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SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 30 November 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 25 GK / GS questions asked in SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 on 30 November 2025 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Static GK, Polity, Modern History, Current Affairs, Biology, Geography.

📚 25 questions🗓️ 30 November 2025⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Static GK (6) · Polity (1) · Modern History (2) · Current Affairs (3) · Biology (2) · Geography (3) · Physics (2) · Economics (5) · Ancient History (1)

Static GK (6)

Q1. Which Sultan used the Banjaras to transport grain to city markets?

  1. (a) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
  2. (b) Alauddin Khalji
  3. (c) Sher Shah Suri
  4. (d) Babur
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Alauddin Khalji

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Alauddin Khalji
Alauddin Khalji introduced a comprehensive market control system (Market Reforms) in which he used the Banjaras — nomadic grain traders — to transport grain from rural areas to city markets. This was part of his price regulation policy to ensure affordable food for his large army.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Muhammad bin Tughlaq): He is known for transferring the capital and other administrative experiments, not specifically for using Banjaras.
Option 3 (Sher Shah Suri): He is known for administrative reforms and the Grand Trunk Road, not for the Banjara grain transport system.
Option 4 (Babur): He was the founder of the Mughal dynasty; Banjara grain transport was not associated with his reign.
Organisations and Headquarters · Regional groupings (SAARC, ASEAN, BIMSTEC, SCO, G20)

Q2. Which of the following country is NOT the founding member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation ?

  1. (a) Iraq
  2. (b) Tajikistan
  3. (c) Russia
  4. (d) China
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Iraq

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Iraq
Iraq is NOT a founding member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO). The SCO was established in 2001 with six founding members: China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan. Iraq has no founding membership in the SCO.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Tajikistan): Tajikistan is one of the six founding members of the SCO (2001).
Option 3 (Russia): Russia is one of the six founding members of the SCO (2001).
Option 4 (China): China is one of the six founding members and the host of the SCO's creation in Shanghai.
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q3. Judo had its origin in the ancient _____ art.

  1. (a) Japanese
  2. (b) Chinese
  3. (c) Indian
  4. (d) Korean
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Japanese

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Japanese
Judo originated from the ancient Japanese martial art of Jujutsu (Jujitsu). It was developed and codified as a modern sport by Japanese educator Jigoro Kano in 1882. Kano refined and systematised the techniques of Jujutsu to create Judo, which literally means 'gentle way' in Japanese.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Chinese): Chinese martial art is Kung Fu (Wushu); Judo is specifically Japanese. The candidate incorrectly selected this.
Option 3 (Indian): Indian ancient martial arts include Kalaripayattu ; Judo is not of Indian origin.
Option 4 (Korean): Korean martial art is Taekwondo or Ssireum ; Judo is Japanese.
Sports · Number of players and field dimensions

Q4. Which of the following sports includes a ball?

  1. (a) Boxing
  2. (b) Badminton
  3. (c) Chess
  4. (d) Golf
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Golf

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Golf
Golf uses a ball — a small, hard white ball struck with clubs across a course into holes. Among the given options, only Golf uses a ball.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Boxing): Uses gloves and a boxing ring; no ball is involved.
Option 2 (Badminton): Uses a shuttlecock (birdie), not a ball.
Option 3 (Chess): Uses pieces on a board; no ball is involved.
Monuments and Heritage · Temples and religious places

Q5. The main temple of Shri Jagannath is an impressive and amazing structure constructed in Kalinga architecture, with a height of _____ meters placed on an elevated platform.

  1. (a) 105
  2. (b) 65
  3. (c) 85
  4. (d) 35
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 65

Correct Answer: Option 2 – 65
The main temple (Deula/Vimana) of Shri Jagannath at Puri, Odisha, stands at a height of approximately 65 meters (about 214 feet). It is built in the Kalinga style of architecture and is placed on an elevated platform ( Kuruma Bedha ). The temple is a UNESCO tentative World Heritage Site.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (105): Incorrect; the temple height is 65 metres , not 105.
Option 3 (85): Incorrect figure; the actual height is 65 metres .
Option 4 (35): Too low; the temple is significantly taller at 65 metres .
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q6. ' Ranapa ' is a martial dance associated with which of the following Indian states?

