SSC GD 2026 26 May 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Mini Constitution (Laghu Samvidhan ) — Option (a)
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 is popularly called the 'Mini Constitution' (Laghu Samvidhan ) because of its sweeping and comprehensive changes to the Constitution. About the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, 1976: Passed during: The Emergency period (1975-1977) under PM Indira Gandhi; Also called: 'Mini Constitution' because it made the most extensive changes to the Constitution in Indian history; Major changes introduced: Preamble amended: The words 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity' were added; 'Socialist Secular Democratic Republic' and 'Unity and Integrity' replaced earlier text; Fundamental Duties added: Part IVA (Article 51A) was inserted with 10 Fundamental Duties; Directive Principles given primacy: Made Directive Principles superior to Fundamental Rights (Articles 31C expanded); Parliamentary supremacy: Constitutional amendments were made non-justiciable (courts cannot question them); Duration of Parliament and State Legislatures: Extended from 5 to 6 years; Preventive detention laws strengthened; Three new Directive Principles added (Articles 39A, 43A, 48A); Tribunals (Articles 323A and 323B) introduced for administrative and other disputes; Anti-defection law provisions (though later formalized by 52nd Amendment); The 43rd and 44th Constitutional Amendments (1977-78) partially reversed many changes of the 42nd Amendment after the Emergency ended.
Option (b) Federal Amendment — Incorrect: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment is NOT called the 'Federal Amendment'; it is known as the 'Mini Constitution' due to the extensive nature of its changes to the Constitution; no major amendment is specifically called the 'Federal Amendment.'
Option (c) Panchayati Raj Amendment — Incorrect: The amendment specifically related to Panchayati Raj is the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 — NOT the 42nd Amendment; the 42nd Amendment (1976) is called the 'Mini Constitution.'
Option (d) Fundamental Rights Amendment — Incorrect: While the 42nd Amendment did affect Fundamental Rights (by giving primacy to Directive Principles over FR), it is NOT called the 'Fundamental Rights Amendment'; its popular name is 'Mini Constitution' due to its comprehensive and sweeping changes. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: Article 343 — Option (b)
Article 343 of the Indian Constitution declares Hindi in Devanagari script as the Official Language of the Union. About Article 343: Article 343(1): 'The official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script.' 'The form of numerals to be used for the official purposes of the Union shall be the international form of Indian numerals.'; Article 343(2): Notwithstanding anything in clause (1), for a period of fifteen years from the commencement of the Constitution (i.e., up to 1965), the English language shall continue to be used for all official purposes of the Union for which it was being used before the Constitution; Article 343(3): Notwithstanding anything in this article, Parliament may by law provide for the use of the English language or the Devanagari form of numerals, for such purposes as may be specified in the law; Important development: The Official Languages Act, 1963 was passed to continue the use of English even after 1965; This effectively meant both Hindi and English continue as official languages of the Union; About related Articles in Part XVII (Official Language): Article 343: Official language of the Union (Hindi); Article 344: Commission and Committee of Parliament on Official Language; Article 345: Official language or languages of a State; Article 346: Official language for communication between states and between state and Union; Article 347: Special provision relating to language spoken by a section of population of a State; Article 348: Language to be used in SC and HCs and for Acts, Bills; Article 350: Language to be used for grievances; Article 351: Directive for development of Hindi language.
Option (a) Article 341 — Incorrect: Article 341 deals with 'Scheduled Castes' — the President is authorized to specify which castes/races/tribes shall be Scheduled Castes for each state; it has nothing to do with Official Language.
Option (c) Article 344 — Incorrect: Article 344 establishes a Commission and Committee of Parliament on Official Language to review progress in the use of Hindi for official purposes — it is about the IMPLEMENTATION mechanism for official language, not the declaration of the official language itself (which is Article 343).
Option (d) Article 339 — Incorrect: Article 339 relates to control of the Union over the administration of Scheduled Areas and the welfare of Scheduled Tribes — it has no connection to Official Language; the correct article for the Official Language of the Union is Article 343.

Correct Answer: Article 213 — Option (a)
Article 213 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Governor's power to promulgate Ordinances when the State Legislature is not in session. About Article 213: Heading: 'Power of Governor to promulgate Ordinances during recess of Legislature'; Conditions for promulgating an Ordinance: The Legislature (either or both Houses of State Legislature) is NOT in session; The Governor is satisfied that circumstances exist that require immediate action; Governor's satisfaction: The decision is at the discretion of the Governor (acting on advice of the Council of Ministers); Duration of Ordinance: An ordinance must be laid before the Legislature when it reassembles; It ceases to operate at the expiry of 6 weeks from the reassembly of the Legislature; OR if both Houses pass resolutions disapproving it, it ceases before 6 weeks; Limitation: Governor cannot promulgate an ordinance without instructions from the President if: The same matter would require prior sanction of the President if it were a Bill; A Bill containing the same provisions would be deemed to reserve for consideration of the President; About the parallel at the Centre: Article 123: Power of the President to promulgate Ordinances during recess of Parliament (Centre-level equivalent); About other Articles: Article 208: Rules of Procedure — Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in State Legislatures; Article 210: Language to be used in the Legislature — business in Parliament/State Legislature to be transacted in Hindi or English or native language; Article 211: Restriction on discussion in Legislature — prohibition on discussion in State Legislature regarding conduct of Judges of HC and SC; Article 213: Governor's ordinance-making power ← CORRECT.
