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SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 30 November 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 25 GK / GS questions asked in SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 on 30 November 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Polity, Static GK, Current Affairs, Economics, Geography, Biology.

📚 25 questions🗓️ 30 November 2025⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Polity (2) · Static GK (8) · Current Affairs (7) · Economics (6) · Geography (1) · Biology (1)

Polity (2)

DPSP and Fundamental Duties · DPSP - features and classification

Q1. Which of the following is NOT the aim to establish the Directive Principles of State Policy?

  1. (a) Welfare state
  2. (b) Economic democracy
  3. (c) Social democracy
  4. (d) Political democracy
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Political democracy

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Political democracy
The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) aim to establish a welfare state, economic democracy, and social democracy. Political democracy is NOT an aim of DPSP — it is already ensured through Fundamental Rights (Part III) such as the right to vote, freedom of speech, and equality before law. DPSP (Part IV) focuses on socio-economic justice.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Welfare state): Establishing a welfare state is a core aim of DPSP.
Option 2 (Economic democracy): Ensuring economic equality and democracy is a key DPSP objective.
Option 3 (Social democracy): Social justice and equality are central aims of DPSP. The candidate incorrectly selected Welfare state.
State Government · Legislative Council - creation and abolition

Q2. Which type of bill cannot originate in the State Legislative Council of an Indian state?
I. Money Bill
II. Ordinary Bill

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only I

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Only I
Only a Money Bill (I) cannot originate in the State Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad). Under Article 198 of the Indian Constitution, a Money Bill can only be introduced in the State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha). An Ordinary Bill (II), however, can originate in either the Vidhan Sabha or the Vidhan Parishad.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Only II): Ordinary Bills can originate in the Legislative Council; only Money Bills cannot. The candidate incorrectly selected this.
Option 3 (Both I and II): Ordinary Bills can originate in Vidhan Parishad, so Both is incorrect.
Option 4 (Neither I nor II): Money Bills definitely cannot originate in Vidhan Parishad.

Static GK (8)

Awards and Honours · Other national awards

Q3. In March 2024, at India's first National Creators Awards, who won the 'Best Creator for Social Change' award?

  1. (a) Kamiya Jani
  2. (b) RJ Raunac
  3. (c) Jaya Kishori
  4. (d) Pankti Pandey
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Jaya Kishori

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Jaya Kishori
Jaya Kishori, a popular spiritual and motivational content creator, won the 'Best Creator for Social Change' award at India's first National Creators Awards held in March 2024. The awards were organised by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting to recognise outstanding digital content creators.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Kamiya Jani): She is a travel content creator; she did not win the Social Change award.
Option 2 (RJ Raunac ): He is a radio and digital creator but did not win this particular award.
Option 4 (Pankti Pandey): She was not the recipient of the Best Creator for Social Change award.
Sports · Sports and famous players

Q4. Tulika Maan is related to which of the following sports?

  1. (a) Judo
  2. (b) Athletics
  3. (c) Weightlifting
  4. (d) Badminton
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Judo

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Judo
Tulika Maan is an Indian Judo player. She won a silver medal in the +78 kg category at the 2022 Commonwealth Games in Birmingham — India's first-ever Commonwealth Games medal in Judo for women. She has been a prominent figure in Indian Judo.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Athletics): Tulika Maan is not an athletics (track and field) athlete. The candidate incorrectly selected this.
Option 3 (Weightlifting): Tulika Maan is not a weightlifter.
Option 4 (Badminton): Tulika Maan is not associated with badminton.
Music and Musical Instruments · Hindustani music (ragas, gharanas)

Q5. The Darbhanga gayaki of Dhrupad, a classical form of Indian music, is associated with which Indian state/UT?

  1. (a) Bihar
  2. (b) Haryana
  3. (c) Gujarat
  4. (d) Jammu and Kashmir
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Bihar

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Bihar
The Darbhanga gayaki is a distinctive style of Dhrupad classical music that originated in Darbhanga, a district in Bihar. The Darbhanga gharana (school) of Dhrupad is one of the oldest and most prestigious classical music traditions in India, known for its deep, meditative style and adherence to ancient Sanskrit compositions.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Haryana): Haryana has its own folk traditions (Ragini, Saang ) but is not associated with Darbhanga gayaki .
Option 3 (Gujarat): Gujarat has its own classical and folk music; Darbhanga gayaki belongs to Bihar.
Option 4 (Jammu and Kashmir): J&K has Sufiana music and other traditions; the candidate incorrectly selected this.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q6. Which of the following novels is the first in a trilogy written by R.K. Narayan?

