies to Meghalaya.
Option 3 - Tripura: The Sixth Schedule applies to the tribal areas of Tripura.
State Government · Legislative Council - creation and abolition

Q10. Which of the following can recommend the creation of a Legislative Council in an Indian state?

  1. (a) Governor of the state
  2. (b) President
  3. (c) State Legislative Assembly
  4. (d) Chief Minister of the state
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) State Legislative Assembly

Correct Answer: State Legislative Assembly (Option 3)
Under Article 169 of the Indian Constitution, the Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) of a state can be created or abolished by Parliament, but only if the State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) passes a resolution to that effect by a special majority (majority of total membership and not less than 2/3 of members present and voting). Parliament then enacts a law to create or abolish the council.
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - Governor of the state: The Governor cannot independently recommend the creation of a Legislative Council.
Option 2 - President: The President cannot directly recommend it; Parliament acts on the recommendation of the State Assembly.
Option 4 - Chief Minister of the state: The Chief Minister alone cannot recommend it; it requires a formal resolution of the State Legislative Assembly.

Current Affairs (7)

Appointments and Resignations · International appointments

Q11. Sanjiv Ranjan assumed the role of secretary general of which of the following organisations on January 1, 2025?

  1. (a) IORA
  2. (b) SAARC
  3. (c) ASEAN
  4. (d) BRICS
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) IORA

Sanjiv Ranjan, a retired Indian Foreign Service (IFS) officer, assumed office as the Secretary General of the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) on January 1, 2025. IORA is an international organisation with 23 member states and 10 dialogue partners, promoting cooperation among Indian Ocean rim countries.
SAARC, ASEAN, and BRICS are other regional/international organisations with different member compositions and leadership structures.
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q12. In May 2025, who has been given one-year extension as the Chairman of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Secretary of the Department of Defence Research and Development (DDR&D) from India?

  1. (a) Dr. G. Satheesh Reddy
  2. (b) Dr. Ajay Kumar
  3. (c) Dr. Samir V. Kamat
  4. (d) M N Srinivasu
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Dr. Samir V. Kamat

Dr. Samir V. Kamat was given a one-year extension as the Chairman of DRDO and Secretary of DDR&D in May 2025. He has been leading DRDO since January 2022 and has overseen several key defence technology programmes .
Dr. G. Satheesh Reddy was a former Chairman of DRDO (2018-2022).
Dr. Ajay Kumar is a former Defence Secretary of India.
M N Srinivasu is not associated with DRDO leadership.
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q13. In March 2025, who has been appointed as the Private Secretary to Prime Minister Narendra Modi?

  1. (a) P.K. Mishra
  2. (b) Nripendra Mishra
  3. (c) Nidhi Tewari
  4. (d) A.K. Sharma
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Nidhi Tewari

Correct Answer: Nidhi Tewari (Option 3)
In March 2025, Nidhi Tewari was appointed as the Private Secretary to Prime Minister Narendra Modi. She is an IAS officer who became the first woman to hold the position of Private Secretary to the Prime Minister of India.
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - P.K. Mishra: He serves as the Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister, a senior advisory role.
Option 2 - Nripendra Mishra: He served as the Principal Secretary to PM Modi in his first term (2014-2019).
Option 4 - A.K. Sharma: He is a politician and former IAS officer, not holding this appointment.
State News · State elections and results

Q14. Who assumed the Chief Ministership of Odisha in June 2024?

  1. (a) Naveen Patnaik
  2. (b) Mohan Charan Majhi
  3. (c) Bhajan Lal Sharma
  4. (d) Prem Singh Tamang
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Mohan Charan Majhi

Correct Answer: Mohan Charan Majhi (Option 2)
Mohan Charan Majhi of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) assumed the Chief Ministership of Odisha in June 2024. He became the Chief Minister after the BJP won the Odisha Assembly elections, ending the 24-year rule of Naveen Patnaik and the Biju Janata Dal (BJD).
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - Naveen Patnaik: He was the outgoing Chief Minister, having served for 24 years before the BJP's victory.
Option 3 - Bhajan Lal Sharma: He is the Chief Minister of Rajasthan, not Odisha.
Option 4 - Prem Singh Tamang: He is the Chief Minister of Sikkim, not Odisha.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Policies, laws and bills

Q15. In 2025, who has directed higher education institutions to monitor any informal WhatsApp groups created to harass juniors?