Option (b) Article 211 — Incorrect: Article 211 restricts discussion in the State Legislature regarding the conduct of judges of the Supreme Court or High Court; it has nothing to do with the Governor's power to promulgate Ordinances; the correct article is 213.
Option (c) Article 210 — Incorrect: Article 210 deals with the language to be used in the Legislature — it allows business to be conducted in Hindi, English, or the official language of the state; it has no relation to the Governor's ordinance-making power.
Option (d) Article 208 — Incorrect: Article 208 deals with the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Houses of State Legislature; it empowers each House to make rules for regulating its procedure — it has no connection to the Governor's power to promulgate Ordinances, which is governed by Article 213.

Correct Answer: Air resistance — Option (b)
A sheet of paper falls more slowly than a stone in air due to air resistance (drag force). About Air Resistance and Falling Objects: Newton's Law of Gravitation: Both the stone and paper are pulled toward Earth by gravity with the same gravitational acceleration g ≈ 9.8 m/s² (since gravitational acceleration is independent of mass); In vacuum: Both a stone and a paper sheet would fall at the SAME rate and reach the ground simultaneously — this was famously demonstrated by Galileo and later by Apollo 15 astronauts (who dropped a feather and a hammer on the Moon — they landed simultaneously); In air: The paper falls more slowly because: Air resistance (drag force) depends on: Surface area (larger area = more air resistance), Shape of the object, Velocity of the object; A paper sheet has a LARGE surface area relative to its mass; A stone has a SMALL surface area relative to its mass; The paper experiences proportionally much more air resistance compared to its weight (gravitational force), so it falls more slowly; Key distinction: The question asks about falling in AIR — the air resistance is the determining factor; Mass difference (Option a): Both stone and paper have different masses, but this alone doesn't explain the different falling speeds — a heavy paper and a light paper both fall slowly; Difference in size/shape (Option c): Shape affects air resistance, but the root cause is AIR RESISTANCE — shape is a secondary factor that determines HOW MUCH air resistance acts; the correct answer is 'air resistance' as the causal factor; Gravitational difference (Option d): Gravity acts equally on all objects — there is NO gravitational difference for objects near Earth's surface.
Option (a) Mass difference — Incorrect: In a vacuum, objects of different masses fall at the same rate — this proves mass difference alone does NOT cause different falling speeds; it is air resistance that causes the paper to fall more slowly than the stone in air.
Option (c) Difference in size/shape — Incorrect: While the paper's large flat shape contributes to higher air resistance, the ROOT CAUSE of the slower fall is air resistance itself — shape is what determines the magnitude of air resistance, but 'air resistance' is the correct causal factor. The candidate selected this option but 'air resistance' is more precisely correct.
Option (d) Gravitational difference — Incorrect: Gravitational acceleration (g) is the same for all objects near Earth's surface regardless of their mass or composition — there is NO gravitational difference between a stone and a paper; the correct answer is air resistance, which acts differently on them due to their different surface area-to-mass ratios.

Correct Answer: PE = mgh , KE = 0 — Option (b)
At the very beginning of free fall (the instant of release from rest at height h), PE = mgh and KE = 0. About Energy in Free Fall: At the moment of release (start of free fall): The object is at rest (velocity v = 0) at height h; Potential Energy (PE) = mgh (maximum — object is at maximum height); Kinetic Energy (KE) = ½mv² = ½m(0)² = 0 (velocity is zero); Total Mechanical Energy = PE + KE = mgh + 0 = mgh ; During the fall (at intermediate height h'): PE = mgh ' (decreasing as height decreases); KE = mg(h - h') (increasing as speed increases); Total = mgh (conserved — Law of Conservation of Energy); At the ground (just before hitting ground, h = 0): PE = mg(0) = 0 (minimum); KE = mgh (maximum — all PE converted to KE); Velocity at ground = √(2gh); Total = mgh (still conserved); Summary of energy transformation in free fall: Start: PE = max ( mgh ), KE = min (0); During fall: PE decreases, KE increases; End (ground): PE = 0, KE = max ( mgh ); This is the Law of Conservation of Mechanical Energy — total energy (PE + KE) remains constant = mgh throughout the fall (ignoring air resistance); Example: A ball of 1 kg dropped from 10 m: PE = 1 × 10 × 10 = 100 J at start, KE = 0; At 5 m height: PE = 50 J, KE = 50 J; At ground: PE = 0, KE = 100 J.
Option (a) PE = 0, KE = mgh — Incorrect: This describes the situation at the GROUND (at the END of free fall, just before impact) — NOT at the beginning; at the start of free fall, the object is at maximum height h with PE = mgh and since velocity = 0, KE = 0.
