Home › GK Questions Asked › SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 › 30 November 2025 Shift 3

SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 30 November 2025 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 25 GK / GS questions asked in SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 on 30 November 2025 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Medieval History, Polity, Static GK, Economics, Current Affairs, Geography.

📚 25 questions🗓️ 30 November 2025⏰ Shift 3
हिंदी में पढ़ें📥 Full paper PDF
Subjects: Medieval History (3) · Polity (3) · Static GK (5) · Economics (6) · Current Affairs (1) · Geography (4) · Physics (2) · Biology (1)

Medieval History (3)

South Indian Kingdoms · Cholas - rulers and administration

Q1. What was the term for land revenue in the Chola kingdom?

  1. (a) Vetti
  2. (b) Ladder tax
  3. (c) Cess tax
  4. (d) Kadamai
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Kadamai

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Kadamai
Kadamai (also spelled Kadmai ) was the term used for land revenue in the Chola kingdom. It was the primary tax paid by peasants to the Chola state based on agricultural produce and land holdings.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Vetti): Vetti was a form of forced/unpaid labour ( begar ) in the Chola kingdom, not land revenue.
Option 2 (Ladder tax): This is not a historical tax term associated with the Chola kingdom.
Option 3 ( Cess tax): Cess is a modern tax concept; it was not the Chola term for land revenue.
Mughal Empire · Humayun and Sher Shah Suri

Q2. Which of the following dynasty ruled India for only fifteen years?

  1. (a) Sur
  2. (b) Khilji
  3. (c) Tughlaq
  4. (d) Lodi
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sur

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Sur
The Sur dynasty, founded by Sher Shah Suri, ruled India for approximately 15 years (1540–1555). Sher Shah defeated Humayun in 1540 and ruled until his death in 1545. The dynasty continued briefly under his successors until Humayun reconquered Delhi in 1555.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Khilji): The Khilji dynasty ruled from 1290 to 1320 — about 30 years.
Option 3 (Tughlaq): The Tughlaq dynasty ruled from 1320 to 1414 — about 94 years.
Option 4 (Lodi): The Lodi dynasty ruled from 1451 to 1526 — about 75 years.
Later Mughals and Regional Powers · Mysore (Hyder Ali, Tipu Sultan)

Q3. Which of the following was the capital of the kingdom of Tipu Sultan?

  1. (a) Erode
  2. (b) Seringapatam
  3. (c) Sira
  4. (d) Chitradurga
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Seringapatam

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Seringapatam
Seringapatam (now Srirangapatna , in Mandya district of Karnataka) was the capital of Tipu Sultan's Kingdom of Mysore. It was here that the famous Battle of Seringapatam (1799) was fought, in which Tipu Sultan was defeated and killed by the British East India Company forces.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Erode): Erode is in Tamil Nadu and was not Tipu Sultan's capital.
Option 3 (Sira): Sira is in Karnataka but was not the capital of Tipu Sultan's kingdom.
Option 4 ( Chitradurga ): Chitradurga is known for the Chitradurga Fort, but it was not Tipu Sultan's capital.

Polity (3)

Union, Territory and Citizenship · Union and its territory (Articles 1-4)

Q4. Which of the following article of the Indian Constitution is related with Admission or establishment of new States?

  1. (a) Article 2
  2. (b) Article 4
  3. (c) Article 8
  4. (d) Article 7
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 2

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Article 2
Article 2 of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to admit into the Union or establish new States on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit. Article 3 deals with formation of new states by reorganising existing states (altering boundaries, changing names, etc.).
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Article 4): Article 4 deals with laws made under Articles 2 and 3 that are not deemed to be amendments.
Option 3 (Article 8): Article 8 deals with rights of citizenship of certain persons of Indian origin.
Option 4 (Article 7): Article 7 deals with rights of citizenship of certain migrants to Pakistan.
Fundamental Rights · Fundamental Rights - general (Articles 12, 13)

Q5. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the fundamental rights given in the Indian constitution?
I. Article 30 is related with Abolition of titles.
II. Article 22 is related with Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc.

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Neither I nor II

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Neither I nor II
Both statements are incorrect:
Statement I: Article 30 deals with the Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions — NOT abolition of titles. Abolition of titles is covered under Article 18.
Statement II: Article 22 deals with Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases — NOT prohibition of employment of children. Prohibition of employment of children in factories is covered under Article 24.
Since both statements are factually wrong, the correct answer is Neither I nor II.
Polity Miscellaneous · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q6. How many crimes under Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 now include increased imprisonment terms?