  1. (a) UGC
  2. (b) NAAC
  3. (c) NCERT
  4. (d) AICTE
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) UGC

Correct Answer: UGC (Option 1)
In 2025, the University Grants Commission (UGC) directed higher education institutions to monitor any informal WhatsApp groups or social media groups created to harass junior students. This was part of UGC's broader anti-ragging guidelines aimed at creating safe campus environments.
Why others are wrong:
Option 2 - NAAC: The National Assessment and Accreditation Council is responsible for accreditation of higher education institutions, not for issuing such monitoring directives.
Option 3 - NCERT: The National Council of Educational Research and Training deals with school education curriculum, not higher education.
Option 4 - AICTE: The All India Council for Technical Education regulates technical education institutions; this directive was issued by UGC.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q16. In April 2025, the Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi approved the Vibrant Villages Programme - II (VVP-II) as a _____ percent centre funded scheme.

  1. (a) 25
  2. (b) 50
  3. (c) 75
  4. (d) 100
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 100

Correct Answer: 100 (Option 4)
In April 2025, the Union Cabinet approved the Vibrant Villages Programme - II (VVP-II) as a 100 percent centrally funded scheme. The programme aims to develop border villages in northern states, improve infrastructure and livelihood opportunities for people living near the international border, and strengthen India's border areas.
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - 25%: Incorrect; VVP-II is fully centrally funded, not at 25%.
Option 2 - 50%: Incorrect percentage.
Option 3 - 75%: Incorrect; the programme is 100% centre funded, not 75%.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q17. In July 2025, which country launched the communication satellite, Dror-1?

  1. (a) China
  2. (b) Israel
  3. (c) France
  4. (d) Germany
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Israel

Correct Answer: Israel (Option 2)
In July 2025, Israel launched the communication satellite Dror-1 (also known as AMOS-17). 'Dror' means freedom in Hebrew. The satellite was launched to enhance Israel's communication capabilities and is operated by Spacecom (Space Communication Ltd.).
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - China: China did not launch the Dror-1 satellite; it has its own satellite programmes.
Option 3 - France: France did not launch this satellite.
Option 4 - Germany: Germany did not launch the Dror-1 satellite.

Static GK (11)

Personalities and Nicknames · Nicknames and titles of persons

Q18. The nickname "Flying Sikh" is associated with which Indian athlete?

  1. (a) Avinash Sable
  2. (b) Milkha Singh
  3. (c) Vikas Gowda
  4. (d) Harbhajan Singh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Milkha Singh

Milkha Singh was popularly known as the "Flying Sikh." He was a legendary Indian sprinter who represented India in the 1956, 1960, and 1964 Olympics. He won gold at the 1958 Commonwealth Games and 1958 Asian Games.
Avinash Sable is a steeplechase runner, not known by this nickname.
Vikas Gowda was a discus thrower.
Harbhajan Singh is a cricketer, not an athlete associated with this nickname.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q19. Which among the following is a book authored by Arundhati Roy?

  1. (a) Flood of Fire
  2. (b) The Circle of Reason
  3. (c) Capitalism: A Ghost Story
  4. (d) The Liberation of Sita
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Capitalism: A Ghost Story

"Capitalism: A Ghost Story" is a non-fiction book written by Arundhati Roy, published in 2014. It critiques the influence of corporate capitalism and philanthropy in India.
"Flood of Fire" is authored by Amitav Ghosh.
"The Circle of Reason" is also authored by Amitav Ghosh.
"The Liberation of Sita" is authored by Volga ( Popuri Lalitha Kumari).
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q20. Who is the author of the book 'Shalimar The Clown'?