Option (c) PE = ½mv², KE = mgh — Incorrect: This is a meaningless combination — PE (Potential Energy) is mgh (not ½mv²); ½mv² is the formula for KE; at the start of free fall, PE = mgh and KE = 0 (not mgh ); this option confuses the formulas.
Option (d) Both KE and PE = 0 — Incorrect: If both KE and PE were zero at the start of free fall, that would mean the object is at zero height AND has zero velocity — this is impossible for an object at height h; at the start, PE = mgh (non-zero since h ≠ 0) and KE = 0 (since velocity = 0). The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: The Moon takes the same time to orbit Earth as it takes to complete one rotation on its axis — Option (b)
We always see the same side of the Moon because the Moon's rotational period equals its orbital period — this is called synchronous rotation or tidal locking. About Synchronous Rotation (Tidal Locking): Orbital period of Moon around Earth: approximately 27.3 days (sidereal month); Rotational period of Moon on its axis: approximately 27.3 days; Since both periods are EQUAL, the same face of the Moon always faces Earth; This phenomenon is called 'Synchronous Rotation' or 'Tidal Locking'; How tidal locking occurred: Earth's gravitational pull created tidal forces on the Moon; These tidal forces gradually slowed the Moon's rotation over billions of years; Eventually, the Moon's rotation synchronized with its orbital period — this is now the stable configuration; The near side vs the far side: Near side (facing Earth): Always visible from Earth; explored by many landers including Apollo missions; Far side (facing away): Never visible from Earth; first photographed by Soviet Luna 3 (1959); first landing by China's Chang'e-4 (2019); Key facts: The Moon does not completely hide its far side — it wobbles slightly ( libration ), so about 59% of the Moon's surface is visible over time; Libration is caused by: the elliptical shape of Moon's orbit, tilt of Moon's axis, and Earth's position in Moon's orbit.
Option (a) The Moon does not rotate on its own axis — Incorrect: This is a common misconception; the Moon DOES rotate on its own axis — it completes one full rotation approximately every 27.3 days; the reason we see the same face is that this rotation period equals its orbital period (synchronous rotation), NOT that it doesn't rotate.
Option (c) Earth's rotation cancels out the Moon's rotation — Incorrect: Earth's rotation does NOT cancel the Moon's rotation; they are independent; the reason we always see the same face of the Moon is synchronous rotation — the Moon's rotational period equals its orbital period due to tidal locking by Earth's gravity.
Option (d) The Moon is tidally locked with the Sun — Incorrect: The Moon is NOT tidally locked with the Sun — it is tidally locked with EARTH; the Sun's tidal effect on the Moon is much weaker than Earth's; the synchronous rotation of the Moon is due to Earth's gravitational tidal forces, not the Sun's.

Correct Answer: Both I and II — Option (c)
Both ocean currents (Statement I) and relief features/topography (Statement II) control the climate of a place. About Climate Controls: Climate is the average weather conditions of a place over a long period (30 years). Climate is controlled by multiple factors: Statement I — Ocean Currents: Ocean currents significantly influence climate; Warm currents (e.g., Gulf Stream, North Atlantic Drift): Moderate the climate of coastal regions; Make coastal areas warmer than their latitude would suggest; Increase humidity and precipitation; Cold currents (e.g., Labrador Current, Benguela Current, California Current): Make coastal regions cooler and drier; Contribute to fog formation; Examples: British Isles have mild climate due to North Atlantic Drift (warm current); Peru coast is dry despite being tropical — due to cold Humboldt/Peru Current; Western coast of continents in tropics are dry due to cold currents; Statement II — Relief Features (Topography): Mountains, hills, and topographic features profoundly affect climate; Altitude: Temperature decreases with altitude (6.5°C per 1000 m on average); Height creates cooler climates — mountains are cooler than plains; Orographic Rainfall: Windward slopes receive heavy rainfall (moist air rises, cools, condenses); Leeward slopes are in 'rain shadow' — dry conditions; e.g., Western Ghats — Windward side (Kerala/coastal Karnataka) gets heavy rainfall; Leeward side (Deccan Plateau) is relatively dry; Barrier effect: Mountains act as barriers to winds; Himalayas prevent cold Arctic winds from entering India; Himalayan barrier keeps South Asian climate warmer than it would otherwise be.
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: Ocean currents DO control climate (Statement I is correct), but Relief features (Statement II) also significantly control climate through altitude effects, orographic rainfall, and barrier effects — it is incorrect to say 'Only I'; both I and II are climate controls. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: Relief features DO control climate (Statement II is correct), but ocean currents (Statement I) also significantly control coastal climate through their warming or cooling effects — it is incorrect to say 'Only II'; both I and II are climate controls.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: BOTH ocean currents AND relief features are well-established and significant climate controls; neither can be excluded from the list of factors controlling a place's climate; the correct answer is 'Both I and II.'