  1. (a) 33
  2. (b) 43
  3. (c) 63
  4. (d) 13
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 33

Correct Answer: Option 1 – 33
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, which replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, increased imprisonment terms for 33 offences compared to the earlier provisions. The BNS also introduced new sections, enhanced punishments for certain crimes, and added provisions for organised crime and terrorism.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (43): Incorrect; the number of offences with increased imprisonment is 33.
Option 3 (63): Incorrect; this figure is higher than the actual number.
Option 4 (13): Incorrect; 13 is too low; the correct figure is 33.

Static GK (5)

Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q7. Which Indian model was crowned Miss World in November 2017?

  1. (a) Lara Dutta
  2. (b) Manushi Chhillar
  3. (c) Shilpa Singh
  4. (d) Harnaaz Sandhu
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Manushi Chhillar

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Manushi Chhillar
Manushi Chhillar was crowned Miss World 2017 at the 67th Miss World pageant held in Sanya, China in November 2017. She was the 6th Indian woman to win the Miss World title and the first Indian to win in 17 years (since Priyanka Chopra in 2000).
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Lara Dutta): Lara Dutta was Miss Universe 2000, not Miss World 2017.
Option 3 (Shilpa Singh): She was Miss Universe India 2007; she did not win Miss World 2017.
Option 4 (Harnaaz Sandhu): Harnaaz Sandhu won Miss Universe 2021, not Miss World 2017.
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q8. The game of basketball originated in which of the following countries?

  1. (a) United States of America
  2. (b) United Kingdom
  3. (c) South Africa
  4. (d) Australia
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) United States of America

Correct Answer: Option 1 – United States of America
Basketball was invented by Dr. James Naismith in December 1891 in Springfield, Massachusetts, USA. He created the game as an indoor winter sport for his students. The first official game was played in January 1892 using a soccer ball and two peach baskets as goals.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (United Kingdom): Basketball was not invented in the UK; it is an American invention.
Option 3 (South Africa): South Africa has no historical connection to the invention of basketball.
Option 4 (Australia): Australia did not originate basketball; it originated in the USA.
Sports · Number of players and field dimensions

Q9. Which of the following sports does NOT include a ball?

  1. (a) Cricket
  2. (b) Hockey
  3. (c) Soccer
  4. (d) Badminton
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Badminton

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Badminton
Badminton does NOT use a ball — it uses a shuttlecock (birdie), which is a feathered or plastic projectile. Among the given options, Badminton is the only sport that does not involve a ball.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Cricket): Cricket uses a hard leather ball.
Option 2 (Hockey): Field hockey uses a hard plastic/rubber ball (unlike ice hockey which uses a puck).
Option 3 (Soccer): Soccer (football) is played entirely with a round ball.
Music and Musical Instruments · Musical instruments and exponents

Q10. The ' Dedh Satara' musical instrument belongs to which Indian state?

  1. (a) Kerala
  2. (b) Manipur
  3. (c) Rajasthan
  4. (d) West Bengal
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Rajasthan

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Rajasthan
The Dedh Satara (also written as Dedh Satara) is a traditional wind instrument (flute) from Rajasthan. It is a folk instrument used in Rajasthani music traditions, typically made of wood or bamboo, and associated with the desert music culture of Rajasthan.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Kerala): Kerala's traditional instruments include Chenda, Mridangam, and Veena; not Dedh Satara.
Option 2 (Manipur): Manipur's instruments include the Pena; Dedh Satara is not from Manipur.
Option 4 (West Bengal): West Bengal's traditional instruments include Dotara and Ektara; not Dedh Satara.
Space, Defence and Technology · Missiles and weapon systems

Q11. HAL-developed ' Prachand ' is which type of aircraft?

  1. (a) Fighter jet
  2. (b) Drone
  3. (c) Civil passenger aeroplane
  4. (d) Light combat helicopter
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Light combat helicopter

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Light combat helicopter
Prachand (LCH — Light Combat Helicopter) is a dedicated combat helicopter developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL). It was inducted into the Indian Air Force in 2022. It is designed to operate in high-altitude combat operations, including in Himalayan terrain. It can perform both anti-tank and anti-infantry roles.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Fighter jet): Prachand is a helicopter, not a fighter jet. HAL's fighter aircraft include Tejas.
Option 2 (Drone): Prachand is a crewed combat helicopter, not an unmanned drone.
Option 3 (Civil passenger aeroplane ): Prachand is a military combat aircraft, not a civilian transport.