  1. (a) Anita Desai
  2. (b) Shiva Naipaul
  3. (c) Salman Rushdie
  4. (d) Rohinton Mistry
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Salman Rushdie

"Shalimar the Clown" is a novel written by Salman Rushdie, published in 2005. It is set in Kashmir and deals with themes of love, betrayal, and terrorism.
Anita Desai is known for works like "Clear Light of Day" and "In Custody."
Shiva Naipaul was a Trinidadian author, brother of V.S. Naipaul.
Rohinton Mistry is known for "A Fine Balance" and "Such a Long Journey."
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q21. The ' Veerampattinam Festival' is celebrated in which Indian state/UT?

  1. (a) Kerala
  2. (b) Puducherry
  3. (c) Telangana
  4. (d) Lakshadweep
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Puducherry

The Veerampattinam Festival (also called Veerampattinam Car Festival) is celebrated in Puducherry (Pondicherry). It is a major temple chariot festival held at the Veerampattinam Draupadi Amman Temple, located near Puducherry on the Coromandel Coast.
Kerala, Telangana, and Lakshadweep are incorrect options.
Space, Defence and Technology · Launch vehicles and satellites

Q22. In the context of Indian satellite launch vehicle, what does "G" stand for in GSLV?

  1. (a) Geosynchronous
  2. (b) Gladiator
  3. (c) Gentle
  4. (d) Generation
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Geosynchronous

GSLV stands for Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle. The "G" stands for Geosynchronous. GSLV is India's rocket developed by ISRO, capable of launching communication satellites into Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO).
Gladiator, Gentle, and Generation are incorrect expansions of the letter "G" in GSLV.
Organisations and Headquarters · Regional groupings (SAARC, ASEAN, BIMSTEC, SCO, G20)

Q23. As of 31st July 2025, which of the following country is the member of the Indian Ocean Rim Association?
I. Australia
II. Bangladesh

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Correct Answer: Both I and II (Option 3)
The Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) is a regional organisation with 23 member states. Both Australia and Bangladesh are members of IORA.
Australia joined IORA as a founding member and is an active participant in the organisation.
Bangladesh is also a member of IORA, which promotes trade, investment, and cooperation among Indian Ocean rim countries.
Hence, both I and II are correct.
Sports · Olympic Games

Q24. India had a single representative at the Paris _____ Olympics.

  1. (a) 1900
  2. (b) 1908
  3. (c) 1904
  4. (d) 1896
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1900

Correct Answer: 1900 (Option 1)
India participated in the 1900 Paris Olympics with a single representative — Norman Pritchard, an Anglo-Indian athlete. He won two silver medals (in the 200m and 200m hurdles), making him the first athlete from Asia to win an Olympic medal. This was India's first official Olympic participation.
Why others are wrong:
Option 2 - 1908: India did not participate in the 1908 London Olympics.
Option 3 - 1904: India did not participate in the 1904 St. Louis Olympics.
Option 4 - 1896: India did not send a representative to the first modern Athens Olympics in 1896.
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q25. Ramayana and Mahabharata have numerous references about which of the following sports?
I. Archery
II. Wrestling

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Correct Answer: Both I and II (Option 3)
Both Archery and Wrestling are prominently referenced in the Ramayana and Mahabharata.
Statement I - Archery: Archery (Dhanurvidya) is a central theme in both epics. In the Mahabharata, Arjuna was a legendary archer; in the Ramayana, Rama won Sita's hand by lifting and stringing Lord Shiva's bow (Pinaka).
Statement II - Wrestling: Wrestling (Malla Yuddha) is also referenced in both epics. The Mahabharata has descriptions of wrestling bouts, and the Ramayana describes wrestling as a martial art practiced by warriors.
Hence, both I and II are correct.
Sports · National championships - venues and winners

Q26. In India, the first National Basketball Championship was organised in _____.

  1. (a) 1904
  2. (b) 1984
  3. (c) 1934
  4. (d) 1914
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1934

Correct Answer: 1934 (Option 3)
The first National Basketball Championship in India was organised in 1934. Basketball was introduced to India in the early 20th century and the first national championship was held in 1934, marking the formal beginning of organised basketball competition in the country.
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - 1904: Too early; basketball had only recently arrived in India by this time.
Option 2 - 1984: Incorrect; the first national championship was held 50 years earlier.
Option 4 - 1914: Incorrect year; the correct year is 1934.
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q27. Which of the following books has been written by Jhumpa Lahiri?