Correct Answer: Regional navigation — Option (c)
NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation) is ISRO's regional satellite navigation system designed to provide accurate positioning and timing services. About NavIC : Full name: Navigation with Indian Constellation; Also known as: IRNSS (Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System) — the earlier name; Developed by: ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation ); Type: Regional Satellite Navigation System — India's own version of GPS; Coverage: India and a region extending approximately 1,500 km around India (covering the Indian subcontinent and surrounding ocean areas); Purpose: To provide accurate real-time positioning (latitude, longitude, altitude) and timing services; Applications: Navigation for all types of vehicles (road, rail, air, maritime), Terrestrial, aerial, and marine navigation, Visual and voice navigation for drivers, Tracking of vehicles and fleet management, Mapping and geodetic data capture, Search and rescue operations, Precision timing for telecom networks, Support for disaster management; Constellation: NavIC consists of 7 operational satellites: 3 in Geostationary orbit (GEO) and 4 in Geosynchronous Inclined orbit (IGSO); Navigation signals: Operates on two frequency bands — L5 and S band; Provides: Standard Positioning Service (SPS) — for civilian use; Restricted Service (RS) — for strategic/authorized users; Comparison with other navigation systems: GPS (USA) — Global; GLONASS (Russia) — Global; Galileo (Europe) — Global; BeiDou (China) — Global; QZSS (Japan) — Regional; NavIC (India) — Regional; NavIC is India's own independent navigation system, reducing dependence on foreign GPS systems.
Option (a) Weather forecasting — Incorrect: Weather forecasting uses meteorological satellites (like ISRO's INSAT/METSAT series, e.g., Kalpana-1, INSAT-3D) — NOT NavIC ; NavIC satellites are specifically designed for navigation and positioning, not weather data collection.
Option (b) Earth imaging — Incorrect: Earth imaging (remote sensing) is performed by ISRO's earth observation satellites like RESOURCESAT, CARTOSAT, RISAT series — NOT NavIC ; NavIC's purpose is regional satellite navigation, not imaging.
Option (d) Space communication — Incorrect: Space communication is served by ISRO's GSAT series of communication satellites — NOT NavIC ; NavIC is specifically a navigation satellite system providing positioning and timing services, not communication. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: 15 minutes per half — Option (b)
The standard duration of a women's kabaddi match is 15 minutes per half (total playing time of 30 minutes). About Kabaddi Match Duration: Women's Kabaddi: 15 minutes per half + 5-minute half-time break = Total 30 minutes of play; Men's/Senior Kabaddi: 20 minutes per half + 5-minute half-time break = Total 40 minutes of play; Sub-junior (Boys and Girls, below 14 years): 10 minutes per half; Junior (Boys, below 18): 15 minutes per half; Junior (Girls, below 18): 15 minutes per half; About Kabaddi rules: Teams: 12 players per team, 7 on court at a time; Raid: A raider crosses the midline into the opponents' half, tags as many defenders as possible, and returns while chanting 'kabaddi kabaddi '; Tackle: Defenders try to stop the raider from returning; Points: Each tagged defender gives a point to the raiding team; Each tackled raider gives a point to the defending team; Can't-Out rule: If a raider doesn't return to their half before taking a breath, they are out; Empty raid: No point scored by raider or defense; Super raid: Raider scores 3 or more points in one raid; Governing body: Amateur Kabaddi Federation of India (AKFI) for national; Asian Kabaddi Federation for Asian level; International Kabaddi Federation for world level; Kabaddi in Olympics: Not yet part of Olympic Games; Kabaddi was a demonstration sport at the 1936 Berlin Olympics; Kabaddi has been part of the Asian Games since 1990.
Option (a) 20 minutes per half — Incorrect: 20 minutes per half is the duration for MEN's (senior) kabaddi matches — NOT women's; women's kabaddi matches have a standard duration of 15 minutes per half.
Option (c) 25 minutes per half — Incorrect: 25 minutes per half is NOT a standard duration for any category of kabaddi match; women's kabaddi is 15 minutes per half and men's is 20 minutes per half.
Option (d) 30 minutes per half — Incorrect: 30 minutes per half is NOT the standard duration for women's kabaddi; the total playing time for a women's match is 30 minutes (15 minutes each half), not 30 minutes per half.

Correct Answer: Kerala — Option (b)
Kathakali is a classical dance-drama form that originates from Kerala. About Kathakali: Origin: Kerala (South India); Type: Classical dance-drama (storytelling through dance); UNESCO recognition: Kathakali is one of India's most recognized classical art forms internationally; Characteristics: Elaborate and colorful makeup ( Chutti ) using rice paste and natural colors; Elaborate costumes with large headgear ( Kireetam ); Stylized gestures (Mudras) — highly codified hand and facial gestures from Hastha Lakshanadeepika; Themes: Episodes from Ramayana, Mahabharata, and Puranas — particularly stories of deities and demons; Characters: Main character types: Pachcha (heroes/noble characters — green face), Kathi (villains — green with knife marks), Kari (demonesses — black), Thaadi (various types), Minukku (women/sages — no elaborate makeup); Performance: Traditionally performed outdoors at night, illuminated by the Chukku vilakku (coconut oil lamp); Performances last all night; Stories are sung by vocalists while dancers express through gesture and movement; Training: Intense 8-10 year rigorous training; Kerala Kalamandalam (a deemed university) is the premier institution for Kathakali; About the eight major classical dances of India (Sangeet Natak Akademi recognized): Bharatanatyam (Tamil Nadu), Kathak (UP/North India), Kathakali (Kerala), Kuchipudi (Andhra Pradesh/Telangana), Odissi (Odisha), Manipuri (Manipur), Mohiniyattam (Kerala), Sattriya (Assam).