  1. (a) The Scream
  2. (b) The Namesake
  3. (c) Swami and Friends
  4. (d) The Hungry Tide
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Swami and Friends

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Swami and Friends
Swami and Friends (1935) is the first novel in the Malgudi trilogy written by R.K. Narayan. The trilogy consists of: (1) Swami and Friends (1935), (2) The Bachelor of Arts (1937), and (3) The English Teacher (1945). All three are set in the fictional town of Malgudi.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (The Scream): This is not an R.K. Narayan novel; it is a famous painting by Edvard Munch.
Option 2 (The Namesake): This is a novel by Jhumpa Lahiri, not R.K. Narayan. The candidate incorrectly selected this.
Option 4 (The Hungry Tide): This is a novel by Amitav Ghosh, not R.K. Narayan.

Q7. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the ' Doongri Festival' of Himachal Pradesh?

  1. (a) It is celebrated in honour of Hidimba Devi (wife of Bhima).
  2. (b) It is dedicated to the Goddess of wealth.
  3. (c) It marks the beginning of the Tibetan year.
  4. (d) It is celebrated in honour of Lord Shiva.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) It is celebrated in honour of Hidimba Devi (wife of Bhima).

Correct Answer: Option 1 – It is celebrated in honour of Hidimba Devi (wife of Bhima).
The Doongri Festival, also called Hadimba Festival, is celebrated in Manali, Himachal Pradesh, at the Hadimba Devi Temple. It honours Hidimba Devi — the wife of Bhima from the Mahabharata. The festival features traditional rituals, folk music, dance, and devotional offerings at the famous wooden temple built in 1553.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Goddess of wealth): The Doongri Festival is not dedicated to a goddess of wealth.
Option 3 (Beginning of Tibetan year): Tibetan New Year (Losar) is celebrated differently; the candidate incorrectly selected this.
Option 4 (Lord Shiva): The Doongri Festival is dedicated to Hidimba Devi, not Lord Shiva.
Monuments and Heritage · Monuments - builders and locations

Q8. The Victoria Memorial built between 1906 and 1921 is located in _____.

  1. (a) Delhi
  2. (b) Kolkata
  3. (c) Chennai
  4. (d) Shimla
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Kolkata

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Kolkata
The Victoria Memorial is located in Kolkata (formerly Calcutta), West Bengal. It was built between 1906 and 1921 in memory of Queen Victoria, the Empress of India. Designed by architect William Emerson in the Indo-Saracenic style using white Makrana marble, it now serves as a museum and art gallery managed by the Ministry of Culture.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Delhi): The Victoria Memorial is not in Delhi; Delhi has India Gate, Rashtrapati Bhavan, etc.
Option 3 (Chennai): Chennai is not the location of the Victoria Memorial.
Option 4 (Shimla): Shimla was the summer capital of British India but does not have the Victoria Memorial.
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q9. ' Sattriya Nritya' is the classical dance of which of the following Indian state?

  1. (a) Assam
  2. (b) Rajasthan
  3. (c) Tamil Nadu
  4. (d) Odisha
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Assam

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Assam
Sattriya Nritya is the classical dance form of Assam. It was developed by the 15th-century saint-scholar Srimanta Sankardeva as part of the Vaishnavite tradition in the Sattras (Vaishnavite monasteries) of Assam. It was recognised as one of India's eight classical dance forms by the Sangeet Natak Akademi in 2000.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Rajasthan): Rajasthan's classical dance is Kathak; folk dances include Ghoomar .
Option 3 (Tamil Nadu): Tamil Nadu's classical dance is Bharatanatyam.
Option 4 (Odisha): Odisha's classical dance is Odissi.
Indian Railways · Railway projects and technology (Kavach, DFC, high-speed rail)

Q10. The Konkan Railway connects _____.

  1. (a) Roha and Mangalore
  2. (b) Kolkata and Cuttack
  3. (c) Cuttack and Hyderabad
  4. (d) Kochi and Chennai
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Roha and Mangalore

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Roha and Mangalore
The Konkan Railway connects Roha (in Maharashtra) to Mangalore (in Karnataka), covering a distance of about 741 km. It passes through Goa and parts of Maharashtra and Karnataka, traversing the scenic Konkan coastline. It was inaugurated in 1998 and is known for its engineering marvels — tunnels, bridges, and coastal terrain.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Kolkata and Cuttack): This is incorrect; Konkan Railway runs along the western coast of India.
Option 3 (Cuttack and Hyderabad): Incorrect; these cities are on the eastern side and are not connected by Konkan Railway.
Option 4 (Kochi and Chennai): Incorrect; these cities are in South India but not connected by Konkan Railway. The candidate incorrectly selected this.