  1. (a) Whereabouts
  2. (b) The Nowhere Man
  3. (c) The Keeper of the Dead
  4. (d) The Nine-Chambered Heart
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Whereabouts

Correct Answer: Whereabouts (Option 1)
'Whereabouts' (2021) is a novel written by Jhumpa Lahiri. Jhumpa Lahiri is a Pulitzer Prize-winning Indian-American author known for works like 'The Namesake' and 'Interpreter of Maladies'. 'Whereabouts' was originally written in Italian and then translated to English by the author herself.
Why others are wrong:
Option 2 - The Nowhere Man: This is a novel by Kamala Markandaya, not Jhumpa Lahiri.
Option 3 - The Keeper of the Dead: This is not a Jhumpa Lahiri work.
Option 4 - The Nine-Chambered Heart: This is a novel by Janice Pariat, not Jhumpa Lahiri.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q28. 'Jiviti Puja', performed by married women to worship Goddess Parvati, is popular in which state?

  1. (a) Assam
  2. (b) Jharkhand
  3. (c) Maharashtra
  4. (d) Himachal Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Maharashtra

Correct Answer: Maharashtra (Option 3)
'Jiviti Puja' (also known as Jitiya or Jivitputrika Vrat) is a festival where married women observe a fast and worship Goddess Parvati (or Jivitavahana) for the long life and prosperity of their children and family. While it is observed in multiple states, it is particularly popular in Maharashtra among certain communities.
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - Assam: Jiviti Puja is not specifically associated with Assam.
Option 2 - Jharkhand: While Jitiya/Jivitputrika is observed in Jharkhand and Bihar, the specific 'Jiviti Puja' tradition described here is associated with Maharashtra.
Option 4 - Himachal Pradesh: This puja is not specifically associated with Himachal Pradesh.

Economics (7)

Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - latest highlights

Q29. In the Union Budget 2025-26, a Maritime Development Fund of Rs. _____ crore over 10 years has been announced.

  1. (a) 20000
  2. (b) 25000
  3. (c) 30000
  4. (d) 35000
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 25000

In the Union Budget 2025-26, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced a Maritime Development Fund of Rs. 25,000 crore over 10 years to boost India's maritime sector, port infrastructure, and strengthen India's presence in global maritime trade.
The amounts of Rs. 20,000 crore , Rs. 30,000 crore , and Rs. 35,000 crore are incorrect.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q30. Which organisation published the Multidimensional Vulnerability Index?

  1. (a) United Nations
  2. (b) World Bank
  3. (c) NITI Aayog
  4. (d) IMF
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) United Nations

The Multidimensional Vulnerability Index (MVI) was published by the United Nations. It measures structural vulnerability of countries to economic and environmental shocks and their lack of resilience, developed especially to support Small Island Developing States (SIDS) in accessing concessional finance.
World Bank, NITI Aayog, and IMF did not publish this index.
National Income · GDP, GNP, NDP and NNP

Q31. Personal Disposable Income is the part of the aggregate income which belongs to the _____.

  1. (a) households
  2. (b) firm
  3. (c) government
  4. (d) foreign banks
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) households

Personal Disposable Income (PDI) is the income available to the household sector after paying personal taxes. It represents the portion of aggregate (national) income that belongs to households and can be used for consumption expenditure or personal savings.
Firms retain corporate profits as undistributed income.
Government earns revenue through taxes and other sources.
Foreign banks do not have a claim on personal disposable income.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Foreign trade policy and EXIM

Q32. In India, projects having a minimum investment of Rs. _____ Crore in plant & machinery shall be considered for establishment as EOUs.

  1. (a) 5
  2. (b) 10
  3. (c) 1
  4. (d) 3
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1

As per the Foreign Trade Policy of India, Export Oriented Units (EOUs) require a minimum investment of Rs. 1 Crore in plant and machinery for their establishment. This low threshold is designed to encourage small and medium enterprises to become export-oriented.
The amounts of Rs. 5 Crore, Rs. 10 Crore, and Rs. 3 Crore are incorrect thresholds.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q33. The ninth five year plan of India was launched in _____.