Option (a) Sikkim — Incorrect: Sikkim's traditional dance forms include Mask dances (Cham dances), Maruni, and Singhi Chham — Kathakali is NOT from Sikkim; Kathakali is the classical dance-drama of Kerala.
Option (c) Maharashtra — Incorrect: Maharashtra's classical and folk art forms include Lavani, Tamasha, and Powada — Kathakali is NOT from Maharashtra; it originates from Kerala in South India.
Option (d) Gujarat — Incorrect: Gujarat's traditional dance forms include Garba, Dandiya Raas, and Tippani — Kathakali is NOT from Gujarat; it is the classical dance-drama of Kerala known for its elaborate costumes and makeup.

Correct Answer: Kerala — Option (a)
Krishnanattam is a classical dance-drama form native to Kerala that depicts the life of Lord Krishna. About Krishnanattam : Origin: Kerala; Created by: Manaveda (also spelled Manavedan ) — the Zamorin (Raja) of Kozhikode (Calicut) in the 17th century (around 1654); Name meaning: 'Krishnan' = Lord Krishna; 'Attam' = dance/play; so Krishnanattam = 'Dance of Krishna'; Content: The entire cycle consists of 8 performances ( Krishnanattam cycle) depicting the life of Lord Krishna from his birth to ascension to heaven; The eight performances are: Avataram (birth of Krishna), Kaliya Mardanam (Krishna subduing the snake Kaliya), Rasa Krida (the Rasa Lila dance with Gopis), Kamsavadham (killing of Kansa), Swayamvaram (Krishna's marriage), Bana Yuddham (war with Banasura), Vivahham (another marriage narrative), Swargarohanam (ascension to heaven); Venue: Krishnanattam is traditionally performed ONLY at the Guruvayur Sri Krishna Temple in Thrissur district, Kerala; It is never performed outside the temple — making it unique among classical arts; Characteristics: Unique circular costumes (with wide circular skirts); Elaborate facial makeup similar to Kathakali; Performed only by male artists (traditionally); Accompanied by traditional music; Connection to Kathakali: Krishnanattam is considered the precursor/inspiration for Kathakali — Kathakali's founder Manavedan's style influenced later evolution of Kathakali by Kottarakkara Thampuran.
Option (b) Telangana — Incorrect: Telangana's classical and folk art forms include Kuchipudi (shared with Andhra Pradesh), Perini Thandavam, Lambadi dance — Krishnanattam is NOT from Telangana; it is a classical dance-drama form exclusive to Kerala.
Option (c) Tamil Nadu — Incorrect: Tamil Nadu's classical art is Bharatanatyam (along with folk arts like Karagattam , Kolattam , Kummi ) — Krishnanattam is NOT from Tamil Nadu; it is Kerala's unique dance-drama performed exclusively at the Guruvayur temple.
Option (d) Haryana — Incorrect: Haryana's folk dance forms include Phag , Dhamal , Jhumar, and Saang — Krishnanattam is NOT from Haryana; it is a classical Keralite art form depicting the life of Lord Krishna, performed at the Guruvayur Sri Krishna Temple.

Correct Answer: Turhi — Option (a)
Turhi ( तुरही ) is the traditional Rajasthani musical instrument described — a long bronze trumpet made in two parts with a funnel-shaped mouth. About Turhi : Type: Wind instrument (aerophone) — a brass/bronze trumpet; Construction: Long, made in two separable parts for portability; Mouth: Funnel-shaped (wide bell/flare at the end); Material: Bronze (Kansa — an alloy of copper and tin); Played by: Lips vibrating at the mouthpiece while air is blown through; Sound: Loud, powerful, ceremonial sound; Used for: Royal ceremonial occasions in Rajasthan, religious festivals, processions, weddings, royal durbar occasions; Historical use: Used in royal courts of Rajputana to announce the arrival of royalty; Sounded during battle charges and royal ceremonies; About other Rajasthani instruments: Shehnai: A double-reed woodwind instrument (oboe-type); Pung/Nagara: Large kettledrums; Dhol : Double-headed cylindrical drum; Algoza : Double flute played simultaneously; Morchang (Jew's harp): Small metal instrument played with mouth and finger; Rawanhattha : Bowed string instrument, claimed to be oldest such instrument; About other options: Timki : A small earthen pot-drum used in folk music; Sarod: A North Indian classical string instrument (plucked) — NOT a Rajasthani trumpet; Santoor: A 100-string hammered dulcimer associated with Kashmiri classical music — NOT a Rajasthani trumpet.