Economics (6)

Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - latest highlights

Q12. The Union Finance Minister in Budget 2025-26 announced to set up _____ Atal Tinkering Labs in Government schools in next 5 years.

  1. (a) 21000
  2. (b) 50000
  3. (c) 75000
  4. (d) 100000
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 50000

Correct Answer: Option 2 – 50000
In the Union Budget 2025-26, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced the setting up of 50,000 Atal Tinkering Labs (ATLs) in Government schools across India over the next 5 years. ATLs are innovation workspaces for students designed to promote creativity, problem-solving, and scientific thinking.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (21000): Incorrect; the announced target was 50,000 ATLs.
Option 3 (75000): Higher than the announced figure of 50,000.
Option 4 (100000): Incorrect; the budget announcement was specifically for 50,000 ATLs.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Social welfare schemes

Q13. Sakhi Niwas Scheme seen in news in April 2025 is related to which of the following?

  1. (a) Mission Shakti
  2. (b) Mission Vatsalya
  3. (c) Mission Durga
  4. (d) Mission Laxmi
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mission Shakti

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Mission Shakti
The Sakhi Niwas Scheme is a sub-scheme under Mission Shakti — the umbrella scheme for women empowerment by the Ministry of Women and Child Development. Sakhi Niwas provides working women's hostels (safe and affordable accommodation) to employed women in urban and semi-urban areas.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Mission Vatsalya): Mission Vatsalya focuses on child protection and welfare; Sakhi Niwas is for working women.
Option 3 (Mission Durga): This is not a central government scheme under which Sakhi Niwas falls.
Option 4 (Mission Laxmi): This is not an existing central umbrella scheme under which Sakhi Niwas is classified.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q14. Why is the low level of foreign exchange reserves a critical problem for India?

  1. (a) It means India is a lucrative place for investment.
  2. (b) It means India couldn't print money in future.
  3. (c) It means foreign citizens couldn't travel abroad.
  4. (d) It means India could barely afford to pay for essential imports for a very short time.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) It means India could barely afford to pay for essential imports for a very short time.

Correct Answer: Option 4 – It means India could barely afford to pay for essential imports for a very short time.
Foreign exchange reserves are used to pay for essential imports (oil, machinery, medicines, etc.). When reserves fall critically low, India's import-paying capacity collapses — as seen during the 1991 BoP crisis when India had foreign exchange for less than 2 weeks of imports. This creates an economic emergency.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1: Low forex reserves mean investors are pulling out, not that India is lucrative for investment.
Option 2: India can print its own currency (Rupees) regardless of forex reserves; the two are different.
Option 3: Foreign citizens' travel abroad is not directly impacted by India's forex reserve levels.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Revenue and capital receipts and expenditure

Q15. Which of the following statement is correct regarding money received by the government from loans and the sale of its own assets?

  1. (a) Loans create liability but sale of asset do not
  2. (b) Sale of asset create liability but loans do not
  3. (c) Loans are part of revenue receipts and sale of assets are part of capital receipts
  4. (d) Loans and sale of assets both do not reduces or increases the total amount of government financial assets
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Loans create liability but sale of asset do not

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Loans create liability but sale of asset do not
When the government borrows money (loans), it creates a liability — the government must repay the loan with interest. However, when the government sells its assets (like disinvestment of PSUs), it receives money but does NOT create a new liability — it simply converts one asset (shares/property) into cash.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2: Incorrect; it is loans (not asset sales) that create liabilities.
Option 3: Loans are capital receipts (not revenue receipts); both loans and asset sales are capital receipts.
Option 4: Incorrect; loans increase liabilities and asset sales reduce assets — both affect the financial position.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q16. On whose ideas was the second five year plan based?