  1. (a) 1985
  2. (b) 1992
  3. (c) 1997
  4. (d) 2003
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1997

The Ninth Five Year Plan of India was launched in 1997 and ran until 2002. Its main theme was "Growth with Social Justice and Equity."
The Eighth Plan ran from 1992 to 1997.
The Tenth Plan ran from 2002 to 2007.
1985 and 2003 are not start years of the Ninth Plan.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q34. Technology and innovation report is published by which of the following?

  1. (a) UNCTAD
  2. (b) WHO
  3. (c) ILO
  4. (d) World Bank
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) UNCTAD

Correct Answer: UNCTAD (Option 1)
The Technology and Innovation Report is published by UNCTAD (United Nations Conference on Trade and Development). This annual report analyses key trends in science, technology, and innovation that are relevant to developing countries, and provides policy recommendations to help them leverage technology for sustainable development.
Why others are wrong:
Option 2 - WHO: The World Health Organization publishes reports on global health, not technology and innovation.
Option 3 - ILO: The International Labour Organization publishes reports on employment and labour, not technology innovation.
Option 4 - World Bank: It publishes the World Development Report and other economic reports, not the Technology and Innovation Report.
Agriculture and Food Security · Land reforms

Q35. What was the aim behind abolition of intermediaries in land reforms in India?

  1. (a) To increase the power of zamindars.
  2. (b) To eliminate government control over agriculture.
  3. (c) To establish a direct relationship between tenants and the government.
  4. (d) To encourage landlords to acquire more lands.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To establish a direct relationship between tenants and the government.

Correct Answer: To establish a direct relationship between tenants and the government. (Option 3)
The abolition of intermediaries (zamindars and other middlemen) in India's post-independence land reforms aimed to establish a direct relationship between cultivating tenants and the government. This eliminated the exploitative zamindar system, allowed actual tillers to own the land they cultivated, and ensured that land revenue was paid directly to the government without middlemen taking a share.
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - To increase the power of zamindars: This is the opposite of what abolition of intermediaries intended; the goal was to reduce and eliminate zamindari power.
Option 2 - To eliminate government control: The aim was to strengthen government-cultivator links, not eliminate government control.
Option 4 - To encourage landlords to acquire more lands: This contradicts the goal of land redistribution and tenancy reforms.

Ancient History (5)

Indus Valley Civilisation · Town planning and structures

Q36. The Indus Valley people used standardized _____ as a building material.

  1. (a) burnt mud-bricks
  2. (b) rocks
  3. (c) fly ash
  4. (d) black soil
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) burnt mud-bricks

The Indus Valley Civilisation (Harappan Civilisation ) was distinguished by its use of standardized burnt mud-bricks (kiln-fired bricks) as the primary building material. These bricks were uniform in size ratio (1:2:4), reflecting advanced urban planning and standardization not seen in other contemporary civilisations .
Rocks, fly ash, and black soil were not their primary building materials.
Gupta Empire · Gupta rulers

Q37. Samudragupta celebrated his conquests by performing which Vedic sacrifice?

  1. (a) Shraddha
  2. (b) Agnihotra
  3. (c) Upanayana
  4. (d) Ashvamedha
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ashvamedha

Samudragupta, the powerful Gupta emperor, celebrated his military conquests by performing the Ashvamedha Yajna (horse sacrifice). This ancient Vedic ritual was performed by powerful kings to assert sovereignty and supremacy over other kingdoms. Evidence is found on Samudragupta's gold coins, which depict the horse sacrifice.
Shraddha is a ritual performed for deceased ancestors.
Agnihotra is a daily Vedic fire ritual.
Upanayana is the sacred thread ceremony marking the beginning of formal education.
Gupta Empire · Gupta rulers

Q38. Which Indian ruler is famously known as the "Napoleon of India"?