  1. (a) Haryana
  2. (b) Rajasthan
  3. (c) Manipur
  4. (d) Odisha
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Odisha

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Odisha
Ranapa (also spelled Raanapa ) is a traditional folk and martial dance form from Odisha. In this dance, performers balance on stilts ( ranapa /wooden stilts) while performing energetic movements, often depicting battles and heroic tales. It is particularly associated with the coastal regions of Odisha.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Haryana): Haryana's folk dances include Phag and Loor; Ranapa is not from Haryana.
Option 2 (Rajasthan): Rajasthan's dances include Ghoomar and Kalbelia ; not Ranapa .
Option 3 (Manipur): Manipur's dances include Ras Lila and Thang-ta; the candidate incorrectly selected this.

Polity (1)

Constitutional Development and Making · Borrowed features - sources of the Constitution

Q7. Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution is borrowed from USSR (Now Russia)?

  1. (a) Fundamental duties
  2. (b) Residuary powers vest with the centre
  3. (c) The Preamble of the constitution
  4. (d) Centre appoints the Governors at the states
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Fundamental duties

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Fundamental duties
The concept of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from the USSR (Soviet Union). They were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 (Article 51A). The Soviet Constitution had a detailed list of duties of citizens.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Residuary powers with Centre): Borrowed from Canada.
Option 3 (Preamble): Inspired by the USA's Constitution.
Option 4 (Centre appoints Governors): This is an original feature of the Indian Constitution based on the Government of India Act 1935; not borrowed from USSR.

Modern History (2)

Revolt of 1857 · Centres and leaders

Q8. Which legendary martyr's attack on British officers in 1857, is considered the first major incident of the Sepoy Mutiny?

  1. (a) Dadabhai Naoroji
  2. (b) Mangal Pandey
  3. (c) Mahatma Gandhi
  4. (d) Surendranath Bandyopadhyay
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Mangal Pandey

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Mangal Pandey
Mangal Pandey, a sepoy of the 34th Bengal Infantry Regiment, attacked British officers at Barrackpore on 29 March 1857. This is considered the first major incident that sparked the Sepoy Mutiny (also called the First War of Indian Independence). He was subsequently arrested and hanged on 8 April 1857.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Dadabhai Naoroji): He was a political leader and economist known for the 'Drain of Wealth' theory; not connected to the 1857 revolt.
Option 3 (Mahatma Gandhi): Gandhi was born in 1869 — 12 years after the 1857 uprising; he could not have participated.
Option 4 (Surendranath Bandyopadhyay): He was a prominent nationalist leader of the late 19th century, not associated with the 1857 Sepoy Mutiny.
Gandhian Era · Champaran, Kheda and Ahmedabad

Q9. In which of the following years Mahatma Gandhi led the Champaran Movement?

  1. (a) 1913
  2. (b) 1917
  3. (c) 1921
  4. (d) 1923
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1917

Correct Answer: Option 2 – 1917
Mahatma Gandhi led the Champaran Satyagraha in 1917 in Bihar. This was Gandhi's first major civil disobedience movement in India, opposing the exploitation of indigo farmers by British planters who forced peasants to grow indigo under the tinkathia system. The movement succeeded in getting concessions from British planters.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (1913): Gandhi was still in South Africa leading the Satyagraha there in 1913.
Option 3 (1921): 1921 is associated with the Non-Cooperation Movement.
Option 4 (1923): 1923 is associated with the Nagpur session of Congress; Champaran movement was in 1917.

Current Affairs (3)

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q10. In March 2025, PM Modi also disbursed Rs. _____ crore in financial assistance at ' Lakhpati Didi Sammelan' in Gujarat.

  1. (a) 450
  2. (b) 600
  3. (c) 250
  4. (d) 300
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 450

Correct Answer: Option 1 – 450
In March 2025, Prime Minister Narendra Modi disbursed Rs. 450 crore in financial assistance to beneficiaries at the ' Lakhpati Didi Sammelan' held in Gujarat. The Lakhpati Didi initiative aims to empower women Self-Help Groups (SHGs) to earn an annual income of at least Rs. 1 lakh.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (600): Incorrect figure; the disbursed amount was Rs. 450 crore .
Option 3 (250): Incorrect; this is lower than the actual amount disbursed.
Option 4 (300): Incorrect; the actual figure was Rs. 450 crore .
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Reports and their publishers

Q11. In 2024, women from how many states accounted for 49% of all self-monitoring female borrowers in India?