  1. (a) Chaudhari Charan Singh
  2. (b) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
  3. (c) K Kamraj
  4. (d) Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis
The Second Five Year Plan (1956–1961) was based on the Mahalanobis Model, developed by Prof. Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis, the founder of the Indian Statistical Institute. The model emphasised rapid industrialisation through heavy and capital goods industries, with the goal of establishing a self-sufficient industrial base for India.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Chaudhari Charan Singh): He was an agricultural economist and PM; not the architect of the Second Plan.
Option 2 (Sardar Patel): He was the Deputy PM and Home Minister; he passed away in 1950 before the Second Plan.
Option 3 (K Kamraj): He was a Congress leader from Tamil Nadu; not associated with Five Year Plan formulation.
Industry and Infrastructure · Industrial Policy Resolutions (1948, 1956, 1991)

Q17. Which of the following was the focus of the Industrial Policy Statement, 1991?
I. Allowing foreign investment by lowering controls and regulations
II. Exit policy for the sick units in private sector for a smooth exit without affecting welfare of labour

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Both I and II
The Industrial Policy Statement of 1991 focused on both areas:
I. Liberalising foreign investment: FDI was allowed in many sectors; automatic approval was permitted up to 51% equity in priority sectors.
II. Exit policy for sick units: The policy addressed the need for a smooth exit mechanism for loss-making private units without harming labour welfare.
Both were key elements of the 1991 LPG ( Liberalisation , Privatisation , Globalisation ) reforms.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Only I): Exit policy (II) was also a stated focus of the 1991 Industrial Policy.
Option 2 (Only II): Foreign investment liberalisation (I) was equally central.
Option 4 (Neither I nor II): Both were explicitly part of the 1991 policy statement.

Current Affairs (1)

Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q18. What was the total medal count for Tamil Nadu at the National Games 2025?

  1. (a) 92
  2. (b) 68
  3. (c) 85
  4. (d) 81
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 92

Correct Answer: Option 1 – 92
Tamil Nadu won a total of 92 medals at the National Games 2025 held in Uttarakhand, making it one of the top-performing states in the games. Tamil Nadu has a strong sporting tradition and consistently performs well in national multi-sport events.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (68): This was not Tamil Nadu's medal tally at the 2025 National Games.
Option 3 (85): Incorrect; Tamil Nadu's total was 92 medals.
Option 4 (81): Incorrect; this figure does not match Tamil Nadu's actual medal count.

Geography (4)

India - Drainage System · West-flowing rivers

Q19. The endangered black collared yellow catfish found in Chalakudy river. This river is in _____.

  1. (a) Kerala
  2. (b) Gujarat
  3. (c) Maharashtra
  4. (d) Haryana
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Kerala

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Kerala
The Chalakudy River is located in Kerala. It is one of the most biodiverse rivers in peninsular India and flows through the Thrissur and Ernakulam districts of Kerala before joining the Arabian Sea. The endangered black collared yellow catfish ( Horabagrus nigricollaris ) is endemic to this river.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Gujarat): Chalakudy river is not in Gujarat; it is in Kerala.
Option 3 (Maharashtra): Incorrect; the Chalakudy river flows through the Western Ghats of Kerala.
Option 4 (Haryana): Haryana is a landlocked state in North India; the Chalakudy river is in South India.
Environment and Protected Areas · Wildlife sanctuaries

Q20. In March 2025, Prime Minister of India announced that cheetah introduction will be expanded to Gandhisagar Sanctuary, which is in _____.

  1. (a) Madhya Pradesh
  2. (b) Gujarat
  3. (c) Maharashtra
  4. (d) Kerala
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Madhya Pradesh

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Madhya Pradesh
Gandhisagar Sanctuary is located in Mandsaur and Neemuch districts of Madhya Pradesh. In March 2025, Prime Minister Modi announced the expansion of India's cheetah reintroduction programme to Gandhisagar Sanctuary, following the success at Kuno National Park (also in MP). Gandhisagar is being prepared as the second cheetah habitat in India.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Gujarat): Gujarat does not have Gandhisagar Sanctuary; it has Gir National Park (lions).
Option 3 (Maharashtra): Gandhisagar Sanctuary is not in Maharashtra.
Option 4 (Kerala): Kerala does not have Gandhisagar Sanctuary.
India - Transport and Communication · Roadways and National Highways

Q21. The national highways in India constitute only about _____ of the total road length but carry almost 40% of the road traffic.