  1. (a) Ashoka
  2. (b) Samudragupta
  3. (c) Harshavardhana
  4. (d) Chandragupta Maurya
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Samudragupta

Correct Answer: Samudragupta (Option 2)
Samudragupta, the Gupta emperor (c. 335-375 CE), is famously known as the 'Napoleon of India'. This title was given to him by historian V.A. Smith because of his military conquests, his policy of defeating and then reinstating kings as tributaries, and his expansion of the Gupta Empire across much of the Indian subcontinent.
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - Ashoka: He is known as the 'Emperor of Emperors' or associated with Buddhism and non-violence after the Kalinga War, not as Napoleon of India.
Option 3 - Harshavardhana: He ruled in the 7th century CE and was known for his administration and patronage of arts, not as Napoleon of India.
Option 4 - Chandragupta Maurya: He was the founder of the Maurya Empire, not called Napoleon of India.
Indus Valley Civilisation · Town planning and structures

Q39. Which of the following is correct regarding the Harappan drainage system?
I. It was only for royal use
II. It was highly advanced and well planned

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only II

Correct Answer: Only II (Option 2)
Statement II is correct: The Harappan drainage system was highly advanced and well planned. It was one of the most sophisticated drainage systems of the ancient world. Every house had drains that connected to covered street drains, which in turn led to larger sewers. The system showed remarkable urban planning.
Statement I is incorrect: The drainage system was NOT only for royal use. It served the common population as well, as evidenced by the drains found in ordinary residential areas across Harappan sites like Mohenjo-daro and Harappa.
Hence, only Statement II is correct.
Buddhism, Jainism and Other Sects · Jain teachings, councils and sects

Q40. The 'Tattvarthadhigamasutra', regarded as the first book on Jaina philosophy, was authored by _____.

  1. (a) Mahavira
  2. (b) Umasvati
  3. (c) Bhadrabahu
  4. (d) Rishabhadeva
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Umasvati

Correct Answer: Umasvati (Option 2)
The 'Tattvarthadhigamasutra' (also known as 'Tattvarthasutra') is regarded as the first comprehensive text of Jain philosophy and was authored by Umasvati (also spelled Umaswati), a Jain scholar who lived around the 2nd-5th century CE. It is the oldest Jain text written in Sanskrit and covers all aspects of Jain philosophy, ethics, and cosmology.
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - Mahavira: He is the 24th Tirthankara of Jainism and the founder of the Jain faith as we know it today, but he did not author the Tattvarthadhigamasutra.
Option 3 - Bhadrabahu: He was a prominent Jain scholar and the last head of the undivided Jain community, but not the author of this text.
Option 4 - Rishabhadeva: He is considered the first Tirthankara of Jainism, not the author of this philosophical text.

Physics (2)

Pressure, Fluids and Properties of Matter · Buoyancy and Archimedes' principle

Q41. The magnitude of buoyant force depends on the _____ of the fluid.

  1. (a) refractive index
  2. (b) density
  3. (c) colour
  4. (d) charge
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) density

According to Archimedes' Principle, the buoyant force on an object equals the weight of the fluid displaced. The buoyant force depends on the density of the fluid, the volume of the displaced fluid, and gravitational acceleration. A denser fluid exerts a greater buoyant force.
Refractive index, colour , and charge of a fluid have no effect on the magnitude of buoyant force.
Sources of Energy · Renewable energy missions and targets

Q42. International Solar Alliance (ISA) aims to mobilize _____ trillion dollar in solar investments by 2030.

  1. (a) 1
  2. (b) 5
  3. (c) 3
  4. (d) 4
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1

Correct Answer: 1 (Option 1)
The International Solar Alliance (ISA) aims to mobilize USD 1 trillion in solar energy investments by 2030. The ISA was launched jointly by India and France in 2015 at COP21 in Paris. It works to increase solar energy use in member countries, especially those between the Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn.
Why others are wrong:
Option 2 - 5 trillion: The ISA target is 1 trillion USD, not 5 trillion.
Option 3 - 3 trillion: Incorrect amount.
Option 4 - 4 trillion: Incorrect; the official ISA target is 1 trillion USD by 2030.

Modern History (2)

Revolt of 1857 · Centres and leaders

Q43. Tantia Tope was the general of whom among the following?