Option (b) Timki — Incorrect: Timki is a small earthen pot-drum (membranophone) — it is a percussion instrument played with hands; it is NOT a long bronze trumpet with a funnel-shaped mouth; the correct answer is Turhi .
Option (c) Sarod — Incorrect: The Sarod is a North Indian classical string instrument — it is a plucked instrument with a metal fingerboard and goat-skin resonating membrane; it has no resemblance to a bronze trumpet; it is associated with Hindustani classical music, not a Rajasthani ceremonial trumpet. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Santoor — Incorrect: The Santoor is a 100-string hammered dulcimer (chordophone) associated with Kashmiri folk and classical music; it is played with wooden mallets striking strings over a trapezoidal body; it is NOT a Rajasthani bronze trumpet; Turhi is the correct answer.

Correct Answer: Western — Option (a)
Kabaddi is mainly known as 'Hu-Tu-Tu' in Western India. About Regional Names of Kabaddi: Western India (Maharashtra, Goa): 'Hu-Tu-Tu' ( हू - तू - तू ) — the most well-known alternative name; Eastern India (Bengal, Bangladesh): ' Hadudu ' ( हा - डु - डु ) — especially in Bangladesh, it's the national game called ' Hadudu '; Southern India: ' Chedugudu ' (in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana); ' Sadugudu ' (in Tamil Nadu); Northern India (Punjab): Simply 'Kabaddi'; The national game is now uniformly called 'Kabaddi'; About Kabaddi's regional history: Kabaddi originated in ancient India and has been played for thousands of years; Different regions developed their own versions and names; The game spread across South Asia with different names in different languages/regions; About Kabaddi in sports history: Bangladesh national sport: Kabaddi (called Hadudu ); India at Asian Games: Kabaddi was part of the Asian Games from 1990 (Beijing); Indian men's team has won gold medals at every Asian Games where Kabaddi has been played (1990, 1994, 1998, 2002, 2006, 2010, 2014); Indian women's kabaddi team has also dominated at the Asian Games; Pro Kabaddi League: Launched in 2014 in India; one of the most-watched sports leagues; Made Kabaddi hugely popular across India; International Kabaddi Federation (IKF): Governing body for international kabaddi.
Option (b) Eastern — Incorrect: Kabaddi is known as ' Hadudu ' (not 'Hu-Tu-Tu') in Eastern India and Bangladesh — 'Hu-Tu-Tu' is the name used in Western India (Maharashtra); the candidate must not confuse the eastern name ' Hadudu ' with the western name 'Hu-Tu-Tu.'
Option (c) Southern — Incorrect: Kabaddi is known as ' Chedugudu ' or ' Sadugudu ' in Southern India (Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu) — NOT as 'Hu-Tu-Tu'; the name 'Hu-Tu-Tu' specifically belongs to Western India (Maharashtra region). The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (d) Northern — Incorrect: In Northern India (Punjab, Haryana, UP), the game is simply called 'Kabaddi' — it is NOT known as 'Hu-Tu-Tu' in the north; the name 'Hu-Tu-Tu' is associated with Western India (Maharashtra and surrounding areas).

Correct Answer: Gulf War and rising oil prices — Option (b)
The Gulf War (1990-91) and the consequent rise in global oil prices were the key external events that worsened India's Balance of Payments crisis in the early 1990s. About India's 1991 BoP Crisis and the Gulf War Connection: Background — India's pre-crisis vulnerabilities: India had been running large fiscal deficits through the 1980s; Increasing external borrowings; Import-dependent economy (especially for oil); Large trade deficits; Gulf War impact on India (1990-91): Oil price surge: When Iraq invaded Kuwait in August 1990, global oil prices nearly DOUBLED (from ~$17 per barrel to ~$32+ per barrel); India imported about 70-80% of its crude oil needs — this dramatically increased India's oil import bill; Remittances dried up: About 1 million Indian workers were employed in Kuwait and Iraq; the Gulf War forced mass evacuation of these workers; India lost substantial remittances from these workers; Export markets disrupted: Trade with Gulf countries collapsed; Confidence crisis: Foreign investors and creditors became nervous about India's ability to repay debts; Combined effect: India's forex reserves fell from about $3 billion in August 1990 to just $1.2 billion by January 1991 — barely 3 weeks of import cover; India had to pledge 67 tonnes of gold with Bank of England and Union Bank of Switzerland to secure emergency loans; This forced the 1991 economic liberalization reforms; About the Asian Financial Crisis: Occurred in 1997-98 — NOT in the early 1990s; it was AFTER India's 1991 reforms.
Option (a) Asian financial crisis — Incorrect: The Asian financial crisis occurred in 1997-98 — it started in Thailand and spread to other East/Southeast Asian economies; this was AFTER India's 1991 reforms, not a cause of the early 1990s BoP crisis.