  1. (a) 3
  2. (b) 5
  3. (c) 8
  4. (d) 11
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 5

Correct Answer: Option 2 – 5
In 2024, women from 5 states — predominantly Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and West Bengal — accounted for 49% of all self-monitoring female borrowers (women in microfinance Self-Help Groups) in India. These southern and eastern states have historically stronger SHG and microfinance networks.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (3): Too few states to account for 49% of the national count.
Option 3 (8): Higher than the actual number of states reported.
Option 4 (11): This is significantly more than the actual figure of 5 states.
Sports - Current · Cricket - current

Q12. Which team won the 2025 edition of the Women's Premier League (Cricket) 2025?

  1. (a) Mumbai Indians
  2. (b) Delhi Capitals
  3. (c) Royal Challengers Bengaluru
  4. (d) Gujrat Giants
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mumbai Indians

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Mumbai Indians
Mumbai Indians won the Women's Premier League (WPL) 2025 edition, defeating Delhi Capitals in the final. This was Mumbai Indians' third WPL title, cementing their dominance in the tournament.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Delhi Capitals): Delhi Capitals were runners-up in WPL 2025; they did not win.
Option 3 (Royal Challengers Bengaluru): RCB did not win the 2025 WPL title.
Option 4 (Gujrat Giants): Gujarat Giants did not win the 2025 WPL edition.

Biology (2)

Diseases, Immunity and Health · Health organisations and programmes

Q13. The PM POSHAN scheme is being implemented by the Ministry of _______.

  1. (a) Health and Family Welfare
  2. (b) Women and Child Development
  3. (c) Rural Development
  4. (d) Education
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Education

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Education
The PM POSHAN (Pradhan Mantri Poshan Shakti Nirman) scheme, formerly known as the Mid-Day Meal Scheme, is implemented by the Ministry of Education. It provides hot cooked meals to school children in government and government-aided schools to improve nutritional levels and increase school attendance.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Health and Family Welfare): This ministry handles health programmes ; PM POSHAN falls under Education. The candidate incorrectly selected this.
Option 2 (Women and Child Development): This ministry implements ICDS/Anganwadi schemes; not PM POSHAN.
Option 3 (Rural Development): This ministry handles MGNREGS and other rural schemes; not PM POSHAN.
Control and Coordination · Plant hormones and tropic movements

Q14. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the plant hormones?
I. They help to coordinate growth, development and responses to the environment.
II. They are synthesised at places away from where they act and simply diffuse to the area of action.

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Both I and II
Both statements about plant hormones (phytohormones) are correct:
Statement I: Plant hormones coordinate growth, development, and responses to environmental stimuli (light, gravity, temperature, etc.) — this is their primary function. ✓
Statement II: Plant hormones are synthesised at specific sites (e.g., auxin at shoot tips) and transported/diffused to their target tissues where they exert their effects. ✓
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Only I): Statement II is also correct; hormones are indeed synthesised away from their site of action.
Option 2 (Only II): Statement I is also correct; coordination of growth is a key function.
Option 4 (Neither I nor II): Both statements are factually accurate. The candidate incorrectly selected Only I.

Geography (3)

Environment and Protected Areas · Environmental conventions and protocols (Montreal, Kyoto, Paris, CBD)

Q15. As per December 2024, what is India's updated target for reduction in emission intensity by 2030 as Nationally Determined Contribution target?

  1. (a) 20%
  2. (b) 30%
  3. (c) 45%
  4. (d) 60%
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 45%

Correct Answer: Option 3 – 45%
As per India's updated Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) submitted in 2022 and reaffirmed through December 2024, India's target is to reduce the emission intensity of its GDP by 45% by 2030 compared to 2005 levels. This is an enhancement from the earlier target of 33-35%.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (20%): Too low; India's actual target is 45% reduction in emission intensity.
Option 2 (30%): This was an intermediate goal; the official NDC target is 45%.
Option 4 (60%): Exceeds India's stated NDC commitment of 45%.

Q16. The Chillai Kalan is the local name given to the 40-day period of harsh winter in which of the following region of India?