Current Affairs (7)

Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q11. In October 2024, who has been appointed as the Chief of the Indian Coast Guard?

  1. (a) Ambarish Kenghe
  2. (b) Devendra Kumar Upadhyaya
  3. (c) Paramesh Sivamani
  4. (d) Neeraj Parakh
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Paramesh Sivamani

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Paramesh Sivamani
Vice Admiral Paramesh Sivamani was appointed as the Director General of the Indian Coast Guard in October 2024. He took charge as the 26th Director General of the Indian Coast Guard, succeeding his predecessor in this role.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Ambarish Kenghe ): He was not appointed as the Chief of Indian Coast Guard in October 2024.
Option 2 (Devendra Kumar Upadhyaya): He is associated with other government roles, not ICG Chief in October 2024.
Option 4 (Neeraj Parakh): He was not appointed as ICG Chief in October 2024.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Reports and their publishers

Q12. As of July 2025, women in India represent only _______ of the STEM workforce, limiting women's access to career opportunities offered by the STEM sector.

  1. (a) 43%
  2. (b) 13%
  3. (c) 27%
  4. (d) 6%
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 27%

Correct Answer: Option 3 – 27%
As of July 2025, women in India represent only 27% of the STEM (Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics) workforce. Despite India producing a significant number of female STEM graduates, women's participation in STEM careers remains disproportionately low due to barriers including gender bias, lack of mentorship, and workplace inequalities.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (43%): This would indicate near-equal representation, which is not the case in India's STEM workforce.
Option 2 (13%): Too low; the actual figure is 27%. The candidate incorrectly selected this.
Option 4 (6%): Incorrect; 6% would represent an extremely marginalised presence.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q13. Who administers and regulates the NPS Vatsalya scheme launched in September 2024?

  1. (a) Reserve Bank of India
  2. (b) Securities and Exchange Board of India
  3. (c) Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority
  4. (d) Ministry of Education
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority
The NPS Vatsalya scheme, launched in September 2024, is administered and regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA). NPS Vatsalya is a National Pension System variant for minors (below 18 years), allowing parents to invest in their children's future retirement fund.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (RBI): RBI regulates banking and monetary policy; pension schemes are under PFRDA.
Option 2 (SEBI): SEBI regulates the securities market; it has no role in pension fund regulation.
Option 4 (Ministry of Education): NPS Vatsalya is a pension product, not an educational scheme.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q14. In Global University Employability Ranking 2025, which was the highest ranked Indian university?

  1. (a) IIT Delhi
  2. (b) Indian Institute of Science
  3. (c) IIT Bombay
  4. (d) IIT Kharagpur
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) IIT Delhi

Correct Answer: Option 1 – IIT Delhi
IIT Delhi was the highest ranked Indian university in the Global University Employability Ranking 2025, published by Times Higher Education. IIT Delhi has consistently featured among the top Indian institutions in global employability rankings due to its strong industry linkages and placement record.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (IISc): Indian Institute of Science is a research-focused institution; it ranked lower than IIT Delhi in the 2025 employability ranking.
Option 3 (IIT Bombay): IIT Bombay is a top institution but was ranked below IIT Delhi in the 2025 edition.
Option 4 (IIT Kharagpur): IIT Kharagpur did not surpass IIT Delhi in this ranking. The candidate incorrectly selected this.
Environment and Climate - Current · Species discoveries and conservation news

Q15. As of June 2025, which of the following city has surpassed Mumbai to become the India's leopard capital?

  1. (a) Chennai
  2. (b) Bengaluru
  3. (c) Bhopal
  4. (d) Hyderabad
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Bengaluru

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Bengaluru
As of June 2025, Bengaluru (Bangalore) has surpassed Mumbai to become India's leopard capital. The city's growing green spaces, forested areas in its periphery, and proximity to the Bannerghatta National Park have contributed to a significant leopard population in and around the city.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Chennai): Chennai has not been reported as having a significant urban leopard population surpassing Mumbai.
Option 3 (Bhopal): While Bhopal has lakes and some wildlife, it is not associated with being the leopard capital.
Option 4 (Hyderabad): Hyderabad was not reported as surpassing Mumbai in leopard population.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q16. What is SpaDeX , launched by ISRO in December 2024?