Option (c) Fall of the Soviet Union — Incorrect: While the fall of the Soviet Union (December 1991) did disrupt India-Soviet trade (India had significant trade with the USSR under rupee-ruble arrangements), the PRIMARY external cause of India's early 1990s BoP crisis was the Gulf War and rising oil prices, not the Soviet collapse.
Option (d) Decline in agricultural exports — Incorrect: While India did face trade challenges, a decline in agricultural exports was NOT the primary external factor that worsened India's BoP crisis in the early 1990s; the Gulf War and consequent oil price spike and loss of Gulf remittances were the critical external factors. The candidate selected this incorrect option.

Correct Answer: Massive increase in foodgrain production — Option (a)
The Green Revolution in India refers to the massive increase in foodgrain (especially wheat and rice) production that occurred in the mid-1960s to mid-1970s. About the Green Revolution: Period: Mid-1960s to mid-1970s (approximate); Key figures: M.S. Swaminathan — 'Father of Green Revolution in India' (Indian); Norman Borlaug — 'Father of Green Revolution' (American, Nobel Peace Prize 1970); Initiated under: PM Lal Bahadur Shastri and continued under Indira Gandhi; Key components: High-Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds — especially Mexican dwarf wheat varieties and IR8 rice ('Miracle Rice'); Extensive use of chemical fertilizers (especially nitrogenous); Irrigation expansion; Pesticides and modern farming inputs; Improved agricultural practices; Impact: India's foodgrain production increased dramatically: Wheat production: From ~11 million tonnes (1960-61) to ~17 million tonnes (1968) — nearly doubled in a few years; Rice production also improved significantly; India moved from food-deficit to food-surplus nation; The 'Ship to Mouth' situation (India depending on PL-480 food aid from USA) ended; India became self-sufficient in foodgrains; Main regions: Punjab, Haryana, and Western Uttar Pradesh were the epicenters of the Green Revolution; Punjab became India's 'Granary' or 'Bread Basket'; Limitations: Benefits limited to certain crops (wheat, rice) and regions; Increased water usage and groundwater depletion; Heavy fertilizer/pesticide use causing environmental issues; Widening inequality between big and small farmers.
Option (b) Massive increase in the green cover area of the country — Incorrect: The Green Revolution is NOT about increasing forest/green cover; it refers specifically to the revolution in agricultural (foodgrain) production using HYV seeds, fertilizers, and irrigation; increasing green cover is related to afforestation programs, not the Green Revolution. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (c) Massive increase in horticulture production — Incorrect: The increase in horticulture (fruits and vegetables) production is sometimes called the 'Golden Revolution' or 'Second Green Revolution' in India — NOT the original Green Revolution; the Green Revolution specifically refers to the dramatic increase in foodgrain (wheat and rice) production.
Option (d) Massive increase in shrimp farming production — Incorrect: Shrimp farming production is associated with the 'Blue Revolution' (aquaculture/fisheries) in India — NOT the Green Revolution; the Green Revolution specifically refers to the dramatic increase in foodgrain production through HYV seeds and modern agricultural inputs.

Correct Answer: Both I and II — Option (c)
Both residential schools (Statement I) and non-residential schools (Statement II) come under the SHRESHTHA Yojana. About SHRESHTHA Yojana: Full name: Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas; Launched by: Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, Government of India; Target beneficiaries: Students belonging to Scheduled Castes (SC); Objective: To provide quality education to meritorious SC students by placing them in best private residential schools across India; Components of SHRESHTHA Yojana: Residential Component: Provides residential school education to SC students; SC students are placed in CBSE-affiliated private residential schools; School fees, hostel expenses, and other costs are borne by the government; Non-Residential Component: Provides educational support for SC students attending day schools (non-residential); This includes coaching, educational materials, and other support; Selection: Students are selected through a National Entrance Test (NETS) conducted by NTA (National Testing Agency); Funding: 100% Centrally Sponsored Scheme; About other key schemes for SC students: Pre-matric Scholarship Scheme for SC students; Post-matric Scholarship Scheme for SC students; Dr. Ambedkar Post Matric Scholarship for EBC; BARTI (Dr. Ambedkar Research and Training Institute) for skill training; Distinction from Navodaya Vidyalaya: Navodaya Vidyalayas are government residential schools for meritorious students from rural areas (not specifically SC-targeted); SHRESHTHA specifically targets SC students for private residential school education.
Option (a) Only I — Incorrect: While residential schools are indeed a component of SHRESHTHA Yojana (Statement I is correct), the scheme also has a non-residential component (Statement II is also correct); selecting 'Only I' misses the non-residential component of the scheme. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (b) Only II — Incorrect: While non-residential schools are a component of SHRESHTHA Yojana (Statement II is correct), the scheme's core feature is providing residential school education to SC students (Statement I is also correct); selecting 'Only II' misses the primary residential component.