  1. (a) Himachal Pradesh
  2. (b) Jammu and Kashmir
  3. (c) Uttar Pradesh
  4. (d) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Jammu and Kashmir

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Jammu and Kashmir
Chillai Kalan is the local Kashmiri term for the harshest 40-day period of winter in Jammu and Kashmir, typically beginning around 21 December and ending around 29 January. During this period, temperatures drop significantly, water bodies freeze, and the region experiences heavy snowfall.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Himachal Pradesh): HP has harsh winters but does not use the term ' Chillai Kalan'.
Option 3 (Uttar Pradesh): UP does not experience the extreme cold that necessitates the Chillai Kalan tradition.
Option 4 (Arunachal Pradesh): This northeastern state has different seasonal patterns and climate traditions.
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Coal, petroleum and natural gas fields

Q17. About 80% of the coal deposits in India is of _____ type and is of non-coking grade.

  1. (a) Anthracite
  2. (b) Bituminous
  3. (c) Peat
  4. (d) Lignite
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Bituminous

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Bituminous
About 80% of India's coal deposits are Bituminous coal (Gondwana coal), found in states like Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal, and Chhattisgarh. Most of this is non-coking (steam) grade, used for power generation. Only a small portion is coking coal used in steel making.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Anthracite): Anthracite is the highest quality, hardest coal; India has very limited deposits of it.
Option 3 (Peat): Peat is the lowest rank of coal; India's 80% deposits are not Peat. The candidate incorrectly selected this.
Option 4 (Lignite): Lignite (brown coal) is found mainly in Tamil Nadu and Rajasthan; it does not constitute 80% of India's coal.

Physics (2)

Gravitation · Satellites, orbital velocity and escape velocity

Q18. Generally, satellites do not fly below _____ km.

  1. (a) 12
  2. (b) 180
  3. (c) 55
  4. (d) 10000
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 180

Correct Answer: Option 2 – 180
Satellites generally do not fly below 180 km altitude. Below this altitude, the Earth's atmosphere becomes dense enough to cause significant drag, which rapidly decays a satellite's orbit and causes it to re-enter the atmosphere. The Low Earth Orbit (LEO) range begins at approximately 180–200 km.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (12): At 12 km, we are still in the troposphere; no satellite can maintain orbit here.
Option 3 (55): Rockets and high-altitude balloons can reach 55 km, but satellites cannot sustain stable orbit at this height.
Option 4 (10000): This is within the Medium Earth Orbit (MEO) range; satellites do fly at 10,000 km, but that is not the minimum. The candidate incorrectly selected this.
Heat and Thermodynamics · Latent heat and change of state

Q19. The amount of heat energy that is required to change 1 kg of a solid into liquid at atmospheric pressure at its melting point is known as the _____ heat of fusion.

  1. (a) latent
  2. (b) boiling
  3. (c) melting
  4. (d) absolute
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) latent

Correct Answer: Option 1 – latent
The heat energy required to change 1 kg of a solid into liquid at its melting point (at constant atmospheric pressure) without any change in temperature is called Latent Heat of Fusion. 'Latent' means 'hidden' — the heat is absorbed without a temperature rise; it is used to break intermolecular bonds.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (boiling): Boiling is the phase change from liquid to gas; latent heat of vaporisation applies there.
Option 3 (melting): While 'melting' heat is a colloquial term, the scientifically correct term is 'latent' heat of fusion. The candidate incorrectly selected this.
Option 4 (absolute): Absolute is related to temperature scale (Kelvin); not a type of heat of fusion.

Economics (5)

Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q20. The India met with an economic crisis in 1991 relating to _____.

  1. (a) its external debt
  2. (b) its internal debt
  3. (c) trade embargo from western countries
  4. (d) shortfall in agriculture output due to severe drought
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) its external debt

Correct Answer: Option 1 – its external debt
India's 1991 economic crisis was primarily a Balance of Payments ( BoP ) crisis caused by excessive external debt and a severe shortage of foreign exchange reserves (down to only 2 weeks' worth of imports). India had to pledge its gold reserves to the IMF and was on the verge of defaulting on external obligations. This crisis led to the historic economic liberalisation reforms of 1991.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (internal debt): While internal debt was also a concern, the immediate trigger was the external debt/ BoP crisis.
Option 3 (trade embargo): No western trade embargo was imposed on India in 1991.
Option 4 (agricultural shortfall): Agricultural shortfall was not the cause of the 1991 crisis. The candidate incorrectly selected this.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q21. Which of the following five year plan of India started in 1969?