  1. (a) A lunar lander
  2. (b) A solar observation mission
  3. (c) A navigation satellite
  4. (d) A docking experiment
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) A docking experiment

Correct Answer: Option 4 – A docking experiment
SpaDeX (Space Docking Experiment) is ISRO's mission launched in December 2024 to demonstrate in-space docking technology. It consists of two small spacecraft (Chaser and Target) that are designed to autonomously dock in orbit. This technology is essential for future crewed missions, space station construction, and satellite servicing.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Lunar lander): SpaDeX is not a lunar mission; Chandrayaan-3 was India's lunar lander mission.
Option 2 (Solar observation): ISRO's solar mission is Aditya-L1, not SpaDeX .
Option 3 (Navigation satellite): ISRO's navigation satellites are part of the NavIC system, not SpaDeX .
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Reports and their publishers

Q17. As per MOSPI report of 2024, sex ratio of India by 2036 will be _____.

  1. (a) 952
  2. (b) 972
  3. (c) 932
  4. (d) 982
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 952

Correct Answer: Option 1 – 952
As per the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI) report of 2024, the sex ratio of India by 2036 is projected to be 952 females per 1000 males. This reflects an improving trend from the current sex ratio of 943 (Census 2011), showing gradual progress in gender equality.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (972): This would indicate a higher sex ratio than projected; the MOSPI report projects 952.
Option 3 (932): Lower than even the current ratio; the trend is improving, not declining.
Option 4 (982): This is too high and does not match the MOSPI 2024 projection. The candidate incorrectly selected this.

Economics (6)

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Social welfare schemes

Q18. What is the full form of PM-AJAY, seen in news in May 2025?

  1. (a) Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana
  2. (b) Pradhan Mantri Awas Jan Aadhar Yojna
  3. (c) Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Jan Abhiyan Yojna
  4. (d) PM Ann-Jal Aarthik Yojna
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana
PM-AJAY stands for Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana. It is a centrally sponsored scheme aimed at the socio-economic development of Scheduled Caste (SC) communities by consolidating earlier SC welfare schemes (like Dr. Ambedkar Gram Samajik Vikas Yojana, Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana, etc.) into a single scheme.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Awas Jan Aadhar Yojna): This expansion is incorrect; PM-AJAY is about SC welfare, not housing.
Option 3 (Adarsh Jan Abhiyan Yojna): Incorrect expansion; the correct full form relates to Scheduled Caste welfare.
Option 4 (PM Ann-Jal Aarthik Yojna): Completely incorrect; PM-AJAY has no connection to food or water.

Q19. Which of the following is known as the Paper tax in India?
I. Wealth tax
II. Goods and Services tax

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only I

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Only I
Wealth Tax (I) is known as the 'Paper Tax' in India, because it was levied on the declared (paper) value of assets owned by individuals. It was seen as a tax that existed largely on paper with limited actual collection, and was abolished in 2015.
GST (II) is not called a Paper Tax; it is a comprehensive indirect tax on goods and services.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Only II): GST is not known as Paper Tax.
Option 3 (Both I and II): Only Wealth Tax qualifies as Paper Tax; the candidate incorrectly selected this.
Option 4 (Neither I nor II): Incorrect; Wealth Tax is indeed called Paper Tax.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Revenue and capital receipts and expenditure

Q20. Which of the following relates to those expenses incurred for the normal functioning of the government departments?

  1. (a) Revenue expenditure
  2. (b) Capital expenditure
  3. (c) Revenue receipt
  4. (d) Capital receipt
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Revenue expenditure

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Revenue expenditure
Revenue expenditure refers to government expenses incurred for the normal day-to-day functioning of government departments and various services. It includes salaries, pensions, subsidies, interest payments, and maintenance costs. It does not create assets and is recurring in nature.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Capital expenditure): Capital expenditure is for creating long-term assets like infrastructure, buildings, and machinery.
Option 3 (Revenue receipt): Revenue receipts are government earnings (taxes, fees) — not expenses.
Option 4 (Capital receipt): Capital receipts are government borrowings and disinvestment proceeds — not operational expenses.

Q21. The Foreign Investment Promotion Board was initially constituted in India under the _____.