Option (d) Neither I nor II — Incorrect: SHRESHTHA Yojana specifically deals with BOTH residential schools AND non-residential schools — both Statements I and II are components of SHRESHTHA Yojana; the correct answer is 'Both I and II.'

Correct Answer: 1699 — Option (d)
Guru Gobind Singh established the Khalsa Panth on Vaisakhi (April 13-14), 1699 at Anandpur Sahib. About the Khalsa Panth and Guru Gobind Singh: Founder: Guru Gobind Singh (1666-1708) — the 10th and last human Sikh Guru; Date: Vaisakhi, 1699 (April 13-14, 1699); Place: Anandpur Sahib (in present-day Punjab, India); How the Khalsa was established: Guru Gobind Singh called a special gathering of Sikhs at Vaisakhi 1699; He asked who was willing to die for their faith; Five volunteers stepped forward — they are called the Panj Pyare (Five Beloved Ones); Their names: Daya Ram (from Lahore), Dharam Das (from Delhi), Himmat Rai (from Jagannath Puri), Mohkam Chand (from Dwarka), Sahib Chand (from Bidar); Guru Gobind Singh gave these five Amrit (nectar/sweetened water stirred with a double-edged sword) in the Amrit Sanchar ceremony; The five were renamed: Daya Singh, Dharam Singh, Himmat Singh, Mohkam Singh, Sahib Singh — all with the surname 'Singh' (Lion); The Guru also received Amrit from the Panj Pyare, taking the name 'Gobind Singh'; The Five Ks (Panj Kakars ): Every Khalsa Sikh must carry: Kesh (uncut hair), Kangha (wooden comb), Kara (steel bracelet), Kachha /Kachera (cotton undergarment), Kirpan (steel sword); Significance: The Khalsa represents a community of committed Sikhs united by faith; All Sikh men took the surname 'Singh' (Lion); All Sikh women took the surname 'Kaur' (Princess); About 1606: The year Guru Arjan Dev Ji (5th Sikh Guru) was martyred — NOT the year of Khalsa formation.
Option (a) 1606 — Incorrect: 1606 is the year of the martyrdom of Guru Arjan Dev Ji (the 5th Sikh Guru) under Mughal Emperor Jahangir — this is NOT when the Khalsa Panth was established; the Khalsa was founded by Guru Gobind Singh in 1699. The candidate selected this incorrect option.
Option (b) 1648 — Incorrect: 1648 has no direct significance in the context of the Khalsa Panth; the Khalsa Panth was NOT established in 1648; Guru Gobind Singh himself was born in 1666 and founded the Khalsa in 1699.
Option (c) 1676 — Incorrect: 1676 is approximately when Guru Gobind Singh succeeded his father Guru Tegh Bahadur Ji (who was martyred in 1675 under Aurangzeb) as the 10th Guru — but the Khalsa Panth was NOT established in 1676; it was established in 1699 at Anandpur Sahib.

Correct Answer: Andhra Pradesh — Option (d)
The Andhra Pradesh state government launched the 'Digi-Lakshmi Yojana' in July 2025 to digitally empower urban poor women. About Digi-Lakshmi Yojana: Launched by: Andhra Pradesh state government; Launch date: July 2025; Purpose: To digitally empower urban poor women in Andhra Pradesh; Target beneficiaries: Urban poor women in Andhra Pradesh; Objective: To provide digital literacy, digital access, and digital financial empowerment to urban poor women; Components: Digital literacy training for poor women; Access to digital devices (smartphones/tablets) at subsidized rates; Training in online banking and digital payments; Linking beneficiaries to government welfare schemes through digital platforms; About Andhra Pradesh's welfare schemes for women: Andhra Pradesh has been proactive in launching welfare schemes for women; YSR Cheyutha : Financial assistance to women of SC/ST/BC/minority categories; YSR Aarogyasri : Health insurance; Jagananna Amma Vodi : Financial support for mothers sending children to school; The Digi-Lakshmi Yojana adds to these by focusing on DIGITAL empowerment of urban poor women; About digital empowerment of women in India: Digital India Mission aims to empower all citizens digitally; Women-specific digital programs: Aadhaar-linked Jan Dhan accounts for financial inclusion; PM MUDRA Yojana for women entrepreneurs; BharatNet for rural connectivity; Sahaj Jan Seva Kendras for digital access.
Option (a) Maharashtra — Incorrect: Maharashtra did NOT launch the Digi-Lakshmi Yojana for urban poor women in July 2025; this scheme was launched by the Andhra Pradesh state government; Maharashtra has its own women welfare schemes.
Option (b) Tamil Nadu — Incorrect: Tamil Nadu did NOT launch the Digi-Lakshmi Yojana in July 2025; this scheme was specifically launched by the Andhra Pradesh state government to digitally empower urban poor women.
Option (c) Karnataka — Incorrect: Karnataka did NOT launch the Digi-Lakshmi Yojana in July 2025; the Andhra Pradesh government launched this scheme; Karnataka has its own separate schemes like Gruha Lakshmi (financial support to women household heads) and others.