  1. (a) 2%
  2. (b) 8%
  3. (c) 12%
  4. (d) 18%
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 2%

Correct Answer: Option 1 – 2%
National highways in India constitute only about 2% of the total road network (by length), yet they carry approximately 40% of the total road traffic. This reflects the disproportionate load-bearing capacity of national highways due to their connectivity between major cities and regions.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (8%): Incorrect; national highways form only about 2% of total road length.
Option 3 (12%): Too high; the actual figure is approximately 2%.
Option 4 (18%): Incorrect; this figure does not represent the share of national highways.
India - Population and Census · Human settlements - rural and urban types

Q22. Which of the following is NOT a type of rural settlements?
I. Hamleted
II. Dispersed

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Neither I nor II

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Neither I nor II
Both Hamleted (I) and Dispersed (II) ARE recognised types of rural settlements in Geography:
Hamleted (Semi-nucleated): A settlement split into several small clusters/hamlets, often due to social or topographical reasons.
Dispersed (Scattered): Settlements where houses are spread widely apart, often found in hilly or forested areas.
Since both I and II are genuine types of rural settlements, neither of them is 'NOT a type' — hence the answer is Neither I nor II.
Why other options are wrong:
Options 1, 2, 3 all wrongly exclude one or both as types — but both Hamleted and Dispersed are valid, recognised categories.

Physics (2)

Gravitation · Satellites, orbital velocity and escape velocity

Q23. At 800 km, a satellite in Sun Synchronous Orbit will travel at a speed of approximately _____ km per second.

  1. (a) 1.5
  2. (b) 15
  3. (c) 22.5
  4. (d) 7.5
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 7.5

Correct Answer: Option 4 – 7.5
At an altitude of 800 km, a satellite in Sun Synchronous Orbit (SSO) travels at approximately 7.5 km per second. Using the orbital velocity formula v = sqrt(GM/r), where r = Earth's radius (6371 km) + 800 km = 7171 km: v ≈ sqrt(3.986×10^14 / 7,171,000) ≈ 7,453 m/s ≈ 7.5 km/s.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (1.5 km/s): Too slow; only deep space probes travel this slowly at large distances.
Option 2 (15 km/s): Too fast for LEO; this speed is associated with escape velocity contexts.
Option 3 (22.5 km/s): Incorrect; the candidate incorrectly selected this. 22.5 km/s far exceeds orbital velocity.
Work, Energy and Power · Numericals on work, energy and power

Q24. A force of 10 N acts on an object. The object is displaced by 2 metres in the direction of the force. The force acts on the object all through the displacement. What is the work done?

  1. (a) 5 J
  2. (b) 10 J
  3. (c) 15 J
  4. (d) 20 J
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 20 J

Correct Answer: Option 4 – 20 J
Work Done = Force × Displacement × cos(theta)
Since force and displacement are in the same direction, theta = 0 degrees, cos(0) = 1.
Work Done = 10 N × 2 m × 1 = 20 J
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (5 J): This would result if Force × Displacement = 5, which is incorrect.
Option 2 (10 J): This would be Force × Displacement only if one value were halved.
Option 3 (15 J): Incorrect; Work = F × d = 10 × 2 = 20 J, not 15 J.

Biology (1)

Q25. What are the end products of pyruvate during fermentation process?

  1. (a) Ethanol and carbon dioxide
  2. (b) Methanol and nitrogen
  3. (c) Methanol and hydrogen
  4. (d) Glucose and helium
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ethanol and carbon dioxide

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Ethanol and carbon dioxide
During fermentation (anaerobic respiration in yeast and some bacteria), pyruvate is converted into Ethanol (alcohol) and Carbon Dioxide. The reaction is: Pyruvate → Ethanol + CO2 ( catalysed by enzymes pyruvate decarboxylase and alcohol dehydrogenase). This process is used in brewing, baking, and biofuel production.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Methanol and nitrogen): Methanol is not produced in pyruvate fermentation; nitrogen is not a product.
Option 3 (Methanol and hydrogen): Incorrect; fermentation produces ethanol, not methanol.
Option 4 (Glucose and helium): Glucose is the starting material (substrate) of glycolysis, not a product; helium is an inert gas with no role in fermentation.
← 30 November 2025 Shift 2All shifts
📥 PDF of this paper (all subjects, English & Hindi): SSC CHSL Tier-1 previous year papers PDF · ▶ Attempt previous year papers as free online tests · 🏆 Free live mock tests · 📰 Daily current affairs quiz