  1. (a) Nana Saheb
  2. (b) Begum Hazrat Mahal
  3. (c) Bahadur Shah Zafar
  4. (d) Baji Rao II
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Nana Saheb

Tantia Tope (Ramchandra Pandurang Tope) was the military general and close associate of Nana Saheb ( Dhondu Pant) during the Revolt of 1857. He played a key role in the Siege of Kanpur and the defence of Jhansi alongside Rani Lakshmibai.
Begum Hazrat Mahal led the revolt in Lucknow.
Bahadur Shah Zafar was the last Mughal Emperor, a symbolic figurehead of the revolt.
Baji Rao II was a Peshwa who died in 1851, before the revolt began.
Advent of Europeans and British Expansion · Anglo-Mysore wars

Q44. Who was in the combined forces that attacked Tipu Sultan in 1792?
I. The Marathas
II. The Nizam of Hyderabad
III. The East India Company

  1. (a) Only I and II
  2. (b) Only II and III
  3. (c) Only I and III
  4. (d) I, II and III
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Correct Answer: I, II and III (Option 4)
The Third Anglo-Mysore War (1790-1792) saw a combined alliance attack on Tipu Sultan that included all three forces:
I. The Marathas: The Peshwa-led Maratha forces participated in the coalition against Tipu Sultan.
II. The Nizam of Hyderabad: The Nizam of Hyderabad allied with the British against Tipu Sultan.
III. The East India Company: British forces under Lord Cornwallis led the campaign.
This triple alliance forced Tipu Sultan to sign the Treaty of Seringapatam (1792), under which he had to cede half of his territory and hand over two of his sons as hostages.
Hence, all three (I, II, and III) are correct.

Geography (1)

India - Transport and Communication · Ports and shipping

Q45. Which of the following port is situated at the entrance of the Zuari estuary?

  1. (a) Mumbai port
  2. (b) Marmagao port
  3. (c) Haldia port
  4. (d) Paradip port
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Marmagao port

Marmagao Port (also spelled Mormugao ) is situated at the entrance of the Zuari estuary in Goa. It is one of India's major ports and is well known for handling iron ore exports.
Mumbai port is located on Ulhas Creek on the west coast of Maharashtra.
Haldia port is located in West Bengal on the Hooghly River.
Paradip port is located in Odisha on the Bay of Bengal.

Biology (3)

Plant Physiology and Morphology · Photosynthesis - process and factors

Q46. When do desert plants typically take up carbon dioxide?
I. During the day
II. During the night

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only II

Desert plants follow Crassulacean Acid Metabolism (CAM), a water-conserving adaptation. They open their stomata only during the night to absorb CO2, as temperatures are lower and humidity is higher, minimising water loss.
During the day, stomata remain closed due to extreme heat and low humidity, so CO2 is NOT absorbed during daytime.
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct. Hence, the answer is Only II.
Control and Coordination · Brain - parts and functions

Q47. Which of the following part of brain is responsible for the precision of voluntary actions and maintaining the posture and balance of the body?

  1. (a) Cerebrum
  2. (b) Cerebellum
  3. (c) Medulla
  4. (d) Hypothalamus
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Cerebellum

The Cerebellum is responsible for the coordination and precision of voluntary movements, maintaining posture and balance of the body. It receives sensory input from the spinal cord and other brain regions and regulates motor control.
Cerebrum is the centre of thinking, memory, and conscious activities.
Medulla oblongata controls involuntary actions such as breathing and heart rate.
Hypothalamus regulates body temperature, hunger, thirst, and hormone secretion.
Plant Physiology and Morphology · Transport in plants (xylem, phloem)

Q48. What is the transport of soluble products of photosynthesis in a plant known as?

  1. (a) Transpiration
  2. (b) Translocation
  3. (c) Evaporation
  4. (d) Diffusion
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Translocation

Correct Answer: Translocation (Option 2)
The transport of soluble products of photosynthesis (mainly sucrose) in a plant is called Translocation. This process occurs through the phloem tissue of the plant and carries photosynthates from leaves (source) to other parts of the plant such as roots, fruits, and growing regions (sink).
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - Transpiration: This is the process of water loss from plant surfaces through stomata, not the transport of photosynthetic products.
Option 3 - Evaporation: This is a physical process of water turning into vapour, not a biological transport process in plants.
Option 4 - Diffusion: This is the movement of molecules from high to low concentration and involves simple ions and gases, not the bulk transport of photosynthates.
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