  1. (a) Prime Minister's Office
  2. (b) Parliament of India
  3. (c) Finance Commission
  4. (d) President of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Prime Minister's Office

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Prime Minister's Office
The Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB) was initially constituted under the Prime Minister's Office (PMO) in 1991 during the economic liberalisation period. It was later moved to the Ministry of Finance. FIPB was responsible for approving foreign direct investment proposals that required government clearance. It was abolished in 2017.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Parliament): FIPB was an executive body, not a parliamentary body.
Option 3 (Finance Commission): Finance Commission deals with the distribution of revenue between Centre and states; it did not constitute FIPB. The candidate incorrectly selected this.
Option 4 (President): FIPB was not constituted by the President of India.
Money and Banking · RBI - history and functions

Q22. The Reserve Bank had first introduced the Banking Ombudsman Scheme in _____ to provide expeditious and inexpensive forum to bank customers for resolution of their complaints relating to deficiency in banking services.

  1. (a) 1995
  2. (b) 1996
  3. (c) 1991
  4. (d) 1992
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1995

Correct Answer: Option 1 – 1995
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) first introduced the Banking Ombudsman Scheme in 1995 under Section 35A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. The scheme provides a cost-free and speedy mechanism for customers to resolve complaints against banks. It has been revised multiple times, with the latest revision in 2021 integrating it into the Integrated Ombudsman Scheme.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (1996): Incorrect; the scheme was introduced a year earlier, in 1995.
Option 3 (1991): 1991 was the year of economic liberalisation ; the Ombudsman Scheme came four years later. The candidate incorrectly selected this.
Option 4 (1992): Incorrect; 1995 is the correct year.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q23. In India, the second five year plan ended in which year?

  1. (a) 1950
  2. (b) 1955
  3. (c) 1961
  4. (d) 1972
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1961

Correct Answer: Option 3 – 1961
The Second Five Year Plan of India ran from 1956 to 1961. It was based on the Mahalanobis model and focused on rapid industrialisation , especially heavy industries. It ended in 1961 when the Third Five Year Plan began.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (1950): 1950 was before any Five Year Plan; plans started in 1951.
Option 2 (1955): 1955 was the end of the First Five Year Plan (1951–56), not the Second.
Option 4 (1972): 1972 is associated with the end of the Fourth Five Year Plan (1969–74).

Geography (1)

Hydrosphere - Oceans and Water · Ocean resources and maritime zones

Q24. In February 2025, National Institute of Ocean Technology has been entrusted with the ambitious task of designing and developing the 4th Generation deep-ocean human scientific submersible named _____ as part of the Samudrayan Project.

  1. (a) Matsya-6000
  2. (b) Samudra-5000
  3. (c) Manimekhala-6000
  4. (d) Shankha-5000
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Matsya-6000

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Matsya-6000
Matsya-6000 is the name of the 4th Generation deep-ocean human scientific submersible being developed by the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT) as part of India's Samudrayan Project. The submersible is designed to carry three persons to a depth of 6,000 metres under the ocean surface for deep-sea research and mineral exploration.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Samudra-5000): This is not the name of the submersible in the Samudrayan Project.
Option 3 (Manimekhala-6000): This is an incorrect name; the candidate incorrectly selected this.
Option 4 (Shankha-5000): This is also an incorrect name for the submersible.

Biology (1)

Control and Coordination · Neuron and nerve impulse

Q25. In which direction does the electrical impulse travel in a nerve cell of an animal after being created?

  1. (a) From the dendrite to the cell body, then along the axon
  2. (b) From the axon to the dendrite
  3. (c) From the cell body to the axon
  4. (d) From the synapse to the muscle cells
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) From the dendrite to the cell body, then along the axon

Correct Answer: Option 1 – From the dendrite to the cell body, then along the axon
In a nerve cell (neuron), the electrical impulse (action potential) travels in a fixed direction: from the dendrites → cell body (soma) → along the axon → to the axon terminals (synapses). Dendrites receive incoming signals, the cell body processes them, and the axon transmits the impulse to the next neuron or effector organ.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Axon to dendrite): This is the reverse direction; nerve impulses never travel this way.
Option 3 (Cell body to axon): This is only partially correct — the impulse first arrives at the cell body from the dendrites. The candidate incorrectly selected this.
Option 4 (Synapse to muscle cells): The synapse is the end point of transmission, not the starting direction within the neuron.
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