  1. (a) First
  2. (b) Second
  3. (c) Fourth
  4. (d) Sixth
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Fourth

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Fourth
The Fourth Five Year Plan of India started in 1969 and ran until 1974. It was formulated under PM Indira Gandhi with the slogan 'Growth with Stability and Progressive Achievement of Self-Reliance'. The plan faced challenges due to the 1971 Indo-Pak War and the 1973 oil crisis.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (First): The First Five Year Plan ran from 1951 to 1956.
Option 2 (Second): The Second Five Year Plan ran from 1956 to 1961.
Option 4 (Sixth): The Sixth Five Year Plan ran from 1980 to 1985.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q22. Which of the following was the key issue during launch of eighth five year plan of India?
I. Worsening balance of payment position.
II. Rising debt burden.

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Both I and II
The Eighth Five Year Plan (1992–1997) was launched in the aftermath of the 1991 economic crisis. Both issues were critical at its launch:
I. Worsening balance of payments position: India had a severe BoP crisis in 1991 with near-zero forex reserves.
II. Rising debt burden: India had accumulated massive external debt that it was struggling to repay.
These twin crises led to the historic liberalisation , privatisation , and globalisation (LPG) reforms.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Only I): Both issues were present; rising debt was equally critical.
Option 2 (Only II): Both issues were present; BoP crisis was also a major concern.
Option 4 (Neither I nor II): Incorrect; both were key issues at the time of the Eighth Plan's launch.

Q23. The first export processing zone in India was set up in which of the following year?

  1. (a) 1949
  2. (b) 1965
  3. (c) 1984
  4. (d) 1992
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1965

Correct Answer: Option 2 – 1965
The first Export Processing Zone (EPZ) in India was established in Kandla, Gujarat in 1965. It was set up to promote exports by providing a duty-free environment for manufacturing export- oriented goods. Kandla EPZ (now Kandla Special Economic Zone) was India's first such zone and one of Asia's first export processing zones.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (1949): No EPZ was set up in India in 1949.
Option 3 (1984): The Santa Cruz Electronics Export Processing Zone (SEEPZ) was set up in 1973, not 1984.
Option 4 (1992): This is the year of economic liberalisation ; SEZs were given new impetus much later, in 2000.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - components and process

Q24. In India's gender budget, _____ includes schemes where the budgetary allocation for women and girls is below 30% of the total provision.

  1. (a) Part A
  2. (b) Part D
  3. (c) Part B
  4. (d) Part C
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Part C

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Part C
In India's Gender Budget Statement, Part C (introduced in Union Budget 2024-25) includes schemes where the budgetary allocation for women and girls is below 30% of the total provision. Previously the Gender Budget had two parts: Part A (100% allocation for women) and Part B (30% or more allocation for women). Part C was added to capture partial allocations below 30%.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Part A): Part A includes schemes that have 100% allocation for women/girls.
Option 2 (Part D): There is no Part D in India's Gender Budget Statement.
Option 3 (Part B): Part B includes schemes where at least 30% allocation is for women/girls.

Ancient History (1)

Vedic Period · Epics and Puranas

Q25. The term ' Jambudvipa ' used in Mahabharata is associated with which tree?

  1. (a) Banyan
  2. (b) Ashoka
  3. (c) Neem
  4. (d) Jamun
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Jamun

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Jamun
The term ' Jambudvipa ' (also spelled Jambu- dvipa ) literally means 'Island/Land of the Jambu tree.' The Jambu tree refers to the Jamun tree (Indian Blackberry / Syzygium cumini ). In the Mahabharata and other ancient Sanskrit texts, Jambudvipa was the name for the Indian subcontinent or the known world. The Jamun tree was considered sacred and abundant in the region.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Banyan): The Banyan (Vata Vriksha) is India's national tree but is not associated with the term ' Jambudvipa '.
Option 2 (Ashoka): The Ashoka tree is associated with Buddhism and royalty, not with Jambudvipa .
Option 3 (Neem): Neem is a medicinal tree but has no connection to the Mahabharata term ' Jambudvipa '.
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